Answer:
Equation: p+q=1 Answer is 0.7
DNA and RNA are structurally similar in some ways, but different in others. Identify whether each of the following statements applies to DNA, RNA, both or neither.Please do not give me the answers from other Chegg's question because my question is different from them
DNA and RNA are structurally similar in some ways, but different in others the answers are 1. both, 2. RNA, 3. DNA, 4. neither, 5. RNA, 6. both, 7. DNA, 8. neither.
1. both
Nitrogen bases with the primary structural components purine and pyrimidine are found in DNA and RNA.Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Guanine are the four nitrogen bases found in DNA.RNA has four nitrogen bases as well. Uracil is present in RNA in place of thymine.Purine bases include adenine (A) and guanine (G). Pyrimidine bases include cytosine (C), thymine (T), and uracil (U).2. RNA
RNA has four nitrogen bases as well. Uracil is present in RNA in place of thymine.
3. DNA
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid), as its name implies, comprises the sugar deoxyribose.
neither 4.
The percentages of thymine and guanine are not equal in DNA or RNA.
5. RNA
RNA (ribonucleic acid), as its name implies, comprises the sugar ribose.
6. both
The nucleotides are joined to sugar in a beta-N-glycosidic bond in both DNA and RNA.
7. DNA
There are an equal number of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides in DNA.
neither 8.
Sugars are linked together in DNA or RNA by 3'–5'phosphodiester links .
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Which of the following BEST describes how ATP synthase converts the potential energy of the proton gradient to the chemical energy of ATP? Do protons flow through the F0 or F1?
A. Kinetic energy from the flow of protons is stored in a new electrochemical gradient within the F0 subunit. The potential energy of the electrochemical gradient, in turn, is converted to kinetic energy in the F1 subunit and used to catalyze ATP synthesis.
B. The flow of protons through the F0 subunit oxidizes the F1 subunit, which allows ADP to be reduced to ATP.
C. Kinetic energy from the flow of protons is converted to the kinetic energy of rotation of the F0 subunit; the rotation of the F0 subunit leads to rotation of the F1 subunit, which can then catalyze ATP synthesis.
D. None of the other answer options is correct.
E. The flow of protons through the F0 subunit reduces the F1 subunit, which allows ADP to be oxidized to ATP.
The best description of how ATP synthase converts the potential energy of the proton gradient to the chemical energy of ATP and protons flow through the F0 or F1 is kinetic energy from the flow of protons is converted to the kinetic energy of rotation of the F0 subunit; the rotation of the F0 subunit leads to rotation of the F1 subunit, which can then catalyze ATP synthesis.
Thus, the correct option is C.
The dephosphorylаtion of аdenosine triphosphаte (АTP) provides energy for mаny biochemicаl reаctions. АTP is primаrily produced by the enzyme АTP Synthаse. Synthаses аre found in the inner mitochondriаl membrаnes аnd the chloroplаst thylаkoid membrаnes of eukаryotes, аs well аs in prokаryotic plаsmа membrаnes. Like hydroelectric turbines, АTP synthаse components rotаte in response to the proton flow, аnd this rotаtionаl energy is then coupled to АTP synthesis.
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Dopamine receptors are
A. G-protein coupled receptors that only activate adenylyl cyclase
B. G-protein coupled receptors that can either activate or inhibit adenylyl cyclase
C. Ionotropic receptors that are excitatory
D. G-protein coupled receptors that only inhibit adenylyl cyclase
Dopamine receptors basically G-protein couples receptors which are able to activate or even inhibit adenylyl cyclase.
The correct option is option B.
G-protein-coupled receptors or GPCRs are basically the largest as well as the most diverse group of membrane receptors which are found in eukaryotes. GPCRs happen to interact with the G proteins that are present in the plasma membrane. Whenever an external signaling molecule happens to bind to a GPCR, it leads to a conformational change in GPCR which consequently triggers the interaction between the GPCR and a G protein present nearby.
The common target of these activated G proteins is adenylyl cyclase which is basically a membrane-associated enzyme which when activated catalyzes synthesis of cAMP. Dopamine receptors are also G-protein couples receptors which are able to activate or even inhibit adenylyl cyclase.
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ASAP pls I need this quick)
During the 1950's, several scientists were responsible for discovering the structure of DNA. One scientist, Erwin Chargaff, found that in DNA, the ratios of adenine (A) to thymine (T) and guanine (G) to cytosine (C) are always equal. Select the answer choice that was NOT indicated by Chargaff's discovery about the structure of DNA and its impact on replication.
Responses
A If we read the sequence of nucleotides on one strand of DNA, we can identify the complementary sequence on the other strand.If we read the sequence of nucleotides on one strand of DNA, we can identify the complementary sequence on the other strand.
B Adenine pairs with thymine; guanine with cytosine.Adenine pairs with thymine; guanine with cytosine.
C The base pairing facilitates DNA replication and RNA transcription.The base pairing facilitates DNA replication and RNA transcription.
D When pairing nucleotides, you must pair purines with purines and pyrimidines with pyrimidines.
When pairing nucleotides, you must pair purines with purines and pyrimidines with pyrimidines.
How does the DNA replicate?DNA replication is the process by which a cell makes a copy of its DNA. It occurs before cell division to ensure that each daughter cell has an exact copy of the genetic material. The process of DNA replication involves the following steps:
Initiation: The replication process is initiated by the unwinding of the double helix structure of the DNA molecule.
Primer synthesis: A small RNA primer is synthesized by the enzyme primase, which provides a starting point for DNA synthesis.
Synthesis of new strands: The DNA polymerase enzyme adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the RNA primer, leading to the synthesis of new complementary strands of DNA.
Elongation: The DNA polymerase continues to add nucleotides to the new complementary strands, leading to their elongation.
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Determine the possible gametes that could normally be formed from an organism with the genotype AABbCc.
The plant with the genotype AABbCc produces four gametes.
What types of gametes can the AABbCc genotype produce?The only gametes produced by a plant with the genotype AABbCC are ABC and AbC. The genotypes present in the cross are calculated using the 3n formula, whereas the phenotype present in the cross is determined using the 2n method.
How many children will result from the union of AaBbCc and AaBbCc?An F1 hybrid with the AaBbCc genotype is created by crossing the AABBCC and aabbcc genotypes. An organism can create a total of 2n different types of gametes, where n is the total number of heterozygous genes. Because the hybrid AaBbCc is heterozygous for three genes, it can produce a maximum of 23=8 gametes.
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Based on what you've read, answer the following questions.
1. Girls generally begin their growth spurt with a major hormonal shift called the
2. The hormone that causes the growth of pubic and underarm hair in girls is
3. Most
don't understand that adults have experienced the same kinds of things
they re experiencing.
4. According to Erik Erikson, adolescents face the crisis of
5. Most people express more than
identity.
6. What factor--parents, peer groups, or youth culture has the greatest effect on the educational and vocational choices of teenagers?
7. Two eating disorders associated with young women and adolescents are
and
8. The abused substances that are most used by adolescents are
and
9. Most sexually transmitted diseases are
Explanation:
secondary character structure
The following is a small piece of a gene. If the promoter for this gene is located to the RIGHT of the sequence shown, what would the mRNA look like after transcription?
3' G A T A C T G A C A T A 5'
5' C T A T G A C T G T A T 3'
Here is a short section of a gene. The mRNA would look like 3' G A T A C T G A C A T A 5' following transcription if the promoter for this gene is situated to the RIGHT of the sequence displayed.
A promoter is a brief stretch of DNA (100–1,000 bp) where RNA polymerase starts to transcribe a gene. Normally, it is found at the 5′ end of the transcription initiation site or immediately upstream.
The central promoter region of the RNA polymerase will stably bind to it, allowing transcription of the template strand to start. The central promoter region contains a DNA sequence known as the TATA box (5'-TATAAA-3'), which allows histones and general transcription factor proteins to bind.
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three replication models were proposed after the watson and crick paper: a conservative model, a semi-conservative model, and a dispersed model. using this linked diagram, explain how they differ from each other
DNA replication is modelled after the semi-conservative replication process that Watson and Crick first proposed. The two strands of DNA first had to be unwound and separated.
Why is the process of DNA replication referred to be "semi-conservative"?Because each of the two copies of DNA contains one ancient, conserved DNA strand and one freshly created strand at the time of replication, this process is known as semiconservative replication.
What do dispersive, conservative, semi-conservative, and conservative DNA replication mean?While semi-conservative replication creates two DNA helices with one new strand and one old strand in each helix, dispersive replication creates two helices with one new strand and one old strand in each helix.
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Which of the following is an example of demonstrative evidence?
Gun
Fingerprint
Handwritten note
Model of crime scene
Answer: Model of crime scene
Explanation:
Which of the following statements regarding Darwin's theory of adaptation by natural selection are accurate?
A. advantageous traits are passed from parents to offspring
B. organisms must compete for resources with other members of their population
C. populations are made up of individuals that are exactly alike
D. all environments have an infinite ability to support increasing populations
E. if it can survive in a given environment, an organism is evolutionarily successful
The correct statements regarding Darwin's theory of adaptation by natural selection are:
A. advantageous traits are passed from parents to offspring
B. organisms must compete for resources with other members of their population
E. if it can survive in a given environment, an organism is evolutionarily successful.
A. Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection states that beneficial traits that help an organism survive and reproduce are more likely to be passed on to future generations. This process, known as natural selection, leads to the evolution of species over time.
B. Competition for resources is a key aspect of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection. Organisms must compete for limited resources such as food, water, and mates with other members of their population. Those that are best adapted to the environment and can most effectively compete for resources are more likely to survive and pass on their traits to future generations.
E. Evolutionary success in Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection is determined by an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its environment. If an organism is able to survive and pass on its traits to offspring, it is considered evolutionarily successful, even if it is not the most fit organism in its environment.
C. Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection does not state that populations are made up of individuals that are exactly alike. In fact, genetic variation within a population is an important factor in evolution by natural selection, as it provides the raw material for natural selection to act upon.
D. Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection does not state that all environments have an infinite ability to support increasing populations. In fact, populations are limited by their environments, and those that grow beyond the carrying capacity of the environment will experience increased competition for resources and a decrease in population size.
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protein synthesis involves an anticodon, a base triplet, and a codon. these are parts of the , , and molecules, respectively.
Protein synthesis involves an anticodon, base triplet, and codon. These are parts of tRNA, DNA, mRNA and molecules, respectively.
What is meant by anticodon and codon?Codon is a three-nucleotide or triplet sequence found on mRNA that codes for certain amino acid during translation. Anticodon is a three-nucleotide sequence found on tRNA that binds to corresponding mRNA sequence and amino acid transported by tRNA molecule is determined by anticodon sequence.
Anticodon is a trinucleotide sequence located at one end of a transfer tRNA molecule, which is complementary to corresponding codon in mRNA sequence.
Codons are present on mRNA or DNA and are sequences of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acid.
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Table 1 shows the stage and number of cells and chromosomes per cell at the end of the stage in a 2n=24 organism.Table 1. Cell and chromosome count during selected phases of meiosisStage: Number of Cells: Number of Chromosomes per Cell:Prophase I 1 24Metaphase I 1 24Anaphase I 1 24Telophase I 1 24Beginning of Prophase II 2 12Which of the following statements correctly describes the chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I?A) Each daughter cell contains 12 chromatids. Each chromatid is one of two from a single chromosome with the other one of the pair found in the other daughter cell.B) Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Since the chromosomes were randomly divided, one daughter cell may contain both of a pair of homologous chromosomes, while the other cell contains both of another pair of homologous chromosomes.C) Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Each chromosome is one of a pair of homologous chromosomes from the parent cell, with the other homologue found in the other daughter cell.D) Each daughter cell contains 24 separate chromatids. Since every two chromatids were originally joined, forming one homologous chromosome, the number of chromatids is divided by two to determine the number of chromosomes.
The following statement correctly describes the chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I: Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Each chromosome is one of a pair of homologous chromosomes from the parent cell, with the other homologue found in the other daughter cell.
Thus, the correct option is C.
Meiosis I is а type of cell division in which diploid pаrent cell give rise to four hаploid dаughter cells. The meiotic division is а chаrаcteristic of germ cells. Some of the chаrаcteristics of meiosis I аre:
The pаrent cell divides twice to give rise to four hаploid dаughter cells.The number of chromosomes in dаughter cells аre hаlf of the pаrent cell. Meiotic division tаkes plаce in reproductive cells.The dаughter cells consist of 12 chromosomes thаt аre composed of two chromаtids. The chromosome in the dаughter cell is а pаir of homologous chromosome from the pаrent cell. the other homologue is found in the other dаughter cell.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.
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Describe the change in the percentage of light colored moths and dark colored moths between 1850 and 1900. Please also explain the percentage change between 1950 and 2000.
Answer: Here you go!
Calculate the Kinetic energy of an object whose velocity doubles from the initial velocity of 2mls. Its mass is 5 kg.
Answer:
Kinetic energy(Ek)= 40JExplanation:
Greetings!!
given values:-initial velocity= 2m/s
mass(m)= 5kg
required value:-kinetic energy (Ek)= ?
solution:-First find the velocity. Thus, as mentioned in the problem the velocity is double than that of the initial velocity. so it will be 4m/s.
Now let's solve for the kinetic energy
recall the kinetic energy equation.
[tex]ek = \frac{1}{2} mv {}^{2} [/tex]substitute known variables into the equation.
[tex]ek = \frac{1}{2} (4)(5) {}^{2} [/tex]solve for kinetic energy
[tex]ek = 40.0j[/tex]If you have any questions or unclear ideas tag on comment
Hope it helps!!!
The Kinetic energy of an object whose velocity doubles from the initial velocity of 2mls. Its mass is 5 kg is 28 J.
How to find the kinetic energyThe initial kinetic energy of the object can be calculated as:
KE = 0.5 * m * v^2
where
m = 5 kg
v = 2 m/s
KE = 0.5 * 5 kg * (2 m/s)^2
KE = 4 J
After its velocity doubled, the kinetic energy can be calculated as:
KE = 0.5 * m * v^2
KE = 0.5 * 5 kg * (2 m/s * 2)^2
KE = 32 J
So the increase in kinetic energy is 32 J - 4 J = 28 J.
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Ecologists say that Earth is a CLOSED system for matter because:
Question 16 options:
matter is created in the biosphere
there is a net loss of matter from Earth
there frequently new inputs of matter
matter cycles through organisms in ecosystems
Ecologists say that Earth is a CLOSED system for matter because matter is created in the biosphere.
What do you mean by biosphere?The biosphere, also known as the ecosphere, is the worldwide sum of all ecosystems. It can also be termed the zone of life on Earth. The biosphere is virtually a closed system with regard to matter, with minimal inputs and outputs.
The biosphere is made up of the parts of Earth where life exists—all ecosystems. The biosphere extends from the deepest root systems of trees, to the dark environments of ocean trenches, to lush rain forests.
The biosphere is the region of the earth that encompasses all living organisms: plants, animals and bacteria. It is a feature that distinguishes the earth from the other planets in the solar system.
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In 2020, the black bear population in NJ was estimated to be 5,000 bears with about 3/5ths of those living in the northwest counties. On average, NJ black bears have a maximum life span of 10 years and female bears have 3 cubs per year with a 70% survival rate. In 2020, the Governor went against the guidance from the NJ Department of Environment Protection and stopped regulated bear hunting on public lands and in 2021 he cancelled all hunting of black bear in NJ. How would you expect the black bear population to respond to a total hunting ban?
Given that the black bear population in NJ was estimated to be 5,000 in 2020, a hunting ban could lead to an increase in the black bear population.
Why banning hunting is important?Without regulated hunting, the population may continue to grow, as there are fewer deaths due to hunting and an increase in the number of cubs surviving to adulthood. On average, female bears have 3 cubs per year with a 70% survival rate, so the number of bears could increase by 2.1 cubs per female per year.
However, there are limits to the black bear population growth, such as food availability and habitat loss. If the habitat can't support a larger population, the population growth may slow or the bears may start to move into areas with more resources, potentially leading to conflicts with humans.
Additionally, disease outbreaks can also impact the black bear population, regardless of hunting pressure.
In conclusion, while a hunting ban could lead to an increase in the black bear population, it is important to consider all the other factors that can impact the population to make accurate predictions.
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You have screened for several new recessive mutations in a species of wasp.
Wasps homozygous for apricot (aa) have pale orange eyes. (Wild-type eyes are brown.)
Wasps homozygous for blunt (bb) have short wings. (Wild-type wings are long.)
You make a pure-breeding double-mutant (apricot, blunt) line and cross it with wild-type wasps. The F1 is wild-type in appearance.
You testcross the F1 dihybrids with the double-mutant line (the "tester" genotype) and obtain four phenotypes in the testcross progeny:wild typeapricot, bluntapricotblunt
Determine the following for each phenotype in the testcross progeny:
the haploid genotype of the gamete it received from the F1 dihybrid
its full diploid genotype
whether the gamete it received from the F1 dihybrid was recombinant (REC) or nonrecombinant (nonREC).
Phenotype of wild type, Octopus phenotype, Appropriate examples of a blunt phenotypic include. Recessive mutations are gene changes that only manifest as a phenotype in individuals who are homozygous.
Genetic changes known as recessive mutations only manifest as phenotypes in individuals who carry two copies of the mutant allele. This contrasts with dominant mutations, which result in a phenotype even when the mutant allele is present in a single copy. Only when both parents have the mutant gene may a recessive mutation be transferred from parent to offspring. There is a 25% possibility that a child born to two carriers of a recessive mutation will carry two copies of the mutant allele and manifest the corresponding trait. Genetic illnesses including cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia, and other conditions can result from recessive mutations, which are significant for genetic study and have practical implications for human health and medicine.
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suppose you have a black male rabbit and a black female rabbit each has a dominant gene f for the black fur but the female also has a recessive gene f for white fur what are the chances for white Offspring when these two rabbits mate
If we have a black male rabbit and a black female rabbit each has a dominant gene f for the black fur but the female also has a recessive gene f for white fur then the chances for white offspring when these two rabbits mate is 25 percent.
What is the chance of obtaining recessive offspring from a heterozygous cross?The chance of obtaining recessive offspring from a heterozygous cross is 25 percent or 1/4 because it depends on the generation of two recessive gametes.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the likelihood of recessive offspring from a heterozygous cross is 25 percent.
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Which molecule is the monomer used to build polypeptides or protein polymers? Draw this molecule and label all five parts.
Lipids are a unique nutrient group, differing significantly from carbohydrates and proteins. All of the following are correct statements about lipids EXCEPT:A.) Lipids do not dissolve readily in water.B) Lipids yield more than twice as many kilocalories per gram as carbohydrates or proteins.C)Humans need very little fat in their diets to maintain health.D) Phospholipids are the most abundant type of lipids found in the body and in foods.
The information on lipids, carbs, and proteins in diets is incorrect; phospholipids are the most prevalent type of lipids present in the body.
What distinguishes lipids from other nutrients?Lipids do not form long sequences made up of identical or repeating smaller units like the other macromolecules do, nor are they soluble in water like the other macromolecules. Triglycerides, which are molecules that make up the fats you eat, are made up of three fatty acids bound to a glycerol.
Which of the following claims about lipids is untrue?The solution is d. Fatty acids are present in all lipids. Choice (d) is the claim that is untrue: "All lipids contain fatty acids." Fatty acid molecules are not present in all lipids.
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Answer: The information on lipids, carbs, and proteins in diets is incorrect; phospholipids are the most prevalent type of lipids present in the body.What distinguishes lipids from other nutrients?Lipids do not form long sequences made up of identical or repeating smaller units like the other macromolecules do, nor are they soluble in water like the other macromolecules. Triglycerides, which are molecules that make up the fats you eat, are made up of three fatty acids bound to a glycerol.Which of the following claims about lipids is untrue?The solution is d. Fatty acids are present in all lipids. Choice (d) is the claim that is untrue: "All lipids contain fatty acids." Fatty acid molecules are not present in all lipids.
Explanation:
Which of the following double stranded DNA molecules would maintain its double helical structure longer as temperature increases?A. A DNA molecule that has more guanine and cytosine nucleotidesB. Both DNA molecules would be equally stable under conditions of increasing temperatureC. A DNA molecule that has more adenine and thymine nucleotides
A. A DNA molecule that has more guanine and cytosine nucleotides of the following double stranded DNA molecules would maintain its double helical structure longer as temperature increases
Which DNA double helix bonds are the strongest?A-T base pairings contain two hydrogen bonds, compared to three for G-C base pairs. As a result, double-stranded DNA with more G-C base pairs will be stronger and more stable, and it will also have a higher melting point.
Van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonds between complementary organic bases (a base pair), and hydrophobic interactions between the nitrogenous bases and the surrounding water sheath all support the shape of the DNA helix.
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TRUE/FALSE. oral cavity breaks up food particles and starts enzymatic break down of sugars, proteins but not fatty acids.
False. The oral cavity does break up food particles, but it does not start the enzymatic breakdown of sugars, proteins, or fatty acids. This process is initiated by the digestive enzymes released in the stomach and small intestine.
What is enzymes?Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts in biochemical reactions. They speed up chemical reactions in the body, and are essential for life. Enzymes are involved in virtually every metabolic process, and are also involved in digestion, energy production, and the synthesis of new molecules. Enzymes are highly specific, meaning that they only work with certain molecules. Different enzymes have different functions and can be found in a variety of tissues, organs, and metabolic pathways. Enzymes typically require a specific pH and temperature range to work optimally, and can be affected by factors such as diet, medications, and even stress. Without enzymes, most biochemical processes would take too long to occur, making life impossible.
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In which of the following types of endocrine signaling is the hormone transported in the blood? Select all that apply. Paracrine signaling Autocrine signaling Classical endocrine signaling
Classical endocrine signaling is responsible for endocrine signaling is the hormone transported in the blood
In classical endocrine signaling, the hormone is transported in the blood.
Classical endocrine signaling involves the release of hormones from endocrine glands into the bloodstream, which then carries the hormone to target cells in other parts of the body. Hormones bind to specific receptors on the target cells and trigger a response.
In contrast, paracrine signaling involves the release of signaling molecules that act on nearby cells. These signaling molecules diffuse through the extracellular fluid and bind to receptors on nearby cells, but they do not enter the bloodstream.
Autocrine signaling is similar to paracrine signaling, but the signaling molecule acts on the same cell that produced it. Autocrine signaling molecules are released into the extracellular fluid and bind to receptors on the same cell.
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Complete the following sentences about the functional importance of floral structure with the correct terms. symmetry whorls reduction
pollinators secondary metabolites fruits
carpels organs petals developmental primary metabolites chloroplasts pigments sensory
Some important traits that influence the reproductive success of a flower include: the presence or absence of whorls, the fusion of organs to one another, and the overall symmetry of flowers. These traits are important because of their influence on attracting _____ In addition to structure and shape, different ____ can produce different colors in _____which also attract animals.
Another cue, fragrance, is also an effective attractant which uses _____ to get the attention of pollinators. Because human ______ systems are similar to other animals, we are also often attracted to particular flowers.
Some important traits that influence the reproductive success of a flower include: the presence or absence of petals, the fusion of carpels to one another, and the overall symmetry of flowers.
What is trait?A phenotypic trait is an evident, observable, and quantifiable property of an organism; it is the visible expression of genes. A phenotypic characteristic is anything like a particular hair color or eye color. A trait is a genetically determined attribute or condition. It is the trait inherited from the parent by the offspring.
Here,
These traits are important because of their influence on attracting pollinators. In addition to structure and shape, different pigments can produce different colors in petals which also attract animals. Another cue, fragrance, is also an effective attractant which uses secondary metabolites to get the attention of pollinators. Because human sensory systems are similar to other animals, we are also often attracted to particular flowers.
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true/false. contrast hydrogen bonds, electrostatic attractions, van der waal's attractions, and the hydrophobic force in terms of how and when they form and the role they play in cell biology.
False. Hydrogen bonds form between a positively charged hydrogen atom and a negatively charged atom of nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine, and play a role in maintaining the three-dimensional structure of biomolecules such as DNA and proteins .
Electrostatic attractions form between positive and negative ions, and play a role in maintaining the stability of ionic bonds in salts and other charged molecules.
Van der Waals attractions form between non-polar molecules as a result of temporary fluctuations in electron distribution, and play a role in the interaction between lipids and other biological molecules.
The hydrophobic force forms between non-polar molecules in an aqueous environment, causing them to group together and exclude water. This plays a role in the formation of cellular membranes and the partitioning of lipids and other hydrophobic molecules in cells.
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Which of the following is a characteristic that distinguishes viruses from bacteria cells?
One of the main characteristics that distinguishes viruses from bacterial cells is their size, viruses are smaller than bacteria, the largest being smaller than the tiniest. The correct answer A.
Additionally, viruses are not capable of cellular respiration and are not considered to be living organisms, whereas bacteria cells are alive and can reproduce on their own.
Viruses are composed of a single molecule of genetic material, either DNA or RNA, surrounded by a protein coat. They contain no cellular structures and are parasitic in nature, meaning that they rely on other cells for their replication.
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes viruses from bacterial cells?
A)Viruses are smaller than bacteria, with the largest being smaller than the tiniest.
B)They have only a protein coat and a nucleus of genetic material, either RNA or DNA.
C)Viruses, unlike bacteria, cannot survive without a host.
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How does natural selection impact competition?
Answer:
it decreases competition
Explanation:
for example, if there are too types of lizards in an area both competing for the same bugs but one breed of lizard can be more easily seen by predators, then those lizards are gonna get eaten, leaving the other lizard breed less competition for food
Which of the following statements about Ulva's haploid stage is true? A) Haploid cells produce gametes by meiosis. B) Haploid cells are produced by meiosis of diploid cells. C) Gametes of the same mating type fuse to produce a diploid zygote.
D) The haploid Ulva cells are genetically identical to their diploid parents.
The correct option b) Haploid cells are produced by meiosis of diploid cells.
Ulva alternates between a haploid gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte, two morphologically comparable multicellular adult stages. Haploid zoospores are produced by diploid sporophytes and become gametophytes. Gametophytes that generate haploid gametes are called
What is the haploid process?DNA replication occurs once in the parent cell, and then there are two independent cycles of nuclear division. Four haploid daughter cells are produced as a result of the procedure, meaning they each have half as many chromosomes as their diploid parent cell.
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Which statement shows why lethal genes can be maintained within a gene pool.
they can be passed on as recessive trait in a heterozygous individual
they are expressed before the individual reaches the age of reproduction
they are always dominant
they are only expressed in the female organism
They can be maintained in a gene pool by heterozygous carriers when the allele is recessive and the individuals reproduce.
What is a heterozygous example?If the two versions are different, you have a heterozygous genotype for that gene. For example, being heterozygous for hair color could mean you have one allele for red hair and one allele for brown hair. The relationship between the two alleles affects which traits are expressed.
Are heterozygous dominant or recessive?An organism with two dominant alleles for a trait is said to have a homozygous dominant genotype. Using the eye color example, this genotype is written BB. An organism with one dominant allele and one recessive allele is said to have a heterozygous genotype.
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Draw an illustration that supports some part of the cell theory
According to the cell theory, cells are the basic units of life, and structural and physiological unit of living beings. All living beings are made up of cells. The image can show an individual composed of tissues, and those tissues composed of cells, which are the basic units of life.
What is the cell theory?
The cell theory was first proposed by Schwann and Schleiden around 1830. After a few years, Virchow rejected that cells were originated from spontaneous generation and proposed they were the product of other pre-existing cells and originated by cellular division.
Currently, the cell theory states that
All living organisms are made up of cells.The cell is the structural and physiological unit of living beings.Cells are the basic units of reproduction, they originate from the division of pre-existing cells.The cell is the most basic independent unit of life.And the modern version of the theory adds a few more aspects,
Energy flows within cells.Cells transmit genetic material during cell division to daughter cellsThe chemical composition is basically the same in all cells.Your illustration can show the image of an individual (a person, for instance) composed of tissues, and those tissues made up of different cells (structural and physiological units).
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