The space shuttle carries c pounds of cargo, and each piece of cargo weighs 212.66 pounds. Which of the following expressions represents the number of pieces of cargo?

Answer:

0.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Check the attachment.

The inputs of the function are -8, 2, 4, and 6.

The input is the number that we put into the given function to get the output function.

x  and y of the function are given below

X    –8      2     4    6

f(x)  –6    –3     1     5  

From the given table, the inputs are given as the set of x values.

outputs are given as the set of y values. here, x is the input value that gives the output f(x).

Since x represents the input values and y represents the output values.

So, inputs of the function are -8, 2, 4 and 6

Learn more about input function ;

https://brainly.com/question/24846347

Answer:

22 tickets

Step-by-step explanation:

4/6 is 2/3
2/3 of 32 is 21 .3
Can't sell 0.3 of a ticket, so round up.
22 tickets

Answer:

Yes, it is...

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2 + y^2 = 100

---This is an equation for a circle.

A circle does not pass the vertical line test, so it is not a function.

Answer: NOT a function

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Each order of rings comes with 3 rings. There are 78 order to pack how many rings is there going to be?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

200 sq units

Step-by-step explanation:

As you might know, 3 angles of a triangle adds up to 180*. Since you already know the angles are 60* there is one more 60*. So by this you know that all the sides are equal.

As the given states, one side is 20. So following the standard way to get the area of a triangle b*h/2; 20*20 = 400 / 2 = 200 sq units

Answer:

72

Step-by-step explanation:

First. I counted the triangles. Then, I found the area of one triangle. Since the area of a triangle is (base*height)/2, I found the area of one triangle this way: 6x6=36. 36/2=16. After that, I then multiplied the area of the one triangle by four, since there are four triangles. 16x4=72

Answer:

35 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

1050 / 3000 as a percent

1050 / 3000 = 105 / 300

Divide both sides by 3:

300 / 3 = 100

105 / 3 = 35

35 / 100 = 35 percent

34%

This is because when you divide 1,050 by 3,000 you get 0.34 then turn that into a percent then there you go

Answer:

56x

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of it an a triangle and a rectangle. The area of the rectangle is obviously 13 x 4x, which is 52x

for triangle, the hypotenuse is C, Right hand side is B and the side that is in the shape is B.

Area of triangle = (bh) / 2

B = 13 - 9, so B = 4

A = 6x - 4x, so A = 2x

the area is 2x x 4, which is 8x.

8x / 2 = 4x

The area is 4x + 52x, so the final answer is 56x

Answer:

8:11 o Clock

Step-by-step explanation:

Stay safe, stay healthy and blessed.

Have a good day !

Thank you

The additive inverse of –2+ 8i will be 2 – 8i. The additive inverse of a digit is the digit that delivers zero when added to it.

The additive inverse of a number is the number that produces zero when added to it. A negative number's additive inverse is positive. The additive inverse of itself is zero.

From the definition;

[tex]\rm x= 2+ 8i \\\\ \rm x= 2+ 8i + 2-8i \\\\ \rm x= 0[/tex]

Option C gives zero on addition. That's why it is correct.

Hence the additive inverse of –2+ 8i will be 2 – 8i.

To learn more about the additive inverse refer to the link;

https://brainly.com/question/13715269

Answer:

The answer is C:

2-8i

Step-by-step explanation:

Edge 2022 :-)

[tex]\qquad\qquad\huge\underline{{\sf Answer}}♨[/tex]

Total outcomes in which Billy can get 5 or more : 2 outcomes

Total outcomes = 6

So, the probability of getting 5 or higher is ~

[tex]\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: \dfrac{favorable \: outcomes}{total \: outcomes} [/tex]

[tex]\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: \dfrac{2}{6} [/tex]

[tex]\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: \dfrac{1}{3} [/tex]

Therefore, the correct choice is C

➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖

Answer:

a, 1/4

b, 75%

Step-by-step explanation:

a, total mins meant to be played = 80mins

mins being played = 20mins

fraction of the match being played = 20 /80 = 1/4

b, percentage of the match left to be played

= 80 - 20 = 60

then we find the fraction of the match meant to be played

60 / 80 = 3 /4

then we multiply by 100 to get the percentage

3/4 × 100 = 75 %

if this helped pls give brainliest

Answer:

1. Find the circumference, then multiply that by 120 turns.

Formula for circumference;

C = 2πr

But, we need to find the radius which is 1/2(half) of the diameter, so,

D/2 = R

D = Diameter

R = Radius

20/2 = 10 is the radius.

Plug in values now:-

C = 2(3.14) x 10

C = 6.28 x 10

C = 62.8 is the circumference, now we multiply this by 120 to get the total amount of centimetres it'll go.

62.8(120)

= 7,536 cm it'll go.

2. Find the circumference, then multiply that by 750 turns/revolutions.

C = 2πr

Find radius,

D/2 = R

50/2 = 25 is the radius.

Plug in values now:-

C = 2(3.14) x 25

C = 6.28 x 25

C = 157 cm it'll go.

3. Same thing, find circumference then compare values.

Given that radius is 10,

Use the formula for circumference;

C = 2πr

Replace values:-

C = 2(3.14) x 10

C = 6.28 x 10

C = 62.8 cm is the circumference of the first circle.

Now the second circle, (use same formula)

C = 2πr

Find radius,

D/2 = R

10/2 = 5 is the radius.

Replace values:-

C = 2(3.14) x 5

C = 6.28 x 5

C = 31.4 cm is the circumference for the second circle.

Now subtract the second circle's circumference from the first:

62.8 - 31.4

= 31.4, 31.4 cm is how much greater the second circle is than the first.

4 - 5. Find circumference, (using circumference formula)

C = 2πr

Find radius,

D/2 = R

760/2 = 380

Replace values:-

C = 2(3.14) x 380

C = 6.28 x 380

C = 2,386.4 km is the distance he'll travel.

If he wants to travel around it with 2,000 km, he'll need to travel at least once.

The diameter of wrapper is the line that passes through its circumference

The smallest diameter of wrapper that will fit the candy bar is 8 cm.

The diven parameter is:

AD = 4 cm

AD = DC

AC = AD + DC

Substitute AD = DC in AC = AD + DC

So, we have:

AC = AD + AD

AC = 2AD

Substitute 4 for AD

AC = 2 * 4

AC = 8

Hence, the smallest diameter of wrapper that will fit the candy bar is 8 cm.

Read more about diameters at:

https://brainly.com/question/12944899

Answer:

B. 8cm

Hope this helps! :D

Step-by-step explanation:

10.

(07.02 MC)

This is a cross-sectional view of candy bar ABC. A candy company wants to create a cylindrical container for candy bar ABC so that it is circumscribed about the candy bar. If segment AD = 4 cm, what is the smallest diameter of wrapper that will fit the candy bar? (1 point)

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

4x-7=13

Add 7 to each side

4x-7+7 = 13+7

4x=20

Divide each side by 4

4x/4 = 20/4

x = 5

Answer:

x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\hookrightarrow 4x-7=13 \\\\\hookrightarrow 4x=13+7\\\\\hookrightarrow 4x=20\\\\\hookrightarrow x=20/4\\\\\hookrightarrow x=5[/tex]

Answer:

1207

Step-by-step explanation:

Total number of customers last week: 92 + 5 + 25 = 122

Number of customers who paid cash: 92

Percent of customers who paid cash last week: 92/122 × 100% = 75.4%

Next week:

Total number of customers: 1600

Expected number of customers paying cash:

75.4% of 1600 = 0.754 × 1600 = 1207

Answer:

1st answer was wrong

area of circle - quarter

Step-by-step

100pi- (100pi÷4)

100pi - 25pi

75pi

Answer:

-5 ± √5² - 4 · 1 · 4

         2 · 1

Step-by-step explanation:

ax²+bx+c=0 (quadratic equation)

x= -b ± √b² - 4ac

           2a

a= 1

b= 5

c= 4

-5 ± √5² - 4 · 1 · 4

            2 · 1

Answer:

‍♂️

Step-by-step explanation:

Sry dunno the answer

Can u just give brainliest pls?

Answer:

1 pair of jeans and 3 sweatshirts

Step-by-step explanation:

41-17=24

24/8=3

The inequality shows the number of sweatshirts Monique can buy along with one pair of jeans if she has $41 to spend  will be; 17x + 8y ≤ 41

An inequality is a mathematical statement that compares two values or expressions using a relational operator, such as less than (<), greater than (>), less than or equal to (≤), greater than or equal to (≥), or not equal to (≠). Inequalities are used to describe relationships between quantities or to express constraints or conditions.

We are given that clothing store is selling a pair of jeans for $17 and a sweatshirt for $8.

Therefore,

41-17=24

Unit price = 24/8=3

Thus 1 pair of jeans and 3 sweatshirts

The inequality shows the number of sweatshirts Monique can buy along with one pair of jeans becomes as;

17x + 8y ≤ 41

Learn more about inequality ;

brainly.com/question/14164153

#SPJ2

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

YOU DID IT'S A GOOD DAY

The actual length the ball can travel in one rotation of 230 degrees is approximately 24.06 feet.

[tex]2\pi^c = 360^\circ = \text{Full circumference}[/tex]

The superscript 'c' shows angle measured is in radians.

If radius of the circle is of r units, then:

[tex]1^c \: \rm covers \: \dfrac{circumference}{2\pi} = \dfrac{2\pi r}{2\pi} = r\\\\or\\\\\theta^c \: covers \:\:\: r \times \theta \: \rm \text{units of arc}[/tex]

We are given that;

The angle= 230 degrees

Radius of rope= 6ft

Now,

If the tether ball is tied to a rope with a radius of 6 ft and can rotate 230 degrees, then the length of the rope that the ball travels in one rotation can be found using the formula for the circumference of a circle, which is:

C = 2πr

where C is the circumference of the circle, r is the radius of the circle, and π is the mathematical constant pi (approximately equal to 3.14).

To find the length the ball can travel in one rotation of 230 degrees, we first need to convert 230 degrees to radians by multiplying it by π/180.

230 degrees * π/180 ≈ 4.01 radians

Now we can calculate the length of the rope that the ball travels in one rotation of 230 degrees using the formula:

L = rθ

where L is the length of the rope traveled by the ball, r is the radius of the circle (the length of the rope), and θ is the angle traveled in radians.

L = 6 ft * 4.01 radians

L = 24.06 ft

Therefore, by the given angle the answer will be approximately 24.06 feet.

Learn more about angle, arc length relation here:

https://brainly.com/question/15451496

#SPJ3

Answer:The quadratic model obtained using a quadratic regression solver with Coefficient rounded to the nearest hundredth is :y = - 15.57x² + 179.32x + 0.20height = yx = time                          Using the model obtained;The height, to the nearest foot, at a time, x = 6.4 seconds.y = - 15.57x² + 179.32x + 0.20y = - 15.57(6.4^2) + 179.32(6.4) + 0.20y = 510.1008y = 510

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 1.

x |0|0.5|2

dy/dx |2|5 |undefined

2.

x |0 |0.5| 2

dy/dx |undefined|5 | 2

3.

x | 0 |0.5|2

dy/dx|undefined |4 |2

Step-by-step explanation:

well, its difference is 187 - 110 = 77.

now, if we take 110 as the 100%, what is 77 off of it in percentage?

[tex]\begin{array}{ccll} amount&\%\\ \cline{1-2} 110 & 100\\ 77& x \end{array} \implies \cfrac{110}{77}=\cfrac{100}{x}\implies \cfrac{10}{7}=\cfrac{100}{x} \\\\\\ 10x=700\implies x=\cfrac{700}{10}\implies x=70[/tex]

Answer:

y = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it's the second option

[tex]y=1[/tex]