The valuesStartRoot 10 EndRoot and StartRoot 15 EndRoot are plotted on the number line.

Answer:

XY = 8 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

PQ is a midsegment and is half the length of the 3rd side XY , then

XY = 2 × PQ = 2 × 4 = 8 cm

Answer:

Translation across the coordinate plane

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to get the kind of transformation that has occurred to the shape

from the given coordinate diagram, we can see that A shifted from (2,3) to (-3,6)

B shifted from (2,-2) to (-3,1)

and C shifted from (-1,-4) to (-6,-1)

If we look at these, we can observe that there is a change in the x-axis coordinate in each by (-1-(-6) or 2-(-3) = 5 units

and there is a change in the y-axis value by (3-6) = -3 units

so the transformation here can be represented generally as;

(x -5, y+ 3)

With this, we can see that what we have represented is simply a translation across the coordinate plane

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Corresponding angles in similar figures are congruent. Corresponding angles are listed in the same order in the similarity statement.

  ∠A = ∠W = 55°

  ∠B = ∠X = 125°

  ∠C = ∠Y = 110°

  ∠D = ∠Z = 70°

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

area=πr²=π×2²=4π≈4×3.14≈12.56 km²

Answer:

12.56

Step-by-step explanation:

area of circle = pi r^ 2

pi= 22/7

r= 2km

22/7×2×2

22/7×4

22/28

12.56 is ans

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

P=(8*2)+(3*2)

16+6=22

Answer:

22 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter = 8 + 3 + 8 + 3

= 22 inches

Answer: [tex]12m^2+19m-18[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Speed of boat [tex]v=3m-2\ \text{knots per hour}[/tex]

[tex]\text{time t= }4m+9\ \text{hours}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \text{Distance =speed}\times \text{time}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \text{Distance d=}(3m-2)\cdot (4m+9)\\\Rightarrow d=12m^2+19m-18[/tex]

Answer:A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is A

Step-by-step explanation:

i took the test and it showed it was corrected when i got done checking my test score please choose A.

Answer:

-4 < n ≤ 5

Step-by-step explanation:

_________________

Answer:

The Equation Is - Week(n) =  [tex]2^{n}[/tex] (infected)

Step-by-step explanation:

Now We Have to just Put The Value Of 'n'.

Week(0) = 1  

Week(1) = 2

Week(2) = 4

Week(3) = 8  

Week(4) = 16

and so on.

The interval where g is negative is in the domain of -5 ≤ x < 1

The reason for the above selected interval is as follows;

A function is negative over an interval where the graph of the function is

below the x-axis, and the y-coordinate values are negative, excluding

where the y-value is zero. The interval over which a function is negative is

also  called the negative region

From the given graph, the function, g(x), we have;

At x = 1, y = g(x) = 0

At x = -5, y = g(x) ≈ -7 and increasing to 0

Therefore at x = -5, g(x) ≈ -7, is negative

Tis negative over the interval -5 ≤ x < 1

Therefore;

The interval where g(x) is negative is -5 ≤ x < 1.

Learn more about intervals of functions here;

https://brainly.com/question/8933368

Answer:

70,000 - 20,000= 50,000

Answer:

ans: KM = 576/13

Step-by-step explanation:

break given triangle to two triangle,

use pythagoras theorem to find LN

now, splited triangle are similar to each other so corresponding sides are proportional to each other

Answer:

ans: 5

Step-by-step explanation:

use the set theory to solve it,

Answer:

there are 6 type of tryingle hope it helps

Answer:

- 30

Step-by-step explanation:

3x + 2y - 5xy

3(2) - 2(3) - 5((2)(3))

6 - 6 - 30

6 - 6 - 30

- 30

Answer:

2a (3-4a)

Step-by-step explanation:

(2a+1)-4a(2a+1)+4a

2a+1-8a²-1+4a

= 2a+4a-8a²

=6a-8a²

= 2a(3-4a)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use distributive property: a*(b+c) = (a*b) + (a*c)

-4a*(2a + 1) = -4a*2a + 1*(-4a)

                  = -8a² - 4a

2a + 1 - 4a(2a + 1) + 4a = 2a + 1 - 8a² - 4a + 4a

                                    = 2a + 1 - 8a²

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 exponent 4

[tex] = {3}^{4} [/tex]

= 3 × 3 × 3 × 3

= 81 (Ans)

Answer:

6/7 or 85.7 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you will want to add all of the candies together and find the sum

Then you will want to take away the Lemon candies as you are looking for the probability of NOT choosing those,

so at this point, you should have 12 take that 12, and put it over the total number, so 12/14 then either simplify, or switch to a percentage, or both, and there is your answer.

Answer:

1) yes

2) no

Step-by-step explanation:

1)

[tex]\frac{1}{2} *\frac{2}{2}=\frac{2}{4}[/tex]

This is correct because 1 time 2 equals 2 and 2 times 2 equals 4.

2)

[tex]\frac{1}{2} * \frac{?}{?}= \frac{4}{6}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{2} *\frac{4}{3} =\frac{4}{6}[/tex]

This is incorrect because the numerator multiplied is different from the denominator multiplied.

-------------------------------

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] =  [tex]\frac{2}{4}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{4}{8}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{5}{10}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{6}{12}[/tex] ...

Sorry I didn't know how to explain that much but I hope you understand.

Answer:

-.985

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=-4/9, y=-74/9.

Step-by-step explanation:

y=32x+6

y=14x-2

-----------

32x+6=14x-2

32x-14x+6=-2

18x+6=-2

18x=-2-6

18x=-8

x=-8/18

simplify

x=-4/9

y=14(-4/9)-2=-56/9-2=-74/9

Answer:

[tex]x\le \:-1[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]3\left(x-1\right)\le \frac{1}{2}\left(x+1\right)-6[/tex]

[tex]3x-3\le \:-\frac{11}{2}+\frac{1}{2}x[/tex]

[tex]3x\le \:-\frac{5}{2}+\frac{1}{2}x\\[/tex]

[tex]\frac{5}{2}x\le \:-\frac{5}{2}[/tex]

[tex]5x\le \:-5[/tex]

[tex]x\le \:-1[/tex]

x = -1

3(-2) ≤ ½(0) - 6

-6 ≤ 0 - 6

-6 ≤ -6

This is true.

x = -2

3(-3) ≤ ½(-1) - 6

-9 ≤ -½ - 6

-9 ≤ [tex]-\frac{13}{2}[/tex]

This is also true.

Therefore, x ≤ -1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us say x=2 and y=1

Using the formula,

=>((2^2)-(1^2))^2+(2(2)(1))^2=((2^2)+(1^2))^2

=>(4-1)^2+(4)^2=(4+1)^2

=>(3)^2+(4)^2=(5)^2

Which is pythogorian triplet

Answer:

Se requiere 34 meses para producir un interés de 8700 soles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Asumamos que el capital aumenta conforme a una tasa de interés compuesto, cuya fórmula se describe aquí abajo:

[tex]C = C_{o}\cdot \left(1 + \frac{r}{100} \right)^{t}[/tex] (1)

Donde:

[tex]C_{o}[/tex] - Capital inicial, en soles.

[tex]C[/tex] - Capital actual, en soles.

[tex]r[/tex] - Tasa de interés mensual, en [tex]\frac{1}{a}[/tex].

[tex]t[/tex] - Período de capitalización, en años.

Si sabemos que [tex]C_{o} = 42000[/tex], [tex]C = 50700[/tex] y [tex]r = 7\,\frac{\%}{a}[/tex], entonces el período de capitalización es:

[tex]C = C_{o}\cdot \left(1 + \frac{r}{100} \right)^{t}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{C}{C_{o}} = \left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right)^{t}[/tex]

[tex]\ln \frac{C}{C_{o}} = t\cdot \ln \left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right)[/tex]

[tex]t = \frac{\ln C - \ln C_{o}}{\ln \left(1+\frac{r}{100} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]t = \frac{\ln 50700 - \ln 42000}{\ln \left(1+\frac{7}{100} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]t = 2.782\,yr[/tex]

Es decir, se requiere 34 meses para producir un interés de 8700 soles.