The idea behind the Kanban system is to authorize materials for production only if there is a need for them.a) trueb) false

Answer: encoding

Explanation:

Considering the communication process, an advertisement of a particular copier machine model would be considered encoding.

Encoding simply helps in the translatation of the idea relgarding a message into symbols or words which should be easily understood by the receiver. The copier machine is sending tothe sender.

Answer:

D. Sallie Mae.

Explanation:

Sallie Mae was established to trade students loan debt. The association provided debt management services. Initially it was known as the Student Loan Marketing Association and it was first set up in 1973. The association used to be if the government because it was used to give federal education loans. It became private later on and was used to finance private loans for education.

Answer:

Following are the answer to this question:

Explanation:

It is a great approach since it encourages and guarantees enhanced investment in infrastructure. Even so, a reduction in the possible future investment funds caused by government confidence will also result in business mistakes or failures throughout the investment process, and that's why the officials of the White House frequently exude a greater level of pride in prospects for the economic system than they feel.

Answer:

25.29%

Explanation:

the numbers are missing, so I looked for a similar question:

the partnership's total capital = $370,000 + $280,000 + $220,000 = $870,000

Marcus's share in the partnership = value of building / partnership's total capital = $220,000 / $870,000 = 25.29%

Answer:Shareholder's equity =$264,820

Explanation:

Purcahse of treasury stock =Shares purchased×price purchased

=3,500 shares×$11.70 per share

=$40,950

Shareholder's equity =Equity capital+Net income− Dividend−Treasury stock

Given

Net income = $98,000

  Dividends =$41,000

but Equity capital =Shares issued× the Issued price + Shares issued× the Issued price +....

= 10,800 x $5.70 + 19,300 x 9.70=61,560 + 187,210=$248,770

Shareholder's equity = $248,770 + $98,000 - $41,000 -$40,950= $264,820.

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Answer:

32.35% ( the probability that in any given year, the return on long-term corporate bonds will be greater than 10 percent )

Explanation:

Given data for long-term corporate bonds

Standard deviation : 8.3%

mean = 6.2%

To calculate the probability that in any given year, the return on long-term corporate bonds will be greater than 10 percent ( USING THE NORM-DIST FUNCTION )

P( x > 10% ) = 1 - P(x<10%) = 1 - NORM-DIST (10,6.2,8.3,TRUE ) = 0.3235

= 32.35%

attached below is the missing part of your question

Answer: $20 trillion

Explanation:

International trade is a trade that occurs between different countries. Die to international trade, several countries can buy the goods and services that are not being produced in their countries.

It should also be noted that International trade currently involves about $20 trillion worth of goods and services thundering around the globe.

Answer:

First - in - First - Out (FIFO) method

Explanation:

The First - in - First - Out (FIFO) method, assumes that the first goods received by the business will be the first ones to be delivered to the final customer.

It assumes that goods have been used in the order in which they are purchased.

Answer:

$3,628  per direct labour hour.

Explanation:

Total manufacturing overhead cost and total direct labour hours

Particulars                                       Dep 1             Dep 2          Total

Manufacturing overhead cost     1,360,000 3,560,000    4,920,000

Direct labour hours                       553,000     803,000     1,356,000

Plant-wide overhead rate = Total manufacturing overhead / Total direct labour rate

Plant-wide overhead rate = $4,920,000 / 1,356,000

Plant-wide overhead rate = $3,628

Therefore, the Plant-wide overhead rate is $3,628  per direct labour hour.

Answer:

2.18%

Explanation:

Effective interest rate = (1+i/m)^n - 1

i is stated as interest rate

m is the compounding frequency

Here, the compounding is quarterly and the effective interest rate is 8%

Since one year is equal to 4 quarter, the value of m is equals to 4

Effective interest rate = (1 + i/4)^4 - 1

9% = (1 + i/4)^4 - 1

0.09 + 1 = (1 + i/4)^4

(1.09)^1/4 = 1 + i/4

1 + i/4 = 1.02178

i/4 = 1.02178 - 1

i/4 = 0.2178

i/4 = 2.18%

Answer:

C. Ascertaining the extent to which sister business units are making maximum use of the parent company's competitive advantages.

Explanation:

For a diversified company that has many business units, it is important for the sister units to provide opportunities that make more profit for the business.

These opportunities are generated by the ability of each sister unit to have a unique competitive edge not shared by other business units.

In analysing cross business competitive advantage among sister units, we don't consider which sister business units are making maximum use of the parent company's competitive advantages.

This is because the company's competitive advantage is a trait shared by all the business units. It does not show a unique competitive edge of sister units.

Answer:

If a bushel of wheat costs $3.20 in the US and costs 40 pesos in Mexico and the nominal exchange rate is 10 pesos per dollar, then the real exchange from the US perspective is 0.80. The US will…

increase exports of wheat to Mexico.

Explanation:

As the US increases exports of wheat to Mexico, it will receive more income per bushel since a bushel of wheat costs more in Mexico than in the US.  While a bushel of wheat costs $3.20 in the US, it costs $4.00 per bushel in Mexico.  Exports of wheat to Mexico will yield income in excess of $0.80 per bushel.

The $0.80 excess is computed from the difference between the dollar cost in Mexico and the dollar cost in US. With the exchange rate of 10 pesos per dollar, 40 pesos will be equal to $4.00.  So, if it costs $3.20 in US and $4.00 in Mexico, the best option would be to export more to Mexico and reap in the extra $0.80 ($4.00 - $3.20) per bushel.

Answer: True

Explanation:

Lean is used by organizations in order to prevent wastages and to also improve the effectiveness and efficiency at such organizations.

In a lean environment, the journal entry to record conversion costs would include a debit to the raw and in process inventory account.

The answer above is true.

Answer:

b. 1.86 years

Explanation:

The computation of the project's discounted payback is shown below:-

Year   Cash Flows      Discounted CFs (at 10%)        Cumulative

                                                                                Discounted CFs

0        -$100,000           -$100,000                          -$100,000

1          $40,000              $36,363.64                       -$63,636.36

2          $90,000              $74,380.17                        $10,743.80

3          $30,000               $22,539.44                      $33,283.25

4          $60,000               $40,980.81                      $74,264.05

Discounted Payback Period = Years before full recovery +

(Uncovered Cost at start of the year ÷ Cash Flow during the year)

Now we will put the values into the formula

= 1 + ($63,636.36 ÷ $74,380.17)

= 1 + 0.86

= 1.86 years

Answer:

a) -$1,129,000

b) net operating cash flows:

year 1 = $412,239

year 2 = $448,152

year 3 = $350,428

c) total year 3 cash flow (including after tax salvage value and working capital) = $831,759

after tax salvage value = $464,831

working capital = $16,500

d) NPV = $179,733

e) the machine should be purchased

Explanation:

initial investment year 0 = $1,090,000 + $22,500 + $16,500 (net working capital) $1,129,000

depreciation per year:

year 1 = 33.33% x $1,112,500 = $370,796

year 2 = 44.45% x $1,112,500 = $490,506

year 3 = 14.81%% x $1,112,500 = $164,761, carrying value after depreciation = $86,437

if sold at $627,000 at the end of year 3, the after tax net cash flow = $627,000 - [($627,000 - $86,437) x 30%] = $464,831

cash flow year 1 = [($430,000 - $370,796) x (1 - 30%)] + $370,796 = $412,239

cash flow year 2 = [($430,000 - $490,506) x (1 - 30%)] + $490,506 = $448,152

operating cash flow year 3 = [($430,000 - $164,761) x (1 - 30%)] + $164,761 = $350,428

total cash flow year 3 = [($430,000 - $164,761) x (1 - 30%)] + $164,761 + $16,500 +  $464,831 = $831,759

NPV = $179,733

Answer:

Explanation:

Monetary Policy by a central bank is what decides how much money will be in an Economy and so can have influence on interest and inflation rates.

There have been some arguments as to whether Central banks like the Fed should use a Rule based approach where monetary policy is in line with set rules vs Discretionary where the Fed can implement monetary policy based on their perception of Economic events.

Some of the arguments presented by proponents for the Rule based approach are;

Answer: D. If one country creates all the reserves it can prevent other countries from trading.

Explanation:

Ditching the Dollar refers to a movement by nations to reduce the dependence on the US. dollar for transactions.

The USD is the major currency for trade around the world with it accounting for the currency of use in more than 50% of the entire World trade. This was due to the Bretton Woods Agreement and System which at the time pegged the USD to gold and other currencies at certain value to the USD.

The influence the USD gained that day continues today. Countries however are increasing becoming fed up by the United States using the Dollar to impose trade restrictions and sanctions on countries and then requiring everyone to fall in line because trades are mostly done in the currency controlled by the US, the USD.

For instance, when sanctions were imposed on Iran, the European Union looked for alternative means of payment for Iranian oil.

Ditching the Dollar therefore argues that having multiple reserve currencies to choose from is healthy because one country will not be able to control world trade as the US has.

Answer: $12,000

Explanation:

As no production has been started yet, no other costs have been incurred by Naples for the equipment other than the $12,000.

The lowest price that Tebit should offer therefore should be the price that the equipment was purchased for as the equipment has not not been used to produce anything and so has not incurred any variable costs or donated any incremental value that would decrease or increase its value.

Complete Question:

In the late 1990's, the unemployment rate dropped below the natural rate of unemployment. Firms with vacancies were having to pay higher wages to try and fill job openings. If inflation were to begin, it would most likely be described as:

A. Deficit pull inflation

B. Demand pull inflation

C. Cross deficit inflation

D. Cost push inflation

Answer:

Option D. Cost push inflation

Explanation:

The inflation that is all because of increase in the prices of input labor, Material, Overhead, etc. Thus increase in the price of end product is an impact of increase in input cost and also because of decreased supply of product. The decrease in product supply is because only those firms produce products that have a competitive cost advantage.

In the current case, when the unemployment rate falls below the natural rate of employment then this means that the demand of the labor has increased and thus the salaries and wages of the employee will also increase. The new job opening will have to be filled by putting forward an attractive offer to recruit employees. This is cost push inflation, because the cost of the input has increased which will increase the cost of production and thus increasing the price of the end product.

Answer:

Ebony Ernst

Income statement for the month ended October 31

Consulting fees earned        $12,940

Less Expenses :

Rent expense                        ($2,640)

Salaries expense                  ($5,920)

Telephone expense                ($800)

Miscellaneous expenses        ($620)

Profit or (Loss)                         $2,960

Explanation:

Income Statement shows the profit or loss resulting from the companies operations.

The Income statement comprises of revenues or income items and expenses items only.

So be careful to consider only these in solving this problem.

The Profit or loss is the final result and is determined by deducting expenses from revenue or income.

Available Options Are:

A. Increases investment interest expense

B. Is required

C. Reduces interest income

D. Increases interest income

E. Increases the basis of the bond

Answer:

Option C. Reduces Interest Income

Explanation:

The reason is that when we amortize the premium the carrying value of the bond decreases which decreases the principal amount and thus the interest calculated will also be decreased. The decrease in principal amount is because of the difference between the coupon rate of the bond and the firm's required rate of return.

Hence the amortization of the premium reduces the interest income.

Answer:

Option C, that pieces of strategically relevant activities and capabilities often end up scattered across many departments thus impeding cross-business strategic fits, is the right answer.

Explanation:

Option C is correct because the cross-business collaboration exhibits the process in which the expertise of different departments comes together and then work for the common goal. Generally, the capabilities and relevant activities are scattered in the different departments of the company. Therefore the cross-business team up those scattered abilities. In most of the cases, the team formed includes the people who are efficient and expert in their field. Therefore, option C is right.

Answer:

Particulars                                                  Amount

Retained earnings January 1,2016            $39,000

as originally posted

Prior period adjustment                             $6,000

Retained earnings as adjusted                  $33,000

Net Income for the year                             $72,000

                                                                    $105,000

Dividends declared                                    $23,000

Retained earnings December 31, 2016  $82,000

Answer: Less than in year 8

Explanation:

Here is the complete question:

A 12-year capital lease specifies equal minimum annual lease payments. Part of this payment represents interest and part represents a reduction in the net lease liability. The portion of the minimum lease payment in Year 10 applicable to interest expense should be:

a. Less than in Year 8

b. More than in Year 8

c. The same as in Year 12

d. Less than in Year 12

A capital lease is a type of lease whereby the leader asset are financed by the lessor while the lessee gets all other ownership rights.

Based on the scenario explained in the question, the portion of the minimum lease payment in Year 10 applicable to interest expense should be less than in Year 8.

Answer:

Allocated MOH= $375,700

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated total overhead= $368,900

Estimated direct labor= $217,000

Actual direct labor= $221,000

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 368,900/217,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1.7 per direct labor dollar

Now, we can allocate overhead based on actual labor costs:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 1.7*221,000

Allocated MOH= $375,700

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Gross domestic product is the total sum of final goods and services produced in an economy within a given period which is usually a year

GDP calculated using the expenditure approach = Consumption spending by households + Investment spending by businesses + Government spending + Net export

Net export = exports – imports

Nominal GDP is GDP calculated using current year prices while Real GDP is GDP calculated using base year prices. Real GDP has been adjusted for inflation.

(5 x $0.5) +( 4 x $1) = $6.50

Answer:

the dividend yield is 7.60%

Explanation:

The computation of the dividend yield is shown below:

As we know that

Required return = Dividend yield + Capital Gain Yield or growth rate

13% = Dividend yield + 5.4%

So, the dividend yield is

= 13% - 5.4%

= 7.60%

Hence, the dividend yield is 7.60%

We simply applied the above formula so that the dividend yield could come

Complete Question:

LVN Corporation's direct labor costs and related information for the month of June were as follows:

500 Actual total direct labor-hours

1000 Standard total direct labor-hours

Total direct labor cost $16,500

Unfavorable direct labor rate (rate) variance $600

What is LVN Corporation's direct labor efficiency variance?

A. $16,500 unfavorable

B. $7950 unfavorable

C. $7950 favorable

D. $16,500 favorable

Answer:

$7,950 Unfavorable

Explanation:

As we know that:

"Labor Efficiency Variance = (Actual Labor Hours Worked for Actual Production − Standard Hours for Actual Production) * Standard Rate"

If we consider the parenthesis elements in the formula, we can decide whether the variance is favorable or adverse. If the actual labor hours worked are more than the budget (standard hours for actual production) then the variance (difference) is adverse because greater the hours worked for same level of activity (Production Units) the greater is the labor cost. Hence the variance would be adverse and vice versa.

Here

Actual Hours Worked for actual production are 1,000 Hours

Actual total labor cost is $16,500

Standard Hours Worked for actual production are 500 Hours

Standard rate per hour is $15.9 per Hour (Step 1)

By putting values, we have:

Direct Labor Efficiency Variance = (1000 Hrs - 500 Hrs) * $15.9 per hour

= (1000  -  500) * $15.9 per share

= $7,950 Unfavorable

We can find the standard labor rate using the following labor rate variance formula:

Labor Rate Variance = (Standard Rate per Hour * Actual Hours Worked) − (Actual Rate per Hour * Actual Hours Worked)

Here

(Actual Rate per Hour * Actual Hours Worked) is total labor cost which is $16,500

Actual Hours Worked is 1000 Hours

Labor Rate Variance is ($600)

By putting values, we have:

($600) = (1000 Hours * Standard Labor Rate)  -  $16,500

($600) + $16,500 = 1000 Hours * Standard Labor Rate

$15,900 = 1000 Hours * Standard Labor Rate

Standard Labor Rate = $15,900 / 1000 Hours  = $15.9 per hour