The probability distribution for a
random variable x is given in the table.
-10
-5
0
5
10
15
20
Probability
.20
.15
.05
.1
.25
.1
.15
Find the probability that x = -10

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

dfffffdf

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

uhhhhhhhhh help with what ?

Step-by-step explanation:

If he can walk 14 miles in 5 hours, take 14÷5 to find out how long he can walk in 1 hour. (2.8)

Then take 2.8 miles times 3.5 hours is 9.8 miles

Answer:

Round to the nearest hundredth.

Answer:

160.57

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula is:

[tex]angle/360 *\pi *radius^2[/tex]

Because you find the total area of the circle, but the sector only represents NPQ/360 so you have to multiply the area with that.

[tex]46/360 * \pi *20^2[/tex] = [tex]23/180 * \pi *400[/tex]

= [tex]160.57029...[/tex]

Rounded to the nearest hundredth this would be 160.57

Answer:

x = 19/6

Step-by-step explanation:

5/3 = 1 whole and 2/3

8 - 1 whole and 2/3 = 19/3

2x = 19/3

x = 19/3 ÷ 2 = 19/6

I hope im doing it right.

Answer:

2. 8x=56

divide both sides of the equation by 8

8x divided by 8=56 divided by 8

any expression divided by itself equals 1

x=56 divided by 8

calculate the quotient

x=7

3. 918 divided by 3= 306

4. answer is 5/21

5&6 not sure

7. inches

8. not sure

Answer:

Q1. 4.5

Q2. 7

Q3. 306

Q4. 5/21

Q5. B. Cube

Q6. AEC and BED

Step-by-step explanation:

1. I found what 8*18 was, then I just divided that by 32 to find the missing value.

2. You want to reverse it and then solve so 56/8=7.

3. You can use a calculator for this 918/3=306

4. This you'd want to get the common denominators for each so just convert.

4/7*3/3=12/21

1/3*7/7=7*21

now just solve 12/21-7/21=5/21

5. Cube, there are 6 faces that are squares on it.

6. Acute angles are angles that are smaller than 90 degrees.

7. Feet, beds are long so feet are the best. Inches would be too little, miles are way too much, and gallons aren't even the right measuring unit.

8. So prime numbers are numbers that can only be divided by 1 and themselves so 1 is a prime number because if you divide 1 by 2 you get a fraction. So now we just want to find the prime numbers in this set.

1 is prime

2 is prime

3 is prime

4 is not prime; 4/2=2 whole number

5 is prime

this means that 4/5 numbers are prime, and 4/5=0.8 or 80%.

Hopefully, this helped you understand, feel free to lmk if you have any questions, and have a good day.

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It says 15 18 is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A the answer is A ^w^ hope this helps

We can conclude that most American adults want changes in government surveillance programs. But we can't conclude what specific changes in those programs they want (more surveillance? less? it doesn't say.)

(a)

[tex]\displaystyle\int_3^\infty \frac{\mathrm dx}{x^2+9}=\lim_{b\to\infty}\int_{x=3}^{x=b}\frac{\mathrm dx}{x^2+9}[/tex]

Substitute x = 3 tan(t ) and dx = 3 sec²(t ) dt :

[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{b\to\infty}\int_{t=\arctan(1)}^{t=\arctan\left(\frac b3\right)}\frac{3\sec^2(t)}{(3\tan(t))^2+9}\,\mathrm dt=\frac13\lim_{b\to\infty}\int_{t=\arctan(1)}^{t=\arctan\left(\frac b3\right)}\mathrm dt[/tex]

[tex]=\displaystyle \frac13 \lim_{b\to\infty}\left(\arctan\left(\frac b3\right)-\arctan(1)\right)=\boxed{\dfrac\pi{12}}[/tex]

(b) The series

[tex]\displaystyle \sum_{n=3}^\infty \frac1{n^2+9}[/tex]

converges by comparison to the convergent p-series,

[tex]\displaystyle\sum_{n=3}^\infty\frac1{n^2}[/tex]

(c) The series

[tex]\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n (n^2+9)}{e^n}[/tex]

converges absolutely, since

[tex]\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left|\frac{(-1)^n (n^2+9)}{e^n}\right|=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n^2+9}{e^n} < \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n^2}{e^n} < \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{e^n}=\frac1{e-1}[/tex]

That is, ∑ (-1)ⁿ (n ² + 9)/eⁿ converges absolutely because ∑ |(-1)ⁿ (n ² + 9)/eⁿ| = ∑ (n ² + 9)/eⁿ in turn converges by comparison to a geometric series.

Answer:

a=4

b=5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x² + 2x + 2 = 0

x = -1 ± i

x² + 2x + 2 = (x+1+i)(x+1-i)

Step-by-step explanation:

C = root of 7^2 + 4^2

= 8.06

Ans = A

Answer:

1.56 is greater than 1.29. (Check after the decimal point, 5 is greater than 2, so 1.56 is greater than 1.29)

Answer:

I believe that 1.56 is grater than 1.29.

hope this helps.

Answer:

158%

Step-by-step

$15.50 - $6 = $9.50 < Profit

Now To find The Percentage of the markup on the lip gloss?

You Divide $9.50  by $6 And You Will Get This 1.58333333333

For A Percent You Move The Decimal Point Back Two Spots And You Get

158%

I Hope You Understand and i hope i helped you

Answer:

NO POSSIBLE TRIANGLES

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

no possible triangles

Step-by-step explanation:

The main one is the Pythagorean identity,

sin²(x) + cos²(x) = 1

By dividing both sides by cos²(x), you get the tan-sec variant:

sin²(x)/cos²(x) + cos²(x)/cos²(x) = 1/cos²(x)

tan²(x) + 1 = sec²(x)

since tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) and sec(x) = 1/cos(x).

So the given expression reduces to

(sin²(x) + tan²(x) + cos²(x)) / sec²(x)

= (1 + tan²(x)) / sec²(x)

= sec²(x) / sec²(x)

= 1

Answer:

9.32millimetres

10. 7inches

Step-by-step explanation:

9. r=½diameter

r=½×64

r=32

10. volume=length×width×height

336=6×8×h

336=48h

h=336/48

h=7

Answer:

Divide both with 3.

12/3 = 4x

-3 divided by 3 = -1.

You end up with 4x-1 which is the final simplification.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

This is your answer ☺️☺️☺️. If I'm right so,

Please mark me as brainliest. thanks!!!

Answer:

4 weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the answer, we have to look at the weeks that follow to see if they have the same amount of money.

Week 1

Math: $30

Science: $55

Week 2

Math: $40

Science: $60

Week 3

Math: $50

Science: $65

Week 4

Math: $60

Science: $70

Hope this helped!

Stay safe <3

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

every single thing to the power of 0 is 1

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) 0.0618 = 6.18% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives.

b) 0.076 = 7.6% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that [tex]\mu = E(X)[/tex], [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}[/tex].

Sample of 20 items is selected from the machine.

This means that [tex]n = 20[/tex]

5% defectives

This means that [tex]p = 0.05[/tex]

(a) the normal approximation to the binomial

The mean is:

[tex]\mu = E(X) = np = 20*0.05 = 1[/tex]

The standard deviation is:

[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{20*0.05*0.95} = 0.9747[/tex]

The probability is, using continuity correction, [tex]P(X \geq 3 - 2.5) = P(X \geq 2.5)[/tex] , which is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 2.5. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{2.5 - 1}{0.9747}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.54[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.54[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.9382

1 - 0.9382 = 0.0618

0.0618 = 6.18% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives.

(b) the exact binomial tables

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{20,0}.(0.05)^{0}.(0.95)^{20} = 0.358[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{20,1}.(0.05)^{1}.(0.95)^{19} = 0.377[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{20,2}.(0.05)^{2}.(0.95)^{18} = 0.189[/tex]

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.358 + 0.377 + 0.189 = 0.924[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3) = 1 - 0.924 = 0.076[/tex]

0.076 = 7.6% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives

Answer:

Interest = [tex] \boxed{\$ 789.75} [/tex]

Explanation:

Interest [I] = principle × rate × time [prt]

______________________________

x% = x/100

a b/c = a + (b/c) = (ac + b) / c

______________________

I = prt

I = ($1,950)(4 ½%)(9)

I = ($1,950)(0.045)(9)

I = ($87.75)(9)

I = ($789.75)

I = $789.75

Answer:

14) ∠CBE = 118°  supplementary to 62°

15) ∠ABF = 28°  complementary to 62°

16 ∠CBA = 152° because it is vertical to ∠DBF

Step-by-step explanation:

14) ∠CBE = 180° - 62° = 118°

15) ∠ABF = 90° - 62° = 28°

16) ∠DBF = 90°+ 62° = 152°

    ∠CBA = ∠DBF