Among the given options, the most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in response to the urinalysis findings of microscopic hematuria is option A: "Has your child recently had strep throat?"
Microscopic hematuria refers to the presence of red blood cells in the urine, which can be detected under a microscope. It is essential to investigate the underlying cause of microscopic hematuria, as it can be an indication of various conditions or factors.
In this case, asking about recent strep throat is appropriate because certain kidney conditions, such as post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), can cause hematuria. PSGN is a condition that can develop after a streptococcal infection, particularly strep throat. It is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli (filters) in the kidneys, leading to blood in the urine.
The other options (B, C, and D) are not directly associated with causing microscopic hematuria. Asking about recent trauma (bike or car crash - option B) or menstruation (option C) may be relevant in specific situations, but they are not the most appropriate initial questions based on the information provided. Similarly, bubble baths (option D) are unlikely to be directly linked to microscopic hematuria.
The nurse's priority should be to gather information that could potentially explain the presence of microscopic hematuria and guide further evaluation or management.
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Under the Tobacco Control Act,
(A) companies must include age verification in the process of selling tobacco
products on the Internet.
(B) cigarette packaging may be labeled with the terms light or low.
(C) it is illegal to sell tobacco products that contain flavorings.
(D) graphic warning labels must be placed on packages of cigarettes and smoke-
less tobacco products.
Answer:
A. Companies must include age verification in the process of selling tobacco.
Explanation:
Your answer should be A. because the Tobacco Control Act restricts tobacco being sold to youths.
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If a person is at risk of getting rabies, what is the typical treatment given to prevent disease development and thus to save the person's life?
Administration of anti-rabies virus antibodies and the rabies vaccine.
The rabies virus is what causes rabies. The virus is present in the saliva of infected animals. The virus enters the body by a cut on the skin or through the eyes, nose, or mouth before moving through the nerves to the brain. There, it grows and inflicts harm and irritation.Pre-exposure rabies vaccine makes rabies post-exposure treatment easier, and it may offer protection in situations where rabies exposure is undiagnosed or when post-exposure treatment is put off. It does not take away the requirement for appropriate care after a known rabies virus exposure.A rapid-acting vaccination against the virus called rabies immune globulin. If you haven't received the rabies vaccine, you'll receive this. If at all possible, this injection is administered as soon as possible and close to the spot where the animal bit you.learn more about rabies vaccine here: https://brainly.com/question/233235
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The nurse is helping the parents of a 3-year-old plan a healthy eating pattern for the child. What would the nurse recommend as an age-appropriate serving size for the child?
A serving size suitable for kids between the ages of 2 and 3 is roughly equal to one-half of an adult serving. This generalisation is based on MyPlate serving sizes, not the portions offered at many eateries. The suggestions are meant as a rough guideline depending on age and amount of activity. So a half-slice of bread would constitute a serving for a child between the ages of two and three.
The majority of 2- to 3-year-old children require 1,000–1,400 calories per day.
In a balanced diet, distribute those calories as follows:
Eat three to five ounces of grains every day, preferably half of which should be whole grains. 1 to 1 and half cups of cooked or raw veggies per day from the vegetable group. Young children, like adults, require diversity.Fruit Group: One to eleven and a half cups of fresh, frozen, canned, or dried fruits daily. 4 to 6 ounces of 100 per cent fruit juice maximum each day. Milk Group: 2 to 212 cups daily. For kids under two, whole milk is suggested. 2 to 4 ounces of the protein group overall each day. Lean meats, poultry, shellfish, eggs, soy products, cooked beans (black, pinto, kidney), unsalted nuts, and nut butter are all good sources of protein.To know more about balanced diet click here
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With more and more people using technology, what physical health diagnosis is on the rise?
Repetitive strain injury is the diagnosis on the rise as a result of more and more people using technology.
What is Repetitive strain injury?This type of injury affects the musculoskeletal or nervous system and is caused by a repetitive use or being in a fixed position for a long period of time.
Symptoms include stiffness and tenderness of the affected area and can be treated using anti-inflammatory drugs.
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Do consumers have to be an aarp member to enroll in an aarp-branded plan with unitedhealthcare?.
Answer:
No.
Explanation:
Consumers do not have to be an AARP member to enroll in an AARP-branded plan with UnitedHealthcare.
Hope this helps!
Consumers do not need to be an AARP members to enroll in UnitedHealthcare insurance.
What are AARP medicare plans?The AARP medicare plans which are from UnitedHealthcare, provide both medical and non-medical benefits to help live a happier and healthier life.
AARP stands for American Association of Retired Persons medicare advantage plans are designed in such a way that the person enrolled with the program can enjoy the maximum benefits out of their spending on healthcare.
The offers included in these plans differ by the service area. Still, most of these plans include medical as well as non-medical benefits so that retired senior members of society can get maximum savings and live comfortably.
The medical benefits included are
Visits to the primary care provider. Laboratory tests.Prescription drugs.Telehealth services.Non-medical benefits included are
Dental benefits Fitness programs Hearing benefitsVision benefits.Therefore, a person doesn't have to be an AARP member to enroll in UnitedHealthcare insurance.
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Lola had a stroke several days ago. at this point, which treatment would be most likely to her?
The treatment would be most likely her by giving stimulant drugs combined with physical therapy.
Physical therapy will take a look at a patient and then create a restoration plan. They are frequently aware of remedies that lessen the need for surgical treatment and prescriptive tablets. A physical therapist uses an aggregate of exercise, stretches, arms-on strategies, and systems to repair features or relieve aches.
Physical therapy (PT) cares that objectives to ease aches and assist you to feature, pass, and live better. especially, physical therapy seems to obtain these objectives for their patients: Relieve ache, enhance motion or potential.
Physical therapists can help human beings advantage of electricity and get shifting once more. they could assist lessen or save you ache and disability. Bodily therapists offer care in hospitals, personal practices, nursing houses, faculties, rehabilitation centers, or in your home.
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After suffering a stroke, mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the?
Answer:
L side of the brain
Explanation:
L brain controls right body.
Which of the following is NOT a way that cancer cells
differ from normal cells?
A. Cancer cells contain genetic mutations.
B. Cancer cells attack and kill other cells.
C. Cancer cells grow and divide abnormally.
D. Cancer cells do not differentiate normally.
Answer:
Explanation:
a is the correct answer if you need more info on that let me
Efferent neurons are found in the
-
A. hypothalamus
B. brain stem
C. motor cortex
There are two unidirectional efferent limbic pathways from the hypothalamus. So the answer would be the hypothalamus!
Efferent neurons are neurons that carry signals away from the central nervous system (CNS) to the muscles and glands. The motor cortex is the part of the brain that controls voluntary movement. Hence the correct option is C.
Efferent neurons from the motor cortex synapse with motor neurons in the spinal cord, which then innervate the muscles.
The hypothalamus and brain stem are both parts of the CNS, but they do not contain efferent neurons. The hypothalamus is involved in a variety of functions, including the regulation of the autonomic nervous system.
The brain stem is involved in a variety of functions, including the control of breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.
Therefore, option C) motor cortex is correct.
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What is one effective way to keep bones strong?
A.Stretch the muscles sufficiently after exercise
B.perform muscle strength exercises
C. Avoid getting too much vitamin d through sunlight
Answer:
B. perform muscle strength exercises
Explanation:
i hope i am correct
It is recommended by the cdc that teens get ______ minutes of physical activity a day.
Answer:30-60 minutes
Explanation:
All of these are ways to prevent the spread of germs from food service workers exempt
The way not to prevent spread of germs from food service workers is to use a cup but not without a drinking straw to drink.
Who are food service workers ?Food service workers are those people that work in places where food is cooked an served such as in restaurants, eateries and public cafeteria. In such places, the maximum level of sanitation is expected to be maintained because the food is to be served to the public.
Also, it is necessary to avoid the spread of diseases as the food is being served by the food service workers. As such, it becomes quite imperative to maintain the highest level of precaution to avoid the spread of diseases.
Hence, the way not to prevent spread of germs from food service workers is to use a cup but not without a drinking straw to drink.
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Missing parts;
All of these are ways to prevent the spread of germs from food service workers except: 1. Refrain from sneezing/coughing2. Avoid rubbing your eyes3. Never smoke in the prep area4. Use a cup but no without a drinking straw to drink
The nearest critical access hospital does not have a trauma level due to the lack of a 24-hour staff with trauma training. What types of trauma support do patient needs indicate?
The trauma support is needed by the patient as per case to case. But the basic care needed by patient and trauma care is started before the patient even gets to the hospital. Rescue professionals often respond to a call and offer pre-hospital treatment. Basic life support (BLS), advanced cardiac life support (ACLS), and paediatric advanced life support are the three main pillars of pre-hospital care (PALS).
Similar to this, pre-hospital trauma life support is used in practice to apply fundamental principles of trauma care (PHTLS). To better anticipate the symptoms that patients will present with upon arrival, the hospital personnel has to be aware of the strengths and weaknesses of the local rescue teams. The hospital staff should start triaging the patient as soon as a call from the field comes in based on their age, mechanism of injury, coagulation status, and other characteristics that can affect the care of the case.
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How do firefighter breathing air replenishment systems make fire fighting operations in high-rise buildings more efficient?
Self contained breathing apparatus Firefighters (SCBA) breathing air replenishment system make fire-fighter operations in high rise buildings more efficiency.
Refilling their tanks within the building enable firefighters to save energy by not having to exist the building fill tanks, and re enter again. They should check the hydro-static test date of the cylinder and enters only when IDLH atmosphere if you have certified to wear SCBA and properly fir tested.
Their air tanks don't explode when exposed to heat because they are filled with compressed air not the oxygen.Tank have a burst disk to prevent them to rupture from the increases pressure due to heat.
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A mother contacts the oncology nurse concerned about the redness and tenderness of her child’s skin following radiation treatments. What is the nurse’s best response?
The nurse's best response should be to use mild soap and nonscented moisturizer.
Often, Oncology nurses are those who provide consistent statistics and steer across the treatment plan. they have got the education to evaluate a person's wishes in each hospital and outpatient practice.
To become an Oncology Nurse, an associate degree in Nursing or a Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) is needed. it's also required to come to be certified. this can be accomplished by using passing the NCLEX examination.
As the risk for many cancers will increase with age, the demand for oncology nurses will increase in areas such as screening and prevention, fitness repute monitoring, symptom control, direct nursing care, and patient/family/caregiver education.
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Anisocytotic, hypochromic, microcytic are words that might characterize erythrocytes in this disease:_______.
a) Pernicious anemia
b) Sickle cell disease
c) HDN
d) Iron deficiency anemia
e) Polycythemia vera
Anisocytotic, hypochromic, and microcytic are words that might characterize erythrocytes in this disease: D. Iron deficiency anemia.
Microcytic, hypochromic anemia, as the name suggests, is the type of anemia in which the circulating RBCs are smaller than the usual size of RBCs (microcytic) and have decreased red color (hypochromic).
Hypochromia way when the red blood cells have much less color than normal when examined under a microscope. This generally occurs when there is not enough pigment that carries oxygen (hemoglobin) in the red blood cells.
Congenital spherocytic anemia: Hyperchromic microcytic anemias are rare. They may be caused by a genetic condition known as congenital spherocytic anemia. This is also called hereditary spherocytosis.
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The leading cause of death in the world today is _________. view available hint(s)for part a the leading cause of death in the world today is _________. injuries disease natural disasters starvation
The leading cause of death in the world today is _________. injuries disease natural disasters starvation
Diseases.
Statistically speaking, the highest cause of death is ischaemic heart disease, and it is responsible for 16% of the world's total deaths which makes it the worst mortality rate of all diseases.
What is Disease?This refers to the invasion of a foreign body into the body system of a mammal or human and leads to malfunction of normal activities of the body,
Hence, we can see that the leading cause of death in the world today is diseases.
To be more specific, it is the ischaemic heart disease, and it is responsible for 16% of the world's total deaths which makes it the worst mortality rate of all diseases.
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Vasectomy involves cutting and closing the?
A poor healthy 19 year old mother is unsure how to feed her 4 year old child. which program may offer her
EFNEP (budget planning) program may offer her the help.
What is EFNEP program?The Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program (EFNEP), which was the country's first nutrition education program for low-income people, is still in the forefront of efforts to combat low-income families' and children's nutritional insecurity.
Participants claimed to have improved motivation to better themselves, healthier eating and exercise habits, and greater life satisfaction. In addition to having a willingness to learn and try new things, all groups mentioned having a more beneficial influence on their families.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
A poor healthy 19-year-old mother is unsure how to feed her 4-year-old child. which program may offer her the most help:
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How do the lipoproteins ldl and hdl influence heart disease risk?
LDL is the primary contributor to arterial-clogging plaque. HDL is effective at removing excess cholesterol from the blood.
Heart diseases are the leading cause of death in a number of countries. Atherosclerosis causes the constriction of the blood vessels that supply the heart with blood, leading to heart disease. Gradually, fatty deposits (or plaque) accumulate on the interior of artery walls, reducing the space through which blood may travel to the heart.
Cholesterol is an essential component of all cell membranes and is necessary for numerous metabolic processes. It is produced in the liver by the body. Cholesterol-containing blood lipids (fats) include high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL). LDL ('bad') cholesterol can cause the formation of plaque in the arteries, whereas HDL ('good') cholesterol helps eliminate cholesterol from the body and makes it more difficult for plaque to form.
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Ashley’s brother has a really bad headache, and she has a few pills left that she is pretty sure could help his headache, fast. What should she do?
Ashley should administer the pill she has and try out others natural ways of relieving bad headaches.
What are headaches?Headache is a type of pain felt at the head when there is mix of signals between your brain, blood vessels, and nearby nerves.
The causes of headache includes the following:
poor diet,
stress,
serious underlying disorders, such as brain tumours
muscle tension, and
lack of exercise.
The natural ways that cane be used to relief headache include the following:
Try a Cold Pack.Use a Heating Pad or Hot Compress.Ease Pressure on Your Scalp or Head.Dim the Lights.Try Not to Chew.Hydrate.Therefore, since the pills are limited, Ashley would need to try natural remedies for relief of headache.
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Which is the best place to start a search for a physician? - a hospital waiting room - a community bulletin board - a county health department - a university premedical program
Answer:
Explanation:
it is c because I took the test
A general practitioner is a medical professional who focuses on treating patients with non-surgical medical treatment. The correct answer s A) a hospital waiting room.
Who is a physician?A doctor with a medical degree is referred to as a "physician" in general. Physicians investigate, diagnose, and treat illnesses and injuries in an effort to preserve, promote, and restore health.
A rewarding, exciting, and intellectually interesting profession can be attained by becoming a doctor. With 30 medical specialties, there is a tonne of options for specialty training, and each one offers a unique combination of patient interactions, inpatient and outpatient settings, procedures, time spent in the lab (hematology, immunology, and combined infection training), and even caring for pediatric patients in some specialties (e.g., dermatology and clinical genetics).
The majority of specializations provide for patient continuity and a mix of acute and chronic presentations, which facilitates strong working relationships. Some specialties, including those in immunology, hematology, clinical oncology, and infection, are also connected to another medical royal college.
Therefore, A) is the right answer.
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A type of radiation treatment for brain tumors performed without knife or incision is known as ______
A type of radiation treatment for brain tumors performed without a knife or incision is known as stereotactic radiosurgery.
To treat tumors and other issues in the brain, neck, lungs, liver, spine, and other areas of the body, stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) employs a large number of extremely accurately focused radiation beams.
Given that there is no incision, it is not surgery in the conventional sense.
The trigeminal nerve root is the small, exact target of stereotactic radiosurgery, which administers a single, highly concentrated dose of ionizing radiation.
Stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) is a type of radiation therapy that targets a tiny portion of the body with high-power energy.
Hence, a type of radiation treatment for brain tumors performed without a knife or incision is known as stereotactic surgery.
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When are the fitness logs due?
a. every time you complete a workout.
o b. the first monday of every month.
o c. every friday.
d. when your teacher assigns them to be due.
A gymnast takes a hard fall on her lower back. You can’t feel her spine without moving her. You could check for a spinal cord injury by?
If q gymnast takes a hard fall on her lower back. You can’t feel her spine without moving her. You could check for a spinal cord injury by e. all of the above.
A spinal cord injury is a severe one and can affect motor movements as the person might not be able to feel parts or all parts of his body as the coordination between the brain and other parts of the body is impaired.
What is a Spinal Cord Injury?This refers to the damage that is done to any part of the spinal cord of a person or nerves.
Hence, we can see that a spinal cord injury is a severe one and can affect motor movements as the person might not be able to feel parts or all parts of his body as the coordination between the brain and other parts of the body is impaired.
This can lead to a permanent loss of strength and sensation of the body and immediate treatment and rehabilitation is required.
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The complete question is:
A gymnast takes a hard fall on her lower back. You can't feel her spine without moving her. You could check for a spinal cord injury by:
a. asking her to try to move her fingers and toes
b. touching her finger, and asking her the finger you are touching
c. asking her to squeeze your fingers with each hand
d. touching her toe, and asking her which toe you're touching
e. all of the above
One of the most common diseases of young children in developed nations is _____.
One of the most common diseases of young children in developed nations is Tooth decay.
What do you mean by Diseases?Diseases may be defined as any detrimental digression from the normal structural or functional state of an organism that is typically linked with certain signs and symptoms and differing in nature from physical injury.
The circumstance of the disease may directly affect the natural health and fitness of an individual. In most developed nations, tooth decay is the most common disease in young children. This is because they are extremely adapted to fast food, chocolates, spicy foods, etc.
Tooth decay is also caused by frequent snacking and smoking, sipping sugary drinks, not cleaning your teeth properly, etc. They can occur through the action of bacteria.
Therefore, one of the most common diseases of young children in developed nations is Tooth decay.
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What are the clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?
a. Firm, nontender testicular mass
b. Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass
c. Painful fluid-filled testicular mass
d. Soft, nontender testicular
Firm, nontender testicular mass are the clinical manifestations of testicular cancer.
What is testicular cancer?one or both testicles develop testicular cancer. Men in their 20s or 30s are most likely to get testicular cancer. The majority of testicular malignancies are testicular germ cell tumors, which arise in germ cells (the cells that produce sperm).About 90% of all instances of testicular cancer are caused by a mass or tumor that is produced when the germ cells in your testicles gather.Sperm eventually form from germ cell development. Two distinct types of testicular cancer arise from germ cells.Seminoma: A malignancy that primarily affects persons in their 40s or 50s and is slow-growing.When a few of the body's cells develop out of control and spread to other internal organs, it is called cancer.Cancer can appear almost anywhere in the trillions of cells that make up the human body.Learn more about testicular cancer here:
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Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?
Answer:
4
Explanation:
4 of the 10 are associated directly with nutrition.
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The group of nursing students are reviewing information about cesarean births the students demonstrate?
The students demonstrate understanding and identification of appropriate indication of:
Active genital herpes infectionPlacenta previaPrevious cesarean birthFetal distressThe leading indications for cesarean birth are previous cesarean birth, breech presentation, dystocia, and fetal distress.
Examples of specific indications include active genital herpes, fetal macrosomia, fetopelvic disproportion, prolapsed umbilical cord, placental abnormality (placenta previa or abruptio placentae), previous classic uterine incision or scar, gestational hypertension, diabetes, positive HIV status, and dystocia.
Fetal indications include malpresentation (nonvertex presentation), congenital anomalies (fetal neural tube defects, hydrocephalus, abdominal wall defects), and fetal distress.
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In response to a threat, we perspire, breathe more quickly, get goose bumps, and feel nauseated. these responses are controlled by the:______.
a. somatic nervous system.
b. peripheral nervous system.
c. sympathetic nervous system.
d. parasympathetic nervous system.
The sympathetic nervous system controls the response to a threat. We perspire, breathe more quickly and get goosebumps and feel nauseated. The correct answer is c. sympathetic nervous system.
The autonomic nervous system responds to information about the body and the environment by either stimulating or inhibiting bodily functions, typically through the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous systems.There are two primary divisions of the autonomic nerve system-
SympatheticParasympatheticThe sympathetic nervous system controls the "fight-or-flight" reaction, which is activated by danger or stress and can lead to a number of physiological changes. Most blood vessels, including many in the epidermis, digestive tract, and kidneys, constrict when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated. This happens due to norepinephrine, released by post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons, activating alpha-1 adrenergic receptors. Sympathetic nervous system may impact these organs while under threat or stress:eyes, heart, lungs, digestive tract, liver, and genitalia.
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