When assessing for side effects of cholestyramine (Questran), the primary focus of the nurse will be on gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms and potential drug interactions.
Cholestyramine is a medication primarily used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. It works by binding to bile acids in the intestines, which helps in their elimination from the body. While cholestyramine is generally well-tolerated, it can cause certain side effects that are important for the nurse to monitor. The primary focus areas are as follows:
Gastrointestinal side effects: Cholestyramine can commonly cause GI symptoms, including constipation, bloating, flatulence, abdominal discomfort, and nausea. The nurse should assess the patient for these symptoms and inquire about any changes in bowel habits or the presence of abdominal pain. Monitoring the patient's bowel movements and ensuring adequate hydration and fiber intake can help alleviate constipation.
Nutrient absorption and drug interactions: Cholestyramine can interfere with the absorption of certain medications and nutrients. It may bind to and reduce the absorption of other medications, vitamins (such as fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K), and minerals (such as calcium and iron). The nurse should review the patient's medication list and be aware of potential interactions. It is important to advise the patient to take other medications at least one hour before or four to six hours after taking cholestyramine to minimize the interference. Additionally, the nurse may assess the patient's diet and discuss the importance of maintaining an adequate intake of vitamins and minerals.
Other potential side effects: While less common, cholestyramine may also cause skin rashes, itching, and rarely, severe allergic reactions. The nurse should be vigilant for any signs of skin changes or allergic symptoms and promptly report them to the healthcare provider.
It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about the potential side effects of cholestyramine, encourage open communication regarding any symptoms experienced, and provide guidance on managing side effects through lifestyle modifications and proper medication administration. Close monitoring and follow-up with the healthcare team can help ensure the safe and effective use of cholestyramine.
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Through the use of dental images, the dental radiographer can detect ________ that cannot be detected clinically.
Through the use of dental images, the dental radiographer can detect diseases, abscesses or cysts that cannot be detected clinically.
Dental radiographer generates the image of a person's teeth which help them to see the proper condition of the teeth properly.
By the use of dental imaging, people are able to find out about diseases, abscesses or cysts, decay in tooth are hidden. With the help of dental imaging, dental radiographer can find out about developmental abnormalities also.
It also helps in the detection of bone infections, gum infections and diseases. One can identify those defects that are not visible in a visual dental examination.
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If 3 grams of a drug are contained in 50 mL of solution, write the ratio.
Answer:
3:50
Explanation:
there are 3 g of a drug in 50 ml of solution, so it is 3/50. In a ratio it looks like this: 3:50
what are tubes that carry blood back to the heart ?
a. arteries
b.veins
c.pipes
d.tubes
Answer:
arteries and veins
Explanation:
those two are the answers
Answer:
I think it's veins.
Explanation:
Arteries carry the blood away from the heart and the veins carry the blood back to the heart.
Private health insurance is also called
A. individual insurance or non-group insurance.
B. VA Administration Insurance.
C. Schip Third-Party Payor Insurance.
D. Medicode insurance.
Answer:
Private health insurance is, instead, offered by a private entity instead (most often a for-profit company). You may also hear private health insurance plans called “off-exchange” plans–this means it's a major medical plan
HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
Is lean good (educational purposes only)
Most traditional public health activities at the federal level, other than environmental health, fall under the jurisdiction of what agency
Department of Health and Human Services of the United States.
In providing good health to the population of the country, the federal government plays a vital role. It conducts surveys on public health and the needs of the public based on which it conducts the policies on the health system, passes laws, and also provides support to the medical staff and medical services in hospitals and other organizations. The Department of Health and Human Services is the main federal government that provides health services to the United States.
It includes other organizations like- The Center for Disease Control, Food and Drug Administration, etc.
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why do
do halo-halo stores sprout during summer
Order: Pfizerpen (penicillin potassium) 200,000 units IM q6h
a) Which concentration is best to administer the dose?
Answer:
Explanation:
I'm only like 60% sure so you might want to double check this.
Think:
Need 400 mg
Have 100 mg per mL ( Need four times that amount )
Calculate:
Dosage on hand Dosage desired
=
Amount on hand X Amount desired
Cross multiply 100 mg 400 mg
1 mL X =mL
100 X = 400
100 X = 400
Simplify ----------------------
100 100
X 4 mL
Withdraw 4 mL of reconstituted Zithromax using 5 mL syringe
Further dilute and give IV
Since single-dose vial, discard any remaining drug
Hopefully this helps!
1-Which of the following is a feature of Irreversible Cell Injury:
a) Glycogen stores are depleted
b) Cytoplasmic sodium increases
c) Nuclei undergo karyorrhexis
d) Intracellular pH diminishes
e) Blebs form on cell membranes
Answer:
Cytoplasmic sodium increase.
Explanation:
Pls mark as brainliest
Answer:
cevap bursa cytoplasmic sodium increases
In a means-end chain for milk, the calcium content of milk leads to healthier bones, which leads to a display of wisdom and a comfortable life free of osteoporosis. The display of wisdom and a comfortable life component of the means-end chain is the: Group of answer choices
Answer: Leverage point
Explanation:
The display of wisdom and a comfortable life component of the means-end chain is referred to as the leverage point.
The leverage point simply means a message that is passed by the company to the customers and prospective customers or where the company shows the emotional benefits and the advantages that one gets when the product is bought from them than from other competitors.
Alopecia areata has a genetic and
basis.
Answer:
Sorry you got the wrong question
Answer:
autoimmune
Explanation:
took assignment on edge
One criterion for the diagnosis of alcoholism is that consumption of alcohol prevents the person from being productive at work. This criterion is based on
Alcohol use prevents the person from being productive at work, which is one need for the diagnosis of alcoholism. The maladaptive behavior approach forms the basis of this criteria.
Maladaptive habits/behavior are ones that make it difficult for a person to cope with new or difficult circumstances. They could start after a major life change, illness, or terrible event. It can also be a behavior pattern that one can develop early. Maladaptive habits can be recognized, and they can be changed for more beneficial ones. If not, they may result in emotional, social, and health issues. There are remedies if things are getting out of hand. One can learn better ways to respond to life's obstacles with the assistance of a trained therapist. Maladaptive behaviors include withdrawal, passive aggressiveness, and avoidance.
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How can olive oil help in preventing and managing diabetes when included in the daily diet? suppose a mechanism.
Answer:
The rise in blood sugar levels was much smaller after the meal with extra virgin olive oil than after the meal with corn oil. The findings were consistent with previous studies, which have linked extra virgin olive oil to higher levels of insulin, making it beneficial to people with type 2 diabetes.
Explanation:
Answer:
reduces glucose levels LDL (low density lipoprotien) and triglycerdes
When should the nurse advise a client being prescribed fluoxetine hydrochloride for depression to take the medication
The nurse should advise the client to take the prescribed fluoxetine hydrochloride for depression at bedtime.
Fluoxetine hydrochloride is an antidepressant of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class that is marketed under the brand names Prozac and Sarafem, among others. Bulimia nervosa, panic disorder, major depressive disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and premenstrual dysphoric disorder are among the conditions it is used to treat.
fluoxetine hydrochloride is used to treat depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), bulimia nervosa, premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD), and panic disorder
Fluoxetine hydrochloride works by increasing the amount of serotonin (a natural substance) in your brain. Serotonin aids in preserving mental stability. Serotonin levels are raised to help with the symptoms of panic attacks, bulimia nervosa, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and sadness.
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what is the WHO formula for ORT
Answer:
ORS consists of 4 constituents: 1. sodium chloride, 3.5 grams; 2. trisodium citrate, dihydrate, 2.9 grams; 3. potassium chloride, 1.5 grams; 4.
Explanation:
I think .... im not sure though
which of the following is an anesthetic that would be commonly stockpiled and used during a disaster
Explanation:
A cellular phone network uses towers to
transmit calls. If the equation of the circular area
transmits by the tower is represented by (x-5)2 +
ly-1)2 = 22. Can you identify if you are inside or
outside of the circular area, if your coordinate
location is (6,0)? How about if your location is
(8,2)?
Side effects associated with keratolytics include _______
Answer:
Explanation:
I think so it might be I think so it might be
Which consideration is a priority when caring for a mother with strong contractions 1 minute apart?
The heart rate of the fetus in relation to the contractions is the priority consideration while caring for a mother who is having strong contractions one minute apart.
There are a number of point which have to be taken care of when a mother is having strong contractions which are 1 minute apart but the priority is always to check the status of the fetus. This is important because the blood flow of the placenta gets interrupted temporarily with every contraction and therefore if the contractions are too strong and too long lasting, the fetus might not able to tolerate them.
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Imagine that you are working with a team of bioarchaeologists that has just excavated a medieval cemetery site in Italy. The cemetery has over 200 graves, with all sexes and ages represented in the skeletal sample. You are interested in knowing whether there were gender differences in health among members of the medieval community. How would you answer this question using the skeletal remains
Answer:
By analyzing the pelvis bone (sex determination) and the length of the diaphyseal bone and nonsynovial joints (age determination of non-adult skeletons and adult skeletons, respectively)
Explanation:
Bioarchaeologists are professionals that study human skeletons from archaeological sites. Bioarchaeologists can estimate the age and sex of human skeletons and thus determine the health and dynamics of past human populations. In regard to sex determination, the pelvis is a bone that can be used to estimate the sex of an individual with an accuracy higher than 95%. In regard to the age, characteristics associated with bone growth such as, for example, the length of the diaphyseal bone, can be good indicators to estimate the age of non-adult skeletons, while nonsynovial joints (i.e. joints without a synovial membrane) which are commonly called synarthroses or solid joints, can be used to estimate the age of adult skeletons.
A pharmacy technician would tell a patient about a contraindication if the patient is taking
nitroglycerin for angina.
warfarin along with aspirin.
a laxative to manage constipation.
an analgesic and anesthetic for acute pain.
Answer:
pharmacy
analgesic and aneSTHETIC
Medicare Part D covers
A. occupational therapy visits.
B. hospital inpatient stays.
C. physician surgeries.
D. prescription drugs.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Medicare Part D, the prescription drug benefit, is the part of Medicare that covers most outpatient prescription drugs.
Shirya is at the dentist getting a cavity filled. The doctor injects her with a local anesthetic. Which drug did Shirya most likely receive?
lidocaine or procaine
methohexital or lorazepam
lorazepam or procaine
fentanyl or methohexital
What is one way nursing assistants can assist residents with normal changes of aging related to the urinary system
Nursing assistants can assist residents with normal changes of aging related to the urinary system by helping the residents go to the bathroom frequently.
Nursing assistants complete an education program that is state approved and need to pass their state's competency exam to become licensed.
Hospitals and residential care are the workplaces for nursing assistants. they work in nursing at these places. They are a part of a big care team.
Nursing assistants, help patients in their daily activities like eating, bathing, dressing, etc. They attend to the needs of patients and help them. They also observe and record the conditions of patients.
During aging, there are changes related to the urinary system. People face bladder control issues and cannot hold urine for a much longer time, so nursing assistants can assist residents who face such issues by helping them go to the bathroom frequently.
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The tendency of a person to catastrophize the extent of loss lowers his blood pressure.
Answer: What is the question
Explanation:
Which best describes how lenalidomine and thalidomide function in the body?
Both drugs treat multiple myeloma by inhibiting inflammation, inhibiting formation of red blood cells, and modulating the immune system to kill cancer cells.
Both drugs treat leukemia by depriving the cancer cells of asparagine and preventing protein formation resulting in cellular death.
Both drugs treat breast cancer by blocking the aromatase enzyme necessary for estradiol production.
Both drugs treat lymphoma by aiding the immune system in identifying and binding to antigen proteins on the surface of cancer cells and triggering the cell to die.
Answer:
Multiple myeloma is a B-cell malignancy characterized by an excess of monotypic plasma cells in the bone marrow. The molecular mechanisms that are involved in disease progression depend on the interaction between the multiple myeloma cells and the bone microenvironment. Because these mechanisms have been well characterized, it is possible to develop regimens that are more specific to pathways involved in the pathogenesis of multiple myeloma than is typical for conventional chemotherapy in disease management. Thalidomide and immunomodulatory drugs (IMiDs) have now been shown to block several pathways important for disease progression in multiple myeloma. First established as agents with antiangiogenic properties, thalidomide and IMiDs inhibit the production of interleukin (IL)-6, which is a growth factor for the proliferation of myeloma cells. In addition, they activate apoptotic pathways through caspase 8-mediated cell death. At the mitochondrial level, they are responsible for c-jun terminal kinase (JNK)-dependent release of cytochrome-c and Smac into the cytosol of cells, where they regulate the activity of molecules that affect apoptosis. By activating T cells to produce IL-2, thalidomide and IMiDs alter natural killer (NK) cell numbers and function, thus augmenting the activity of NK-dependent cytotoxicity. Data delineating these events have been derived from experiments done in resistant and sensitive multiple myeloma cell lines. Although thalidomide and IMiDs demonstrate similar biologic activities, IMiDs are more potent than thalidomide and achieve responses at lower doses. Lenalidomide, a thalidomide derivative, has also been shown to have a different toxicity profile. Our understanding of the mechanism of action of these agents has provided a platform for exciting clinical trials evaluating combinations of thalidomide and lenalidomide with both conventional chemotherapy and newer targeted agents.
Explanation:
The risk of getting lung cancer at some point in time in one's life for men who have never smoked is about 13 in 1000. The risk for men who smoke is just over 13 times the risk for non-smokers. What is the approximate lifetime risk of getting lung cancer for men who smoke
0.169 is the approximate lifetime risk of getting lung cancer for men who smoke.
In the United States, about 10 to 20% of lung cancer cases, or 20,000 to 40,000 lung cancers each year, occur in people who have never smoked or have smoked fewer than 100 cigarettes in their lifetime.
In this case, if we talk about the risk of smokers in terms of the risk of non-smokers, so the baseline risk is the risk for the non-smokers. So the baseline risk for lung cancer in men over an entire lifetime is the risk of lung cancer for men who have never smoked, over their lifetime, which is =0.013
The approximate lifetime risk of getting ling cancer, for male smokers, can be calculated as being 13 times the base risk= 0.169
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“Diseases of the present age are very different from diseases of the past.
Answer:
Yes, the diseases of present age are different from those of past. In past, diseases that spread by poor sanitati.
Explanation:
in the ear, the basilar membrane and hair cells are found in the?
Answer:
cochlea
Explanation:
Answer:
Cochlea
Explanation:
Cross-section of the cochlea. The inner hair cells are located at the termination of the "inner hair cell nerves" and the outer hair cells are located at the termination of the "outer hair cell nerve"
A ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration.
A partial re-breather mask is not typically used int he prehospital setting for oxygen administration. It is initiated for variety of reasons.
Increased metabolic demand , maintenance of oxygenation while proving anesthesia. This the most common method for home use and provide flow rate of 2 to 6 liter per minute. Allowing the delivery of oxygen while maintaining the patient's ability to utilize their mouth to talk, eat, etc.
The main purpose is treatment for patient with acute respiratory failure and those with chronic lung disease and hypoglycemia. The maintain normal hemoglobin saturation so as facilitate normal oxygen delivery to peripheral tissues.
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