The court case that set the precedent that there must be a connection between the curriculum and minimum competency examinations is:

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Answer 1

The court case that set the precedent that there must be a connection between the curriculum and minimum competency examinations is Debra P. v. Turlington.

The case was decided by the United States Court of Appeals for the Eleventh Circuit in 1984. In Debra P. v. Turlington, a group of Florida high school students challenged the state's minimum competency examinations program, arguing that it violated their right to equal protection under the law. The students claimed that the testing program was not connected to the state's curriculum and that it unfairly penalized students who had not received instruction on the topics covered by the test.

The court agreed with the students and held that there must be a "rational nexus" between the testing program and the state's curriculum. The court noted that the purpose of the testing program was to ensure that students had acquired the basic skills and knowledge necessary to function as citizens, and that this goal could only be achieved if the testing program was based on the state's curriculum.

The court's decision in Debra P. v. Turlington set an important precedent in the development of educational law in the United States. It established that minimum competency examinations must be connected to the curriculum and that states must ensure that all students have access to the instruction necessary to succeed on these exams. The decision also highlighted the importance of equal protection under the law in the context of education and helped to ensure that all students have equal opportunities to succeed in school.

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The court case that set the precedent that there must be a connection between the curriculum and minimum competency examinations is ___________


Related Questions

The doctrine which is applied when a defendant violates an existing statute intended to prevent the injury in question to persons of a class which includes the plaintiff is: Group of answer choices Negligence per se. Res ipsa loquitur. Proximate cause statute. Concurrent statutory violation.

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The doctrine that applies when a defendant violates an existing statute intended to prevent injury to persons of a class which includes the plaintiff is negligence per se.

This legal principle assumes that the defendant has acted negligently, and as a result, the plaintiff has been harmed. Negligence per se simplifies the process of establishing negligence by eliminating the need to prove that the defendant breached a duty of care owed to the plaintiff.
To establish negligence per se, the plaintiff must show that: (1) the defendant violated a statute; (2) the statute was designed to prevent the type of injury that occurred; (3) the plaintiff is a member of the class of persons the statute was designed to protect; and (4) the violation of the statute was the cause of the plaintiff's injury.
In summary, negligence per se is a doctrine that enables plaintiffs to recover damages when a defendant's violation of a statute results in injury to a person of a class that includes the plaintiff. It is a powerful tool in personal injury litigation that simplifies the process of proving negligence and facilitates the recovery of damages for injured parties.

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In contracts law, in general, the intent of the parties may be determined by evaluating what the parties said, how the parties acted, and:

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In contract law, the intent of the parties may be determined by evaluating what the parties said, how the parties acted, and other objective factors.

When interpreting a contract, courts will often look beyond the written terms of the agreement to determine what the parties intended to do. This may involve examining the context in which the contract was created, the conduct of the parties before and after the agreement was signed, and any other relevant circumstances. For example, if the contract refers to a specific piece of property, the court may consider the location and condition of the property at the time the contract was signed, as well as any discussions or negotiations that took place between the parties. In some cases, courts may also look to industry customs or practices to help determine the parties' intent. Ultimately, the goal is to discern the true meaning of the contract, and to enforce it in accordance with the parties' intentions.

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Courts can allow ______ evidence to ______ the missing parts, while not modifying the written agreement in any substantial way.

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Courts can allow extrinsic evidence to supplement the missing parts of a written agreement, while not modifying the written agreement in any substantial way.

Extrinsic evidence refers to any evidence that is not contained within the written agreement itself, such as tesbtimony from witnesses or prior communications between the parties involved. In situations where a written agreement is incomplete or ambiguous, extrinsic evidence may be used to clarify the intentions of the parties or to fill in any missing terms.
However, it is important to note that courts will only allow extrinsic evidence to supplement the written agreement, not to contradict or modify it in any substantial way. This means that the extrinsic evidence must be consistent with the terms of the written agreement, and cannot be used to change the meaning or interpretation of the agreement.
In order for extrinsic evidence to be admissible in court, it must meet certain criteria, such as being relevant to the dispute and being reliable and trustworthy. The court will carefully evaluate the extrinsic evidence to determine whether it is appropriate to use in interpreting the written agreement.
Overall, while extrinsic evidence can be useful in clarifying the terms of a written agreement, it is important to remember that it cannot be used to modify the agreement in any substantial way.

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A court renders a judgment which authorizes a lien to be placed against the defendant's house, car, and personal belongings. This is an example of a

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legal action taken to secure payment of a debt owed by the defendant. The lien creates a security interest in the defendant's assets and serves as collateral for the debt.

The creditor can then enforce the lien by seizing and selling the property if the defendant fails to pay the debt. Liens can be voluntary, such as when a borrower pledges property as collateral for a loan, or involuntary, such as when a court issues a judgment lien against a debtor's property. In this case, the court's judgment authorizing a lien against the defendant's house, car, and personal belongings is an example of an involuntary lien.

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An ex post facto law is Multiple Choice a criminal law that takes effect at some specified time in the future. a state criminal law that conflicts with a federal criminal law and is overruled by the federal law. a criminal law that is based on federal common law. a law that criminalizes an act that occurred before the law was enacted.

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An ex post facto law is a law that criminalizes an act that occurred before the law was enacted. This type of law is generally considered unjust and is prohibited by the United States Constitution in Article 1, Section 9 for federal laws, and in Article 1, Section 10 for state laws.

An ex post facto law is a law that retroactively changes the legal consequences of an action, making it illegal or subject to a greater punishment than it was at the time it was committed. The term "ex post facto" comes from Latin and means "from a thing done afterward".Such laws are generally considered unconstitutional because they violate the principle of fair notice and the right to due process. The U.S. Constitution explicitly prohibits the enactment of ex post facto laws in Article I, Section 9. This means that the government cannot pass a law that retroactively criminalizes conduct, increases the punishment for a crime after it has been committed, or deprives a person of a defense that was available at the time the crime was committed.

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A law makes it illegal to burn Bibles, but not other books, in public parks. How is this not consistent with the guarantees in the First Amendment

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The law making it illegal to burn Bibles, but not other books, in public parks, is not consistent with the guarantees in the First Amendment because it violates the principle of free speech and expression.

The First Amendment protects the right of individuals to express their beliefs and ideas without censorship or government interference. The law that specifically targets the burning of Bibles is discriminatory and selective, and it sends a message that certain religious beliefs are favoured over others.

This is a clear violation of the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment, which prohibits the government from promoting or endorsing any religion. Moreover, the law creates a chilling effect on free speech by discouraging individuals from expressing their opinions in a public setting. In conclusion, the law is unconstitutional and should be struck down as it violates the core principles of the First Amendment.

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pls help me this is question

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The c-r-i-m-e that was committed by Retired Police Swapang was that of murder.

How was this crime, murder ?

According to the Law, when an individual unlawfully ends another person's life with premeditated intent, it is classified as murder. Premeditated passion includes the intention of killing someone or causing grave bodily harm, or displaying careless disregard for human life that poses a severe and unnecessary risk.

The former Police Swapang fired his gun at Mr. Swabe resulting in his death. It can be deduced from the circumstance that he first discharged his firearm before taking aim at Mr. Swabe, implying that he was conscious of his actions and intended to shoot him.

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if both parties are mistaken as to a material fact concerning the contract they are entering, the court may later allow the affected party to avoid the contract.

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When both parties to a contract are mistaken about a material fact, it can result in a situation where the contract is voidable.

A material fact is a fact that is significant and would have affected the decision-making process of one or both parties in entering into the contract. For example, if both parties were under the impression that a product being sold was made in the USA, but it turned out to be made in a foreign country, this could be considered a material fact that would have affected their decision-making process.
In such a situation, the affected party may be able to avoid the contract. Avoidance of the contract means that the contract is treated as if it never existed. The affected party would be relieved of any obligations under the contract and would be entitled to any benefits or payments made under the contract.
However, it is important to note that not all mistakes will result in avoidance of the contract. The mistake must be a material fact that is significant enough to affect the decision-making process of the parties. Additionally, the mistake must be mutual, meaning that both parties were under the same mistaken belief. If only one party was mistaken, the contract may still be enforceable.
In summary, when both parties are mistaken as to a material fact concerning the contract, it may result in avoidance of the contract by the affected party. However, the mistake must be a significant material fact and must be mutual for the contract to be voidable.

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money that is provided by the defendant to ensure his or her appearance in court is referred to as Quizlet

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The term that refers to money provided by the defendant to ensure their appearance in court is known as bail.

A bail is a form of security that is typically set by the court to ensure that the defendant appears for all their court hearings and does not flee from the legal system. The amount of bail can vary based on the severity of the crime and the flight risk of the defendant.

Once the defendant has met all the conditions of their bail agreement and has appeared for all their court hearings, the bail money is typically returned to them. However, if the defendant fails to meet their bail conditions, the bail may be forfeited and the defendant may be arrested and taken into custody.

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If a defendant requests a three-week continuance, this delay does not affect the time limits required for a speedy trial. true false

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It depends on the jurisdiction and the specific circumstances of the case. In some jurisdictions, a defendant's request for a continuance may toll or pause the time limits for a speedy trial, while in others it may not. Additionally, the length of the continuance and the reasons for the request may also be factors that are taken into consideration when determining whether the speedy trial clock is still running. It's important to consult the specific laws and rules of the jurisdiction in question to determine how a request for a continuance may impact the speedy trial timeline.

The statement is false. A continuance refers to a postponement or delay in the trial proceedings.

When a defendant requests a three-week continuance, the time limits required for a speedy trial are indeed affected.

The Sixth Amendment of the United States Constitution guarantees a defendant the right to a speedy trial. The time limits for a speedy trial vary from state to state, but typically range from 60 to 90 days.

If a defendant requests a continuance, the time clock for a speedy trial is paused during the period of delay. Thus, the total time for a speedy trial may be extended to accommodate the defendant's request for a continuance.

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Which clause in the Constitution mandates that each state respects and enforces licenses and legal actions of other states

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The clause in the Constitution that mandates that each state respects and enforces licenses and legal actions of other states is the Full Faith and Credit Clause.

The Full Faith and Credit Clause is found in Article IV, Section 1 of the U.S. Constitution. It requires that each state give full faith and credit to the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of every other state. This means that a legal action taken in one state, such as a court ruling or a marriage license, must be recognized as valid and enforceable in all other states.

The Full Faith and Credit Clause ensures that citizens are not able to evade legal obligations simply by moving to another state. It also prevents states from discriminating against out-of-state residents by denying them rights or benefits that are available to in-state residents.

However, there are some exceptions to the Full Faith and Credit Clause. For example, a state can refuse to recognize a judgment from another state if it violates the public policy of the second state, such as a judgment allowing underage marriage or polygamy.

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Courts seldom consider _____, meaning that courts usually do no determine whether a contracting party made a good bargain.

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Courts seldom consider the issue of substantive fairness in contract disputes, meaning that they usually do not determine whether a contracting party made a good bargain.

Rather, the courts generally focus on the objective elements of a contract such as the terms, conditions, and intentions of the parties. They do not get into the subjective considerations of whether the parties were on equal footing in negotiating the contract or whether one party took advantage of the other.
The doctrine of freedom of contract is deeply ingrained in common law jurisdictions, which means that individuals are generally free to enter into contracts on any terms they see fit as long as they do not contravene public policy or are otherwise illegal. As such, courts tend to view contracts as a matter of voluntary agreement between parties, and they do not intervene to scrutinize the fairness of the deal that was struck.
There are, of course, exceptions to this general rule. For example, in cases where one party has a significant bargaining power advantage over the other, or where there is fraud, duress, or undue influence, a court may declare a contract to be unconscionable and set it aside. Nonetheless, as a general principle, the courts tend to defer to the autonomy of the parties in contractual relations, and they do not concern themselves with whether one party made a "good" or "bad" deal.

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Consequential damages are ______ damages that result from special facts and circumstances arising outside the contract itself.

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Answer:

forseeable

Explanation:

Consequential damages are indirect damages that result from special facts and circumstances arising outside the contract itself.

Consequential refers to the outcomes or results that follow a particular action or decision. In ethics, consequentialism is the view that the morality of an action should be judged solely by its consequences. It holds that the end justifies the means, and the consequences of an action are what ultimately determine its moral value. Consequentialism stands in contrast to other ethical theories, such as deontology, which prioritize the moral rules or duties that govern an action, regardless of its outcomes. In practical terms, consequential thinking involves weighing the potential outcomes of different options and choosing the course of action that is likely to produce the best overall results.

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Nashville, Tennessee, passes an ordinance to regulate waste disposal. The disposal of waste may also be regulated by

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A detailed answer to your question is that while Nashville, Tennessee may pass an ordinance to regulate waste disposal within its city limits, waste disposal may also be regulated by other entities.

For example, the state of Tennessee may have its own regulations regarding waste disposal, as well as federal regulations set forth by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). Additionally, certain types of waste, such as hazardous waste, may be subject to specialized regulations and requirements.

To provide a long answer, waste disposal is a complex issue that involves various factors, including public health, environmental protection, and economic considerations. Waste can take many forms, such as solid waste, hazardous waste, medical waste, and electronic waste, and each type of waste may require specific methods of disposal to prevent harm to people and the environment.

To regulate waste disposal, local governments may establish ordinances that set rules for how waste should be collected, transported, and disposed of within their jurisdiction. For example, Nashville's waste disposal ordinance may require residents and businesses to use certain types of waste containers or to separate recyclable materials from non-recyclable waste.

However, these local regulations are often supplemented by state and federal regulations that set minimum standards for waste disposal. For instance, the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation oversees the state's solid waste program, which includes regulations for landfill operations, waste reduction, and recycling. Meanwhile, the EPA regulates hazardous waste under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), which establishes rules for how hazardous waste must be handled, transported, and disposed of.

In summary, waste disposal can be regulated by multiple entities, and regulations can vary depending on the type of waste and the location where it is generated. A comprehensive understanding of waste disposal regulations requires an explanation of the different types of waste and the regulatory agencies involved, as well as an in-depth analysis of specific regulations that apply to a particular situation.

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If a case involves __________ questions, the Supreme Court can review it whether from a federal court or a highest state court.

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If a case involves federal law questions or constitutional questions, the Supreme Court can review it whether from a federal court or the highest state court.

This is due to the fact that the Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the Constitution and federal laws and ensure that they are applied uniformly across the country. Therefore, any case that presents a question related to the interpretation of federal law or the Constitution can potentially be reviewed by the Supreme Court. However, the Court has discretion over which cases it chooses to hear and only accepts a small percentage of cases presented to it each year.

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Under the law, what 4 expectations must the school system seek to fulfill for special education students

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Under the law, the school system is required to fulfill four expectations for special education students.

These expectations are known as the "Four Pillars of Special Education." The first expectation is that the school system must provide special education students with a Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPE). This means that the school must provide students with an individualized education program (IEP) that meets their unique needs and is designed to help them achieve academic success.
The second expectation is that the school system must provide special education students with an education in the Least Restrictive Environment (LRE). This means that students should be educated with their non-disabled peers to the greatest extent possible, and only removed from the general education classroom when necessary.
The third expectation is that the school system must provide special education students with appropriate accommodations and modifications to help them succeed in the classroom. These accommodations may include assistive technology, specialized instruction, or modifications to assignments and assessments.
The fourth and final expectation is that the school system must involve parents in the special education process. Parents have the right to be informed about their child's progress, participate in IEP meetings, and provide input on their child's education. Overall, these four expectations are crucial in ensuring that special education students receive the support they need to achieve academic success and reach their full potential.

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Trial courts in the federal system are called: Trial courts in the federal system are called: U.S. Circuit Courts U.S. Supreme Court U.S. Courts of Appeals U.S. District Courts

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Trial courts in the federal system are called U.S. District Courts. These courts are responsible for hearing cases that involve federal law or disputes between parties from different states.

The U.S. District Courts are the lowest level of federal courts, and they are located in different regions throughout the United States. When a decision from a U.S. District Court is appealed, it is sent to the U.S. Courts of Appeals, which are the intermediate level of the federal court system. The U.S. Supreme Court is the highest level of the federal court system and is responsible for hearing appeals from the U.S. Courts of Appeals and making final decisions on important legal issues.

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A landowner and the government agree upon a Habitat Conservation Plan before the landowner begins development of a subdivision. What law is the landowner complying with

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The landowner is likely to comply with the Endangered Species Act (ESA) by agreeing to a Habitat Conservation Plan (HCP) before beginning the development of a subdivision.

The Endangered Species Act is a federal law in the United States that aims to protect endangered and threatened species and their habitats. Under the ESA, it is illegal to harm, harass, or kill any endangered or threatened species or to destroy or modify their habitats. The law applies to both public and private lands.

To comply with the ESA, landowners may enter into an HCP with the government, which outlines the steps the landowner will take to minimize or mitigate the impact of their development on endangered or threatened species and their habitats. In exchange, the government may issue a permit allowing the landowner to proceed with their development.

HCPs are typically developed in consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or the National Marine Fisheries Service, which are responsible for enforcing the ESA. By entering into an HCP, the landowner can ensure compliance with the ESA while still being able to develop their land.

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What are some of the pros/cons of each of the four correctional ideologies?

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There are four main correctional ideologies: rehabilitation, deterrence, incapacitation, and retribution. Each of these ideologies has its own set of pros and cons, as outlined below:

1. Rehabilitation:
Pros:
- Rehabilitation aims to address the root causes of criminal behavior and help offenders reintegrate into society.
- It can reduce recidivism rates and prevent future crimes.
- It is based on the principle of individualized treatment, which takes into account the unique needs and circumstances of each offender.

Cons:
- Rehabilitation programs can be expensive and time-consuming.
- There is no guarantee that rehabilitation programs will be effective for all offenders.
- Critics argue that rehabilitation can be too lenient and fail to hold offenders accountable for their actions.

2. Deterrence:
Pros:
- Deterrence aims to prevent crime by punishing offenders and sending a message to others that crime will not be tolerated.
- It can be cost-effective, as it does not require extensive rehabilitation programs.
- It is based on the principle of swift and certain punishment, which can be a powerful deterrent.

Cons:
- Deterrence may not be effective for all offenders, especially those who are impulsive or have substance abuse issues.
- Critics argue that deterrence can be too harsh and fail to take into account the underlying causes of criminal behavior.
- There is debate over whether the threat of punishment is a strong enough deterrent to prevent crime.

3. Incapacitation:
Pros:
- Incapacitation aims to protect society by removing dangerous offenders from the community.
- It can be effective in preventing repeat offenses by high-risk offenders.
- It is based on the principle of public safety, which is a primary goal of the criminal justice system.

Cons:
- Incapacitation can be expensive, especially for long-term sentences or for the elderly or sick.
- Critics argue that incapacitation can be too harsh and fail to address the underlying causes of criminal behavior.
- Overreliance on incapacitation can lead to overcrowded prisons and strain on the criminal justice system.

4. Retribution:
Pros:
- Retribution aims to punish offenders in proportion to their crimes and to provide a sense of justice to victims and society.
- It can be based on the principle of desert, which holds that offenders deserve to be punished for their crimes.
- Retribution can be seen as a necessary aspect of a just and fair criminal justice system.

Cons:
- Retribution can be too harsh and fail to take into account the individual circumstances and needs of offenders.
- There is debate over whether retribution is an effective deterrent to crime.
- Overreliance on retribution can lead to a punitive and harsh criminal justice system that does not prioritize rehabilitation or prevention.

Overall, each of these four correctional ideologies has its own strengths and weaknesses, and there is ongoing debate over which approach is most effective in reducing crime and promoting public safety.

A small city has decided that members of a group must register in order to approach people asking for signatures against the building of a local oil refinery. The group says that this violates their First Amendment rights and files a lawsuit against the city. Since this argument involves interpreting the Constitution, what court will the case MOST likely end up in

Answers

The case will most likely end up in a federal court, such as the United States District Court, as it involves a constitutional issue regarding the First Amendment rights.


The case involving a group's First Amendment rights and the requirement to register before asking for signatures against a local oil refinery will MOST likely end up in the federal court system. This is because the argument involves interpreting the U.S. Constitution, which falls under the jurisdiction of federal courts. The case may start at the federal district court level and could potentially be appealed to a U.S. Court of Appeals and ultimately, the Supreme Court, if necessary.

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What reason did the U.S. Supreme Court provide for authorizing a search of a motor home with probable cause, but no warrant, in California v Carney (1985)

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The U.S. Supreme Court authorized a search of a motor home with probable cause, but no warrant, in California v Carney (1985) due to the mobility of the vehicle and the reduced expectation of privacy in such vehicles.

In California v Carney (1985), the U.S. Supreme Court held that a warrantless search of a motor home was permissible under the Fourth Amendment's search and seizure clause.

The court determined that the motor home was highly mobile and readily capable of leaving the jurisdiction, and the reduced expectation of privacy in such vehicles justified the warrantless search. The court further stated that the reasonable expectation of privacy of individuals in motor homes is less than in a fixed dwelling.

The decision provided law enforcement officials with more latitude in conducting warrantless searches of vehicles, particularly those that are highly mobile.

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__________ can best be defined as the process through which a defendant pleads guilty to a criminal charge with the expectation of receiving some benefit from the state.

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The term you are referring to is commonly known as plea bargaining.

A detailed answer to this question would explain that plea bargaining is a negotiation process between a defendant and the prosecution, in which the defendant agrees to plead guilty to a criminal charge in exchange for a reduction in charges, a lighter sentence, or some other benefit from the state.

This process can save time and resources for both parties, as it avoids the need for a full trial. However, it has also been criticized for leading to unfair outcomes and contributing to a "guilty until proven innocent" mentality in the justice system. A long answer would delve further into the history and controversies surrounding plea bargaining, and discuss some of the arguments for and against its use in criminal cases.


The process through which a defendant pleads guilty to a criminal charge with the expectation of receiving some benefit from the state can best be defined as "plea bargaining." In plea bargaining, the defendant agrees to plead guilty in exchange for a more lenient sentence or a reduction in charges. This process typically involves negotiation between the prosecution and defense to reach a mutually acceptable agreement.

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Which statement best describes both the positive and negative effects
lobbyists have on the democratic process?
O A. Lobbyists give small groups a voice in U.S. politics but may
influence lawmakers to support policies that do not benefit the
public in general.
O B. Lobbyists make the role of money in politics more transparent but
allow the majority to more easily deny rights to vulnerable minority
groups.
C. Lobbyists help voters learn more about candidates for office, but
prevent third parties from successfully challenging the two-party
system.
D. Lobbyists help political leaders spread their messages to voters,
but rely heavily on donations from corporations and super PACS.

Answers

A. Lobbyists provide a platform for small groups to become part of U.S. politics, yet their sway may cause legislators to back policies that do not offer collective gain.

How to find the best description

Option A accurately characterizes both the upside and downside of lobbyists on participatory democracy. On one hand, they can give smaller factions representation in legislative matters, allowing them to express concerns and participate in governmental deliberations.

Nevertheless, the detrimental consequence is that lobbyists may endeavor to push measures that are contrary to more universal interests, yet benefit those actors and organizations they address or serve.

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In determining what constitutes due process (as guaranteed by the Fourteenth Amendment) for litigants in state courts, what approach proposes additional rights, such as the right to clean air and clean water

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The answer to the question is that the approach that proposes additional rights, such as the right to clean air and clean water, is the substantive due process approach.

This approach holds that certain fundamental rights are guaranteed by the Constitution and cannot be taken away by the government without a compelling reason. The explanation for this approach is that it recognizes that due process is not only about the procedures used in court, but also about the substance of the laws themselves. Therefore, litigants in state courts have a right to clean air and clean water as part of their due process rights under the Fourteenth Amendment.

Substantive Due Process involves the interpretation of the Fourteenth Amendment to include rights not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. This approach considers certain fundamental rights, such as the right to clean air and clean water, as essential for individuals and therefore protected by the Due Process Clause.

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In Griswold v. Connecticut, the Supreme Court upheld a married couple's right to use contraceptives based on a. the First Amendment. b. the Fourteenth Amendment. c. the necessary and proper clause of the Constitution. d. Roe v. Wade. e. a right to privacy.

Answers

In Griswold v. Connecticut, the Supreme Court upheld a married couple's right to use contraceptives based on the right to privacy.

The court ruled that this right was implicit in the Bill of Rights and was necessary to protect other fundamental rights, such as the First Amendment's guarantee of freedom of association. The case centered around a Connecticut law that criminalized the use of contraceptives, which the court found to be a violation of the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. The court argued that the state's interest in regulating contraception did not outweigh the individual's right to privacy. The decision in Griswold was a significant development in the expansion of constitutional privacy rights, paving the way for later landmark cases like Roe v. Wade. While Griswold did not explicitly mention a constitutional right to reproductive autonomy, it recognized a broader right to privacy that would come to encompass such issues. Overall, Griswold affirmed the importance of individual autonomy and privacy in the face of state regulation, and established a precedent for protecting fundamental rights not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

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8. What is the fixed duration of RECLUSION PERPETUA and its retaining the nature of periods regardless of any mitigating or aggravating circumstances? Identiy the fixed Duration of penalty and its nature of indivisibility. ( 10 Points )

9. Raul premeditated killed Alfredo by shooting him with the used of Caliber .45 pistol an unlicensed firearm. What crimes did Raul committed? Is the penalty of unlicensed firearm can be used as aggravating circumstances only? ( 10 POINTS )

10. Marivic Catapang an accused was charged of Parricide by killing his Husband Boy Tamad, The former anchored her defense on the theory of Battered Woman Syndrome (BWS) However, the court finds that accused used defense were not characterized by BWS as batterer did not created cycles of violence based on records. What constitutes why accused unabled to be exempted from criminal liability under Battered Woman Syndrome? Explain ( 10 Points)

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The fixed duration of reclusion perpetua is 40 years, and it retains the nature of periods regardless of any mitigating or aggravating circumstances. Reclusion perpetua is a penalty of imprisonment for a period of 20 years and 1 day to 40 years.

Raul committed the crimes of murder and illegal possession of firearms. Murder is the unlawful killing of a person with malice aforethought, and the penalty for murder is reclusion perpetua to death. Illegal possession of firearms is a crime that carries a penalty of imprisonment ranging from 6 years and 1 day to 12 years.

The penalty for unlicensed firearms possession can be used as either a mitigating or aggravating circumstance, depending on the circumstances of the case. Mitigating circumstances can lower the penalty for a crime while aggravating circumstances can increase the penalty.

Battered Woman Syndrome (BWS) can be used as a defence in cases of domestic violence where the defendant acted in self-defence. However, in Marivic Catapang's case, the court found that the defence of BWS was not applicable because the accused did not exhibit the characteristic cycle of violence that defines BWS.

To qualify for the defence of BWS, the accused must show that they have been subjected to a pattern of physical, sexual, or psychological abuse from their partner, resulting in learned helplessness and the belief that they cannot escape the abuse. If the accused does not meet the requirements for BWS, they cannot be exempted from criminal liability.

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Sometimes, in special situations, the entire circuit court's bench will sit together for a case. What is this called

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This practice, known as sitting “en banc” is most often used to reconsider a case already decided by a three-judge panel

When PaperPlanet starts building a new factory in the town of Smallville, Idaho, a group of Smallville citizens sues PaperPlanet in Idaho state court on behalf of residents who will likely suffer respiratory damage due to increased pollution. The court will likely dismiss the suit because

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The answer to why the court will likely dismiss the suit is that PaperPlanet has not yet started operations in the town of Smallville and therefore, the alleged harm has not yet occurred.

Additionally, the court may also consider that the group of Smallville citizens does not have standing to sue on behalf of residents who have not yet suffered harm. This explanation is based on the legal principle that a lawsuit must have actual and concrete harm to be considered by the court.

In order for a lawsuit to proceed, the plaintiffs must have legal standing, which means they must have suffered or will suffer an actual injury that can be addressed by a legal remedy. In this case, the group of Smallville citizens might not have demonstrated sufficient evidence of actual harm to the residents due to increased pollution, leading the court to dismiss the suit.

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The United States legal system is _________________________ derived from the English tradition of judge-made law. In this system of laws precedence or stare decisis is of utmost importance

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Answer:

Explanation:

Yes, that's correct. The United States legal system is common law-based and is derived from the English tradition of judge-made law. Precedent, also known as stare decisis, is of utmost importance in this system of laws. Stare decisis is a Latin term that means "to stand by things decided." It is the principle that courts should follow the decisions of previous courts on similar issues. Once a court has made a decision on a legal issue, that decision becomes a binding precedent that lower courts must follow in similar cases. This principle of stare decisis creates a system of legal predictability and stability, as judges can rely on established legal principles to make decisions.

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The United States legal system is derived from the English tradition of judge-made law. This means that many of the foundational principles and structures of the American legal system were adopted from English law, including the importance of legal precedent and stare decisis.

It is important to note that the American legal system has evolved over time and has incorporated other legal traditions and influences beyond just English law. However, the English legal system provided the initial framework for the development of the American legal system, and many fundamental legal concepts such as due process, trial by jury, and the right to appeal, were borrowed from English law.

Additionally, the principle of stare decisis, or the reliance on past legal decisions to guide future cases, has been a cornerstone of both the English and American legal systems. This means that once a legal precedent has been established in a particular case, it is generally followed in subsequent cases with similar facts or legal issues. This helps to ensure consistency and predictability in the legal system.

Overall, the United States legal system has deep roots in the English legal tradition, and the principle of stare decisis continues to play a critical role in shaping American law.

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1. Pam (a citizen of Nebraska) sued Don (a citizen of Minnesota) and Max (a citizen of Idaho) in an Idaho state court, seeking $100,000 in damages for negligence under Idaho law. Don and Max timely removed the case to the U.S. District Court for the District of Idaho, invoking diversity of citizenship subject matter jurisdiction. Pam timely filed a motion to remand the case to Idaho state court. Should the court grant the motion

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The court should grant Pam's motion to remand the case back to Idaho state court.

While there is diversity of citizenship between the parties, which would normally give the federal court jurisdiction over the case, the fact that Pam has sued both Don and Max in the same lawsuit means that there is also a question of whether the court has proper "joinder" of parties.
Under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, a plaintiff cannot simply join multiple defendants in a lawsuit unless there is some connection between their actions or claims. Here, Pam is suing Don and Max for negligence under Idaho law, but it is not clear whether their actions are related or whether they should be held liable jointly or separately. This presents a potential problem for the federal court, which may not have the authority to hear the case if the joinder is improper.
In addition, because Pam is a citizen of Nebraska and the case was originally filed in an Idaho state court, there may be some question as to whether the case should have been removed to a federal court in Nebraska instead of Idaho. This further complicates the jurisdictional issues in the case and supports the argument that it should be remanded to state court.
Overall, while there is diversity of citizenship in this case, the potential joinder and jurisdictional issues suggest that it would be appropriate for the court to grant Pam's motion to remand.

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