The seeds in bush bean pods are each the product of an independent fertilization event. Green seed color is dominant to white seed color in bush beans. If a heterozygous plant with green seeds self-fertilizes, what is the probability that 6 seeds in a single pod of the progeny plant will consist of:
A) 4 green and 2 white seeds?
B) all white seeds?
C) at least 5 white seeds
Answers
Since green seed color is dominant to white seed color and the plant is heterozygous for seed color, we can use the Punnett square (which is attached) to determine the probability of different seed colors in the progeny. Let G represent the dominant green allele, and g represent the recessive white allele.
The probability of each type of offspring can be determined by using the Punnett square.
A) To get 4 green and 2 white seeds, we need 4 of the 6 seeds to have the dominant G allele and 2 of the 6 seeds to have the recessive g allele. The probability of each seed having a certain allele is 1/2 since the plant is heterozygous. Therefore, the probability of getting 4 green and 2 white seeds is:
(6!/(4!2!))(1/2)^4(1/2)^2 = 15/64 or 0.2344 or 23.44%
B) To get all white seeds, all 6 seeds must have the recessive g allele. The probability of each seed having the recessive allele is 1/2. Therefore, the probability of getting all white seeds is:
(1/2)^6 = 1/64 or 0.0156 or 1.56%
C) To get at least 5 white seeds, we can calculate the probability of getting 5 white seeds and 6 white seeds separately, and then add them together.
Probability of 5 white seeds: (6!/(5!1!))(1/2)^5(1/2)^1 = 6/64 or 0.0938 or 9.38%
Probability of 6 white seeds: (1/2)^6 = 1/64 or 0.0156 or 1.56%
The total probability of getting at least 5 white seeds is:
6/64 + 1/64 = 7/64 or 0.1094 or 10.94%
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Related Questions
Large organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement?
a) a steroid b) cellulose c) DNA d) an enzyme e) a contractile protein
Answers
C) The DNA molecule is a polymer since it is made up of several repeating subunits. Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA monomers, and a "polynucleotide" is the name given to a DNA polymer made up of two strands.
What is DNA what does it do?The information molecule is DNA. It provides the knowledge required to produce proteins, another type of substantial molecule. Each of your cells contains 46 substantial structures called chromosomes which are distributed throughout these instructions. Many smaller pieces of DNA, known as genes, make up these chromosomes.
What is DNA composed of?Nucleotides are chemical building units that made DNA. A phosphate component, a sugar group, and one of the four different nitrogen bases make up these building components.
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recall the ways systemic radiation targets cancer cells. check all that apply A. use of ct scans to send beams of energy to destroy cancer cells
B. use of aspirin to fight cancer cellsuse of aspirin to fight cancer cells C. use of specific radioactive elements to target specific areas where cancer is located
D. use of chemicals that target specific points of the cell cycle
E. use of targeting molecules to bind to the surface of cancer cells and destroy them
Answers
The ways systemic radiation targets cancer cells are use of ct scans to send beams of energy to destroy cancer cells and use of targeting molecules to bind to the surface of cancer cells and destroy them.
What do cancer cells do?Cancer cells can break away from the original tumor and travel through the blood or lymph system to distant locations in the body, where they exit the vessels to form additional tumors. This is called metastasis.
Cancer cells have gene mutations that turn the cell from a normal cell into a cancer cell. These gene mutations may be inherited, develop over time as we get older and genes wear out, or develop if we are around something that damages our genes.
Different cells fight different types of cancer. For example, one way the immune system fights cancer is by sending out a special form of white blood cells called T cells: The T cells see cancer as “foreign” cells that don't belong in the body.
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Imagine what you would want to tell the patient if you were their doctor, chromosomal difference present
Answers
A doctor can alert to another about chromosome abnormalities regarding the chromosomal features of a patient.
What are chromosomal abnormalities in a patient?The expression of chromosomal abnormalities in a patient makes reference to certain phenomena associated with the inheritance of abnormal chromosomes in the somatic cell of an individual such as the presence of an extra chromosome which is called trisomy.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that chromosomal abnormalities in a patient may be associated with the presence and or absence of extra chromosomes and it may lead to different problems in health.
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Which of the following findings by early researchers is most true according to the basic principles of modern genetics?a. mother and father do not contribute to the genetic makeup of the childb. the father is more dominant contribute to the genetic makeup of a childc. the mother is more dominant in contributing to the genetic makeup of a childd. The mother and father contribute equally to the genetic makeup of a child
Answers
The correct answer is option D. The mother and father contribute equally to the genetic makeup of a child according to modern genetics principles.
According to basic principles of modern genetics while some aspects of growth may be greatly influenced by biology, other factors, such as the environment, may also play a substantial role. The timing of puberty, for instance, is significantly influenced by genetics, but environmental factors like nutrition can also be important. The interaction of a child's environment and genetics shapes their personality from the moment of birth. Even though the genetic instructions their parents pass on to them may give a road map for development, the environment can influence how a child's genetic instructions are expressed, moulded, or even inhibited.
The proper question is:
Which of the following findings by early researchers is most true according to the basic principles of modern genetics?
a. mother and father do not contribute to the genetic makeup of the child
b. the father is more dominant and contributes to the genetic makeup of a child
c. the mother is more dominant in contributing to the genetic makeup of a child
d. The mother and father contribute equally to the genetic makeup of a child
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Select all of the following that occur in natural populations and that violate the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
-mating is often nonrandom
-allele frequencies can change due to chance events
-migration among populations occurs
Answers
All the given options occur in natural populations and violate the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (HWE) : mating is often nonrandom; allele frequencies can change due to chance events; migration among populations occurs.
HWE is a principle which states that the genetic equilibrium of a population remains constant from one generation to another, until disturbed by some external factor like mutation, gene flow, etc.
Migration of genes is the transfer of genetic composition from one population to another. This is also called the gene flow. Gene flow can be due to one individual from a population going to another one which then causes vertical transfer after mating.
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Which of the following options is correct?The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is NOT a true endocrine gland becausea. embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in an adult human, it is no longer functional.b. it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release.c. it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue. It is actually a part of the neural system due to its location.d. it is a hormone storage area that receives hormones synthesized in the hypothalamus for their release.
Answers
Option d is Correct. The pituitary gland's neurohypophysis, also known as the posterior lobe, is a hormone storage compartment that absorbs hormones produced in the brain for release, hence it is not a endocrine gland.
Only two hormones are stored and released (secreted) by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland: ADH, also referred to as vasopressin: By regulating the quantity of water your kidneys reabsorb while they are filtering waste from your blood, ADH helps maintain the proper balance of water in your body.
The pituitary gland's neurohypophysis, also known as the posterior lobe, is a hormone storage compartment that absorbs hormones produced in the brain for release, hence it is not a real endocrine gland. Hormones are still released by the posterior pituitary.
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How does the RNA of spliceosomes recognize which areas of a primary transcript to splice?
The 5' exon-intron boundary is marked by the bases GC. Also, there is a T ribonucleotide near the end of the intron.
The 3' exon-intron boundary is marked by the bases GU. Also, there is an A ribonucleotide near the 5' end of the intron.
The 5' exon-intron boundary is marked by the bases GU. Also, there is an A ribonucleotide near the 3' end of the intron.
Introns are formed by a unique repeated sequence that makes them recognizable for splicing.
Answers
A natural, non-renewable
fuel such as coal, oil, and
natural gas formed over
millions of years from the
remains of dead organisms
Answers
A natural, non-renewable fuel such as coal, oil, and natural gas formed over millions of years from the remains of dead organisms is fossil fuel.
What is fossil fuel?Because they were generated from the petrified, buried remains of plants and animals that once lived millions of years ago, coal, crude oil, and natural gas are all referred to as fossil fuels.
Oil, natural gas, coal, and nuclear energy are the four main categories of nonrenewable energy. Fossil fuels are a term that refers to coal, natural gas, and oil together. The term "fossil fuels" refers to the fossilized remains of plants and animals that were produced deep within the Earth over millions of years.
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complete question:
What is a natural, non-renewable fuel such as coal, oil, and natural gas formed over millions of years from the remains of dead organisms?
The longer the amount of time since two species diverge the more difference there will be in their DNA and explain why 
Answers
The greater the time elapsed since two species diverged, the greater the difference in their DNA as over time, mutations accumulate in population DNA, resulting in genetic differences between the two populations.
What is the significance of the mutation in genetic divergence?Mutations and genetic differences between populations can also arise from processes such as natural selection, genetic drift, etc., and the accumulation of genetic changes that are beneficial for survival and reproduction.
Hence, the greater the time elapsed since two species diverged, the greater the difference in their DNA as over time, mutations accumulate in population DNA, resulting in genetic differences between the two populations.
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the tadpoles of mexican spadefoot toads are known to exhibit phenotypic plasticity depending on food availability. tadpole mouthparts can vary significantly, prompting researchers to categorize them as either omnivore-morph or carnivore-morph. carnivore-morph tadpoles are larger and have mouthparts that are better suited for predation. remarkably, carnivore-morph tadpoles can change into omnivore-morph tadpoles when the food supply changes. true or false
Answers
The statement that the tadpoles of Mexican spadefoot toads are known to exhibit phenotypic plasticity depending on food availability is true.
The correct option is True.
What is phenotypic plasticity?The capacity of an organism to adapt to environmental inputs or stimuli is known as phenotypic plasticity.
A genotype's capacity to express many phenotypes in response to its environment is known as phenotypic plasticity. For instance, clones of the water flea (Daphnia) that are genetically identical can have different morphologies depending on whether they are raised in the presence or absence of a possible predator.
Another example is the tadpoles of Mexican spadefoot toads whose mouthparts can vary significantly, prompting researchers to categorize them as either omnivore-morph or carnivore-morph
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Which of the following hormones is released from the liver in response to increased levels of growth hormone?
a. Cortisol
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Somatostatin
d. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
Answers
The hormone that is released from the liver in response to increased levels of growth hormone is the Insulin-like growth factor (IGF). So, option d. is the correct option.
Considerably IGF is secreted by the liver and is transported to different tissues, acting as an endocrine hormone. Insulin-like growth factors or IGFs are peptide hormones secreted from numerous diverse cells. Their identification as "insulin-like" derived from experiments in which the remedy of serum with antibodies to insulin failed to eradicate all insulin activity; the remaining activity was eventually ascribed to the IGFs. There are two prevalent IGFs referred to as IGF-1 and IGF-2.
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page 134 5.4 the nucleoid and bacterial cell division complete the following passage about bacterial dna.
Membrane proteins have many functions. Which of the following cell functions are linked to membrane proteins?
- detect and respond to the environment
- secrete virulence factors
- maintain an electrical gradient
- attach to surfaces
- regulate homeostasis
Answers
All of the options are correct. Membrane proteins detect and respond to the environment, secrete virulence factors, maintain an electrical gradient, attach to surfaces and regulate homeostasis.
Membrane protein – what is it?Membrane protein is the protein molecule which is joined to or connected to an organelle's or cell's membrane. Depending on the way the protein is connected to the membrane, membrane proteins can divided into two categories. Integral membrane proteins are embedded permanently there in plasma membrane.
What is the membrane protein's structure?The most fluid, mobile region of the lipid bilayer is in the middle of a membrane, where a ring of densely packed headgroups on either side of the membrane comes into touch with the membrane protein in its natural environment.
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What are the 5 major air pollutants?
Answers
Significant air pollutants include carbon monoxide (CO), ammonia (NH3), nitric oxide (NO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), ozone (O3), particulate matter (PM), sulphur dioxide (SO2), and volatile organic compounds (VOC).
Air toxics are a different class of air pollutants that are normally present at low concentrations in the atmosphere but have toxic properties and may cause health impacts even at low exposure levels. Automobile exhaust as well as a few commercial and industrial processes were sources of air toxics.
Any chemical, physical, or biological entity that alters the natural properties of the atmosphere is considered an air pollutant and can affect either the indoor or outdoor environment. Common causes of air pollution include motor vehicles, industrial operations, household combustion devices, and forest fires.
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which of the following is not a true statement most hormones systems function under a positive feedback system
Answers
Among the following that is not a true statement is (A) most hormones systems function under a positive feedback system.
Most hormone systems don't have positive feedback. Positive feedback regulates some hormonal systems, like the female reproductive cycle, but not most. Many hormone systems use a negative feedback system to stabilize the internal environment by counteracting or reducing input. In response to increased blood cortisol levels, the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis inhibits adrenal gland cortisol secretion.
Positive feedback processes increase the initial stimulus, causing a quick and brief reaction. Positive feedback in hormonal regulation causes female ovulation by increasing luteinizing hormone (LH).
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How can you tell if two objects are in thermal equilibrium? Hint: equilibrium has the root word equal (=) Responses The objects' temperatures are changing. The objects' temperatures are changing. The objects are touching each other. The objects are touching each other. The objects have the same temperature.
Answers
The objects are in thermal equilibrium when they have the same temperature.
The correct answer is D.
What is thermal equilibrium?Thermal equilibrium is a state in which two or more objects are at the same temperature and there is no net transfer of heat between them. Heat is a form of energy that can be transferred from one object to another due to a temperature difference. When two objects are in contact, heat will flow from the hotter object to the cooler object until they reach the same temperature.
In thermal equilibrium, there is no net transfer of heat between the objects, and their temperatures remain constant. If the objects' temperatures are changing, then they are not in thermal equilibrium. Similarly, the objects do not need to be touching each other to be in thermal equilibrium; they could be separated by some distance and still have the same temperature.
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Which graph best represents directional selection?
Original population
Original population
Original population
Population
aftor
Population
ME VE VA
selection
after
selection
Trait Valuo
Trait Value
Trait Value
Graph A
Graph B
Graph C
Population
after
selection
Answers
The graph that best represents directional selection is B. Therefore, the correct option is B.
What is directional selection?It is a type of natural selection where traits on one side of the mean in their population survive better or reproduce more than those on the other side.
It favors the selection of the most adapted and extreme phenotype over other traits. Thus, as the generations continue, organisms with the desired phenotype increase in the population.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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The question is incomplete but most probably the complete question is,
Which graph best represents directional selection?
Original population
Original population
Original population
Population
actor
Population
ME VE VA
selection
after
selection
Trait Value
Trait Value
Trait Value
Graph A
Graph B
Graph C
Population
after
selection
Which bone do tear ducts pass through?
Answers
In Guinea pigs, short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s), rough coat (R) is dominant over smooth coat (r), and black hair (B) is dominant over white hair (b). List the possible gametes that can be produced by each of the individuals below.
1) SSRRbb
2) ssRrBB
3) SsRrbb
4) SsRrBb
Answers
To list the possible gametes for each individual, we can use the rules of Mendelian genetics, which state that each individual inherits two copies of each gene, one from each parent, and that the two copies may be the same (homozygous) or different (heterozygous).
SSRRbb: This individual is homozygous dominant for short hair and rough coat, and homozygous recessive for white hair. Therefore, the possible gametes are: SRb, SRb
ssRrBB: This individual is homozygous recessive for short hair, heterozygous for rough coat, and homozygous dominant for black hair. Therefore, the possible gametes are: srB, srB, sRB, sRB
SsRrbb: This individual is heterozygous for short hair, rough coat, and white hair. Therefore, the possible gametes are: SRb, Srb, sRb, srb
SsRrBb: This individual is heterozygous for all three traits. Therefore, the possible gametes are: SRB, SRb, SrB, Srb, sRB, sRb, srB, srb
Note that each individual produces four gametes, which are all equally likely to combine with gametes from another individual to form a zygote with a new combination of traits.
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7. For the following scenario provide a hypothesis, the dependent variable, independent variable, standardized variables, and control group.
Scenario: You want to determine whether plants communicate with their neighbors in response to stress, so you design an experiment. You have two groups of plants, one that will be exposed to a stressor and another that will not. You apply the stress 3 times a day for 10 days. At day 1 you measure the amount of stress hormone in the plants and then again you measure the amount of stress hormone on day 10.
Answers
Here, the hypothesis is "plants communicate with their neighbors in response to stress", dependent variable is the amount of the stress hormone in the plants, and the independent variable is the exposure to stress (applied 3 times a day for 10 days), standardized variables are plants used, duration of the stressor, amount of stress hormone. The control group is the plant that is not exposed to stressor.
What is the significance of the control group?Here, the control group is the group of plants that are not exposed to stress, and the control groups plants are experimented or tested with the other plants to get the result of the stress hormone on the plants.
Hence, here, the hypothesis is "plants communicate with their neighbors in response to stress", dependent variable is the amount of the stress hormone in the plants, and the independent variable is the exposure to stress (applied 3 times a day for 10 days), standardized variables are plants used, duration of the stressor, amount of stress hormone. The control group is the plant that is not exposed to stressor.
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Tascha is on medication that increases the pH if the stomach and make it alkaline. What is the effect of this medication
Answers
Answer:
A. The medication hampers bile production.
Explanation:
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select the incorrect statement regarding the reason why microbes do not generally grow in salty environments
Answers
Select the incorrect statement regarding the reason why microbes do not generally grow in salty environments is they cause water to enter the microbial cell, resulting in cell lysis.
Microbes are small organisms that can only be seen with a microscope such as bacteria and archaea. Some things that affect microbial growth are temperature, pH, nutrients, oxygen, and breeding grounds.
Generally microbial growth optimally in an environment with a neutral pH. Microbes cannot live in an environment with a high salt content because they will shrink and die. The osmosis process that occurs in microbes when placed in an environment with a high salt content, causes the water in the microbial body to come out so that the bacteria shrink and die. Lysis is not the reason bacterial microbes cannot live in salty places because bacterial cells do not burst.
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According to mendel's experiment, show a chart of The fertilization between pure black guinea pig (BB) and pure white guinea pig (bb) upto second filial generation, write the genotypic ratio of second generation.
Answers
The genotypic ratio of the offspring of the fertilization between pure black guinea pig (BB) and pure white guinea pig (bb) is:
F1 : Bb, Bb, Bb, Bb; genotypic ratio = 1
F2: BB, Bb. Bb. bb; genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1
What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?The genotypic ratio of the offspring of the fertilization between pure black guinea pig (BB) and pure white guinea pig (bb) is determined as follows;
Parents: BB and bb
Cross : BB x bb
F1 : Bb, Bb, Bb, Bb
Parents: Bb and Bb
Cross: Bb x Bb
F2: BB, Bb. Bb. bb.
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charismatic, cute, and cuddly flagship species may be used to promote a human connection to an environmental issue, but what are the disadvantage
Answers
Disadvantages includes that flag ship species often wastes resources and does not benefit broader biodiversity.
Conservation strategies are dependent on the charismatic flagship species, such as tigers, lions, and elephants, they helps in successfully attracting the funding raise from the corporate donors. While generally their utilization has an error and also limitations. They can change the management and conservation priorities, which may cause conflicts. And the donors may face loss when the species is lost .
Advantage of flagship species like pandas and elephants they can help in generating large revenue for the institutions where they are kept. The revenue helps in the protection and sustainability of species.
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in which of the following applications (diagnostic testing) are monoclonal antibodies not used?in which of the following applications (diagnostic testing) are monoclonal antibodies not used?paternity testing
Answers
Monoclonal antibodies are not typically used in DNA paternity testing. They have a wide range of applications in diagnostic testing.
Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-produced antibodies that are designed to recognize and bind to specific antigens. They have a wide range of applications in diagnostic testing, including in immunoassays, flow cytometry, and immunohistochemistry, among others. However, in paternity testing, DNA analysis is typically used to establish biological relationships between individuals. This Monoclonal antibodies involves analyzing specific regions of DNA to determine whether or not two individuals share a biological relationship. While antibodies can be used to identify specific proteins or other molecules in biological samples, they are not typically used in the context of paternity testing.
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g neurobiology regarding the synaptic vesicle recycling pathway, when _____ the correct option it can be directly refilled with neurotransmitter it can be destroyed by ca ._______ membrane it can be destroyed by astrocytes it can fuse with a lysosome in the synaptic end bulb
Answers
Understanding neurobiology, after Ca2+-dependent fusion, the synaptic vesicles' membrane and proteins are recycled via endocytosis, at which point they are once again supplied with neurotransmitters and prepared for the subsequent cycle of depolarization and fusion.
Reuptake, enzymatic cleft destruction, and diffusion are the three mechanisms through which neurotransmitter termination can take place. Neurotransmitters are eliminated by a variety of processes, but they are always either degraded by transmitter-specific enzymes, reabsorbed into nearby glial cells or nerve terminals, or a combination of these processes. Although the brain has a variety of synapses, they may be broadly categorized into electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
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You are on vacation in a region that is located near a warm ocean current. What type of climate would you expect this region to experience?
Responses
rainy
warm
cold
ocean currents don't effect climate
Answers
If you are on vacation in a region near a warm ocean current, you would expect the region to experience a warm and humid climate, option B.
What is the relationship between climate and the ocean?Warm ocean currents can have a significant impact on the climate of nearby regions by bringing warm, moist air to the coast, which can lead to increased rainfall and higher temperatures.
This type of climate is often referred to as a tropical or subtropical climate, and is characterized by warm temperatures year-round, high humidity, and heavy rainfall, particularly during the summer months. The presence of a warm ocean current can also help to moderate the temperature swings that are common in other climates, making for a more stable and comfortable climate throughout the year.
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Explain the role of each of the following:
Promotor:
RNA Polymerase:
Termination Signal:
DNA Template:
Answers
The role of each of the following is explained below. All the steps described are of the process of genetic transcription.
What is transcription?The process of formation of messenger RNA from the template of DNA inside a cell is called genetic transcription. There are certain important substances that play an important role in this process, which are described below:
Promotor: It is the region where the beginning of transcription take place, where the RNA polymerase enzyme binds to the DNA of the gene and begins the process.RNA Polymerase: Enzymes called RNA polymerases convert DNA into RNA. Base pairing is how RNA polymerase creates a new RNA molecule from a DNA template.Termination Signal: It is the signal where the process of transcription terminates or stops.DNA Template: It is the template DNA molecule which is the source of RNA, as the formation of RNA takes place from it.Hence, transcription is a very important process which takes place in the organisms through which mRNA is produced and further it codes for the formation of protein.
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Which coordinates identify a location south of a city that has a latitude of 42.0°N and a longitude of 36.0°W
answer choices: 25.0°N and 36.0°W
45.0°N and 35.0°W
42.0°N and 32.0°W
0.0° and 0.0°
Answers
The coordinates that identify a location south of a city that has a latitude of 42.0°N and a longitude of 36.0°W is 25.0°N and 36.0°W
What is a coordinate?A coordinate is a set of numbers or values that locates a point on a map, chart, or globe. Coordinates are used to specify the position of an object or location in relation to a reference system or a set of reference points.
A latitude of 42.0°N means the city is located 42.0 degrees north of the equator. A longitude of 36.0°W means the city is located 36.0 degrees west of the prime meridian.
To identify a location south of this city, we need to look for a latitude that is less than 42.0°N.
Therefore, The only option with a latitude less than 42.0°N is 25.0°N and 36.0°W. Therefore, the coordinates 25.0°N and 36.0°W identify a location south of a city that has a latitude of 42.0°N and a longitude of 36.0°W.
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nterior of the blood vessel. the exposed fibers and chemicals released from the endothelial cells that line the blood vessel attract platelets, which start to form a plug and release
Answers
Collagen fibers in the blood vessel's wall are made visible to the interior when the blood vessel's wall is damaged. The blood vessel's endothelial cells' exposed fibers and chemicals draw platelets, which begin to form a plug and release additional chemicals.
The majority of the arteries, veins, and capillaries in the brain, skin, lung, heart, and muscle are made of continuous endothelium. Tight connections hold endothelial cells together and keep them attached to a continuous basal membrane. The endothelium is an essential metabolizing and endocrine organ that plays a significant role in the regulation of immunology, inflammation, and angiogenesis, as well as the control of blood fluidity, platelet aggregation, and vascular tone. The inner surface of blood vessels is covered by endothelial cells, whereas the outer surface of internal organs and the body is covered by epithelial cells. Despite deriving from the epithelium, endothelial cells and epithelial cells function, position, and structure differently.
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Full Question ;
Platelets are fragments of larger cells and normally circulate in the blood without adhering to blood vessel walls. When the wall of a blood vessel is damaged, collagen fibers in the wall are exposed to the interior of the blood vessel. The exposed fibers and chemicals released from the endothelial cells that line the blood vessel attract platelets, which start to form a plug and release other chemicals (Figure 1).
Which of the following best explains the feedback mechanism illustrated in Figure 1?
a. This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area.
b. This is an example of positive feedback, because it results from the interactions among collagen, endothelial cells, and platelets.
c. This is an example of negative feedback, because a large clump of platelets can block the blood vessel and prevent blood flow through it.
d. This is an example of negative feedback, because the accumulation of platelets returns the open blood vessel wall to a closed state.a. This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area.
In those rare cases where children are not exposed to language until they ar example, separated from adults and growing up in a forest), they or eenagers (f a. take longer than normal to become fluent when they are exposed to language b. learn very little language when they are exposed to it c. become fluent within a few months when exposed to language d. develop a rich language related to Latin.
Answers
In those rare cases where children are not exposed to language until they are example, separated from adults and growing up in a forest, they or teenagers:
a) take longer than normal to become fluent when they are exposed to language.
These people may struggle to learn a language as easily and quickly as children who are exposed to it from an early age. While they can ultimately become fluent, it may take them longer to achieve the same degree of ability as people who were exposed to language in their childhood.
Language acquisition is a complex process that typically begins during childhood and infancy. Children are exposed to language from their surroundings at this period and steadily enhance their skills by listening, speaking, reading, and writing.
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