Infection is the process by which an infectious agent passes from one organism to another.
The given statement is true.
An infection is produced by the entry of an infectious agent into the body of an organism, such as a virus, bacterium, or fungus. This agent can be found in the environment, on surfaces, or in other species that carry it. When the agent enters the body, it has the potential to proliferate and do harm.
There are various processes involved in the infection process. The infectious agent must first make contact with the host. This can happen through direct contact, such as touching an infected person or item, or by indirect contact, such as breathing the agent-containing airborne particles.
Once within the host's body, the agent can begin to grow and spread. The agent might enter the body via the skin, respiratory tract, digestive system, or other pathways. The agent, once inside the body, can cause harm to the host's cells, tissues, and organs.
The immune system of the host may identify the infectious pathogen and seek to fight it off. However, in other situations, the toxin can elude detection and continue to injure. This might result in the emergence of symptoms such as fever, coughing, and exhaustion.
If the infectious agent is not removed, it will reproduce and spread to other sections of the host's body or to other organisms. Infections can be transmitted from one organism to another by contact with body fluids, surfaces, or other ways. As a result, knowing the infection process is crucial to understanding how infectious illnesses spread and how they might be treated.
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the centers for disease control and prevention, based in atlanta, is responsible for tracking and identifying infections. True or False?
The given statement centers for disease control and prevention, based in atlanta, is responsible for tracking and identifying infections." is true because it is responsible for the thing mention above.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention( CDC) is the leading public public health institute of the United States. It's a United States civil agency under the Department of Health and Human Services and is headquartered in Atlanta, Georgia. The CDC works to cover public health and safety by furnishing information to enhance health
opinions, and it promotes health through hookups with state health departments and other associations. Its main focus is on precluding and controlling contagious conditions, environmental health, occupational safety and health, health creation, injury forestallment and educational conditioning designed to ameliorate the health of United States citizens.
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What is acr/o medical term ?
In medical terminology, the prefix or combination known as Acr/o means "extremities," "top," and "height." Acrochordon is a benign cutaneous development that is also known as a skin tag or fibroepithelial polyp.
Medical terminology is used to describe the human body's components, functions, disorders, treatments, and medications. Clinical environments and medical practise both employ medical terms. It includes medical roots, prefixes, and suffixes.
Examples of medical terms that start with the letter Acr/o include acroparesthesia, acroarthritis, acroasphyxia, and acroataxia. The vocabulary of medicine is specifically designed to explain the human body, including all of its parts, functions, diseases that affect it, and treatments given to it.
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What is the ICD-10 for allergies?
The ICD-10 code for allergies is T78.4. Allergies are classified as medical condition that causes the body to respond to a normally harmless substance as if it were harmful. This response is known as an allergic reaction.
The ICD-10 code for allergies is T78.4XXA. This code is used to denote an allergic reaction that is unspecified and is used when a more specific code is not available. The ICD-10 is a system of medical classification used by healthcare professionals to code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures. It is important to use the correct code in order to accurately document and track patient care.
Allergies are a common condition that can cause a range of symptoms, from mild to severe, and can be caused by a variety of substances, such as pollen, dust, food, and medications. If you have allergies, it is important to work with your healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment and to properly document your condition using the ICD-10 code.
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What is 3 times a day in medical terms?
In medical terms, "3 times a day" is often abbreviated as "TID", which Stands for "ter in die" in Latin. "Ter in die" means "three times a day", and This is a common dosing schedule for medications, particularly oral Medications.
A medicine written three times daily has enough leeway in its dosing Regimen that it may be taken morning/noon/night at the patient’s Convenience. In these cases, taking the medication an hour or two Earlier or later will not affect the medication’s effectiveness.
A medicine that needs exact timing would be written every eight hours, Sometimes with exact instructions, such as 7 a.m. / 3 p.m. / 11 p.m. Every Six hours is not so easy for a person at home to do, and fortunately, There aren’t many drugs that need precise dosing every six hours.
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what is caud medical term?
Answer: Caud is a prefix denoting tail, or hind/posterior part of the body.
Explanation:
What does (- stasis mean in anatomy?
A slowdown or cessation of the regular flow of a physiological fluid or semifluid, such as a slowing of the blood flow.
Stasis is a term used frequently in modern biology to describe a species' long-term absence of significant evolutionary change. It is a crucial component of macroevolution, or evolution that occurs at or above the level of the species. The word stasis, which derives from the Greek meaning "standing/stoppage," indicates a state of equilibrium or stability. Aristotle and Hermagoras, two ancient Greek philosophers and rhetoricians, created the stasis hypothesis, a four-question technique of innovation.
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According to the notes below the Maternity Care and Delivery subsection of Surgery, which service is included in codes reported for maternity care and delivery?
b. Episiotomy
Services included in the maternity and delivery care code are b. Episiotomy
What is an episiotomy?Episiotomy is an incision in a woman's perineum which is carried out during labor with the aim of enlarging the vaginal orifice and preventing perineal rupture. Episiotomy is performed using scissors when the perineum is distended and just before the fetal head is crowned.
This procedure is performed routinely to prevent OASIS both normal and in cases of short perineum, macrosomia, long second stage, history of OASIS, shoulder dystocia, and malpresentation.
Of the 7 types of episiotomy techniques, only 2 techniques are often performed, namely the medial and mediolateral techniques. This service is included in the code of maternity care as well as childbirth.
Your question is not complete, maybe what your question means is :
According to the notes below the Maternity Care and Delivery subsection of Surgery, which service is included in codes reported for maternity care and delivery?
a. Caesar
b. Episiotomy
c. Abruptio Plasenta
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What is the ICD-10 for diabetes type 2?
According to the WHO, Type 2 diabetes mellitus without complications falls under the category of endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic illnesses, and has the ICD-10 number E11. 9.
Chronic metabolic disease known as diabetes mellitus (DM) is characterized by persistent hyperglycemia. Insufficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin's peripheral effects, or both may be to blame. Almost 90% of all instances of diabetes are type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Insulin resistance is the term used to describe the reduced insulin response in T2DM. This condition causes insulin to become inefficient, which is initially countered by an increase in insulin synthesis to maintain glucose homeostasis. But, over time, insulin production falls, leading to T2DM.
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What is the ICD-10 for Dehydration unspecified?
The ICD-10 code for Dehydration unspecified is E86.9.
What is ICD-10 for dehydration?
ICD-10 stands for the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD), which is a medical classification system created by the World Health Organization (WHO). The ICD-10 is used by healthcare providers around the world to classify and code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures for billing and statistical purposes. It is a standardized system that allows for the tracking of health trends and the monitoring of diseases globally. The ICD-10 codes consist of alphanumeric codes that can be up to seven characters in length, with each code representing a unique diagnosis or procedure.
Therefore, The ICD-10 code for dehydration unspecified is E86.9. This code falls under Chapter 4 - Endocrine, nutritional and metabolic diseases, and is classified as a code in the subcategory E86.8 - Other fluid overload
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fill in the blank. ___ is a strong risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes, and is diagnosed if certain criteria are met, including large waist circumference, elevated blood pressure, elevated blood glucose, and unhealthful blood lipid levels.
Metabolic syndrome is a strong risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes and is diagnosed if certain criteria are met, including large waist circumference, elevated blood pressure, elevated blood glucose, and unhealthful blood lipid levels.
Metabolic syndrome, also called syndrome X, is a cluster of conditions that increase the risk of stroke, heart attack, and diabetes. Some of these conditions are:
High blood sugar High blood pressure Excess body fat (located around the waist) Abnormal cholesterol levelTreatment for metabolic syndrome usually includes physical exercise, a healthy diet, smoking cessation, and prescribed medication. If left untreated, syndrome X may last for years or even lifelong.
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Four places aside from a medical office where venipuncture may take place.
Four places aside from the medical office where venipuncture can happen are the blood banks, hospitals, clinics and reference laboratories.
Venipuncture can be basically a procedure which involves the uses a needle is in order to take out the blood from a vein which is present in the body. This is usually done for the purpose of laboratory testing. Venipuncture can also be performed for the purpose of removing the extra red blood cells or the RBCs which are present in the blood and this is done to treat some of the blood disorders.
It is also sometimes called the phlebotomy or the blood draw. It is one of the invasive procedures which are most routinely performed in order to draw blood.
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When was the first use of electroconvulsive therapy?
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a type of medical treatment that was first used in 1938. It helps people who are having problems with their mental health.
Electroconvulsive therapy, or ECT, is an effective medical treatment for patients with major depression, treatment-resistant depression, catatonia, or drug-resistant manic episodes.
The mechanism of ECT is not known with certainty. However, the administration of weak electric currents to the brain is believed to affect components of the central nervous system, including hormones, neuropeptides, neurotrophic factors, and neurotransmitters, and provide therapeutic effects on patients.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) was first introduced by Bini and Cerletti in 1938. They used electric currents to induce attacks as a therapy for schizophrenia. Attack stimulation is carried out by passing an electric current through electrodes that are placed just above the temporal lobe.
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Which of the following factors does NOT support the concept that sports nutrition is becoming increasingly important for optimal athletic performance?
A. The published literature about nutrition for sports is limited to information from sports magazines and books
B. An organization known as SCAN was created due to concern about sports nutrition
C. National and international food product corporations are manufacturing food products specifically for the athlete
D. Courses in sports nutrition have been developed at many colleges
The factor that does NOT support the concept that sports nutrition is becoming increasingly important for optimal athletic performance is A.
Why is the statement that "The published literature about nutrition for sports is limited to information from sports magazines and books" incorrect?This statement is not true because sports nutrition is a rapidly growing field, and there are many scientific journals and publications that are dedicated to this topic. In recent years, there has been a significant increase in the amount of research being conducted in the area of sports nutrition, and this research is published in peer-reviewed scientific journals. Additionally, many universities and research institutions have established sports nutrition programs and research centers to study the impact of nutrition on athletic performance.
On the other hand, factors B, C, and D all support the concept that sports nutrition is becoming increasingly important for optimal athletic performance. The creation of the organization SCAN, the development of courses in sports nutrition at many colleges, and the manufacturing of food products specifically for athletes by national and international corporations all demonstrate the growing recognition of the importance of nutrition for athletes.
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Aseptic technique means that that you perform the preparation of media or the transfer of living microbes
O uniformly and consistently
O without introducing contamination
O only with pathogens
O under completely sterile conditions
Aseptic technique basically means that we perform the transfer of living microbes or preparation of media without introducing any contamination.
The correct option is option b.
Aseptic technique is basically a method which involves the target-specific practices as well as different procedures which are done under suitably controlled conditions in order to reduce the contamination which occurs from microbes. It is a very crucial laboratory skill which is needed while conducting research related in the field of microbiology.
Contamination is a major issue during culturing of microorganisms. Bacterial cultures can get infected with colonies which we might not be able to identify.
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Which of these abbreviations indicate immediately
a. I/O
b. Ad lib
c. Stat
d. Inj
The abbreviation "stat" basically means immediately.
The correct option is option c stat.
"stat", is an abbreviation of the word statim which basically means "immediately". This term is used widely in medical context. The words "statim" has a Latin origin and basically means urgency, rush, instantly or immediately.
This term is used by medical professionals or practitioners basically in the case of medical emergencies or any adverse events when there is a fault or error in the treatment or therapy which has been provided to the patient.
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What is the ICD-10 code for infected skin tag?
Various hypertrophic diseases of the skin, ICD-10-CM code L91. 8. You do not use another code for a skin disturbance or anything similar since you are just trying to find a pay-per-click way to say skin tag.
A skin tag is simply L91. 8. The cost of cosmetic operations is not covered. Removal of benign skin lesions is permitted without prior approval as long as it meets the requirements listed below. Skin tag removal is not covered by Paramount HMO, PPO, or Individual Marketplace (procedures 11200 & 11201). According to the WHO, ICD-10 code A49. 9 for Bacterial infection, unspecified falls under the category of "Some infectious and parasitic disorders."
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What is the ICD-10 for obstructive sleep apnea?
The ICD 10 code for obstructive sleep apnea is G47. 33 which includes individuals with mixed (both obstructive and central) sleep apnea symptoms.
ICD 10 stands for International Classification of Diseases, tenth revision in procedure coding system. The obstructive sleep apnea refers to the condition of excessive relaxation of throat muscles due to which the person may feel difficulty in breathing. This condition has no permanent cure. However some steps can be taken to reduce the intensity of this condition such as reduction in weight, adjusting pillow height such that throat passage remains clear, nasal decongestant and avoiding sleeping pills. ICD 10 under HIPAA includes all the symptoms associated with apnea such as obstructive sleep apnea, Pediatric obstructive sleep apnea and Adult obstructive sleep apnea in all mild to severe conditions.
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26 g for girls and 38 g for boys (ages 14-18); tough complex carbohydrate that the body cannot digest; aids digestion, reduces disease risk
Tough complex carbohydrates or carbohydrates high in fiber.
Examples - Fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes are the main sources of fiber.
The body is unable to digest fiber, which is a form of carbohydrate.
By limiting the amount of fat and cholesterol your body absorbs, fiber lowers your triglyceride and cholesterol levels, minimizing your risk of heart disease.
A high-fiber diet seems to lower the chance of acquiring a number of illnesses, including colon cancer, diverticular disease, heart disease, diabetes, and diverticular disease.
Fiber improves fullness and lowers food intake at subsequent meals. Fiber is crucial for the functioning of the digestive system and for decreasing cholesterol.
The significance of gut fermentation, modifications to the gut microbiota, and changes in metabolites are associated with a lower risk of problems associated with obesity.
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coalescence describes the process by which parts of a whole join together, or fuse, to make one.
The statement "Coalescence describes the process by which parts of a whole join together, or fuse, to make one" is a TRUE statement.
Coalescence is the process by which two particles merge during contact (fuse together) to form a single particle. Its principle is whereby fluid molecules come together to form a larger whole. The fusion happens because the interfacial film is ruptured because of the contact. For example, two water droplets on a glass table join together and form a larger water droplet.
Coalescence is different from flocculation. Flocculation is when emulsion droplets aggregate and form larger units, but do not fuse with each other.
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what is vaginal discharge icd 10
The ICD-10 diagnostic code for vaginal discharge is N98.8.
The ICD-10 refers to the International Classification of diseases and the vaginal discharge is classified under the diagnostic code N98.8. This diagnostic code is meant to refer to the infection of the female genital tract. UTI, yeast infections, and bacterial vaginosis are some conditions included in this code. The knowledge of ICD codes helps you to get an idea of what your doctor may prescribe you. it may also help you to take some precautions before the proper treatment.
Leukorrhoea NOS, old vaginal laceration, pessary ulcer of vagina are other non-inflammatory disorders of female genital placed under the ICD-10 code of N98.8.
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by wearing a face shield when coming into contact with body fluid, a phlebotomist is preventing exposure by which of the following modes of transmission?
Before collection of a specimen, the phlebotomist should dress in personal protective equipment (PPE), such as an impervious gown and gloves applied immediately before approaching the patient.
What are the functions of personal protective equipments?Personal protective equipment is protective clothing, helmets, goggles, or other garments or equipment designed to protect the wearer's body from injury or infection.
Personal protective equipment, or PPE, protects workers from serious workplace injuries or illnesses resulting from physical, electrical, mechanical, chemical, or other workplace hazards.
Personal protective equipment, commonly referred to as "PPE", is equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards that cause serious workplace injuries and illnesses.
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What has kept paraldehyde from being widely used? A. danger to the CNS B. bad taste and odor. C. danger to the respiratory system. D. irritation to the gastric
what is ambien generic name
The generic name of Ambien is Zolpidem
Zolpidem (generic Ambien) is a drug commonly used to treat insomnia. It can help a person to fall asleep and stay asleep allover the night. Taking Zolpidem can have serious side effects, including falls, behavior changes, and excessive sleepiness. Zolpidem is very much useful in treating insomnia (difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep). Zolpidem belongs to a class of drugs called sedative-hypnotics. It will work by slowing the brain activity to allow sleep. Zolpidem, commonly known as Ambien, slows down brain activity and allows you to fall asleep. The extended-release version has two tiers. The first helps you fall asleep and the second slowly dissolves to help you fall asleep.
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When blood leaks out of the vein around the puncture site during venipuncture and collects under the skin, it forms a(n) ________.
When blood leaks out of the vein around the puncture site during venipuncture and collects under the skin, it forms a hematoma.
A hematoma is a collection of blood that has leaked out of the vein and is pooled under the skin. This can occur during venipuncture when a puncture site is made in the skin and a needle is inserted into a vein. As a result of the puncture, blood may leak out of the vein and form a hematoma.
It is important to note that hematomas can also form from other sources, such as trauma to the body or taking blood thinning medication. If a hematoma does form, it is important to seek medical advice to ensure that the hematoma is not causing any further health issues.
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True or False? blood groups are made up of any surface antigen on formed elements, not just abo and rh, and include over 500 known antigens.
Answer:
True, Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory. An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood.
The statement "blood groups are made up of any surface antigen on formed elements, not just abo and rh, and include over 500 known antigens" is TRUE.
Blood groups are determined by the presence of specific surface antigens on the surface of red blood cells. The most well-known and important blood group systems are the ABO system and the Rh system. However, there are many other blood group systems that exist, each with their own set of antigens.
In addition to the ABO and Rh systems, there are over 500 known antigens that contribute to different blood group systems. These antigens can be categorized into various blood group systems such as the Kell system, Duffy system, Kidd system, and many others.
For example, within the Rh system, there are more than 50 antigens, but the most clinically significant ones are the D antigen (Rh positive) and the absence of the D antigen (Rh negative).
Therefore, blood groups are not limited to just the ABO and Rh systems. There are many other surface antigens that contribute to the different blood group systems, making up a total of over 500 known antigens.
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What is the medical term for pus?
Purulent exudate is the medical term for pus.
Pus is an exudate that forms at the site of inflammation during a bacterial or fungal infection. It often has a white-yellow, yellow, or yellow-brown color. A pustule, pimple, or spot is a visible collection of pus within or beneath the epidermis. An abscess is an accumulation of pus in a confined tissue area. Pus is made up of a thin, protein-rich fluid known historically as liquor puris and decomposing leukocytes from the immune system (mostly neutrophils).
When an infection is present, macrophages release cytokines that cause neutrophils to chemotactically go toward the infection site. The neutrophils there release granules that kill the bacterium. Leucocidins, which the bacteria release, operate as an immune system deterrent.
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What is the diagnosis of hyperkalemia?
Plasma potassium (K+) concentration greater than 5mEq/L or serum K+ concentration greater than 5.5mEq/L are required for the diagnosis of hyperkalemia.
Rarely, though, cell release within the sample tube results in a factitious rise of serum or plasma potassium levels. The amount of potassium in your blood can be determined through a blood test. Usually, a high potassium level is discovered by accident during a regular blood test.Via a blood test, your doctor will determine your potassium level. An adult's normal potassium level falls between 3.5 and 5.2 mEq/L (3.5 and 5.2 mmol/L). Mild hypokalemia is defined as potassium levels between 3 and 3.5 mEq/L (3 to 3.5 mmol/L).
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the primary problem in hyperkalemia is that ____
A. neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials. B. neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized. C. neurons are easier to excite because their resting potential is closer to threshold. D. neurons are easier to excite because their resting potential is closer to threshold and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials. E. neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
Primary problem with hyperkalemia is that neurons are hyper excitable because the resting potential is closer to the threshold, and you don’t respond quickly to smaller graded potential, hence option (D) is correct.
In hyperkalemia, the membrane resting potential falls and it partially depolarizes. This first makes the membrane more excitable. The cell membrane will, however, become more resistive and less likely to fully depolarize with continuous depolarization.
A serum or plasma-potassium level beyond the top limits of normal, often larger than 5.0 mEq/L to 5.5 mEq/L, is referred to as hyperkalemia. High potassium levels can result in life-threatening cardiac-arrhythmias, muscular weakness, or paralysis even though moderate hyperkalemia is typically asymptomatic.
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What is the 3 times a day medical abbreviation?
Three times a day medical abbreviation is t.d.s. ter die sumendum.
In general , When the medicine label written on the medicine is prescribed to take three times day it significantly means 'to take the medicine every 8 hours'. Also if we divide 8 hours into 24 hours it will give us 3 equals divisions . so, if a medication says three times daily that means every eight hours. If it's four times daily It should be taken at every six hours.
Like wise , b.i.d. is medical abbreviation used to prescribe two times a day b.i.d. stands for "bis in die" . Also, q.i.d state for four times a day as q.i.d. stands for "quater in die" .
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Is digoxin A diuretic drug?
Answer:
No
Explanation:
Digoxin is a medicine used to treat certain heart problems such as heart failure.