The following communications by the parent which support this diagnosis of is suspected bulimia nervosa include the following:
“My child ate a large container of chocolate ice cream in one evening.”“My child frequently leaves the table during meals to go to the bathroom".“The dentist informed me that my child’s tooth enamel is wearing away".What is Bulimia nervosa?This is referred to an eating disorder which is characterized by acts of binging. This usually leads to weight gain as a result of the intake of a high number of calories by affected individuals.
The individual will most likely eat a lot of junk foods or snacks such as chocolate etc which is why the options above are the most appropriate choices for its diagnosis in this type of scenario.
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1. What is causing the pain in the upper epigastric region ? what barrier(s) normally protect the stomach lining from its own acid?
When providing atraumatic care to a child which action would be the most appropriate?
When providing atraumatic care to a child the most appropriate action could be allowing parents and children an informed choice about being together.
Atraumatic care is a care approach that removes or reduces the psychological and physical disorder suffered by children and their families.
The procedures applied may induce anxiety, despair, obscurity, fear and loss of control in the child and the family.
Atraumatic care is based on the principle of avoiding harm.
To care for pediatric patients, we could implement the following actions:
Let Them Warm up to You.Make the Environment Comfortable.Communicate on Their Level.Walk Them Through the Appointment.Use Appropriate Terms.Body Language.Engage the ParentsTo learn more about atraumatic pediatric care, here
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You are an epidemiologist studying an emerging disease reported over the past three years in Wisconsin, Minnesota, and Michigan. You have noticed a seasonal pattern of disease, with new cases appearing in late April through September and peaking in July. No new cases appear during late fall or the winter months. This pattern is suggestive of __________.
This pattern is suggestive of disease transmission by an arthropod vector, such as a mosquito or tick.
Arthropod vectors include mosquitoes, flies, midges, ticks, mites, fleas, bed bugs, lice, and other arthropods that carry and transmit disease-causing organisms or pathogens from one host to another. Vector-borne diseases are infections transmitted by the bite of infected arthropod species such as mosquitoes, ticks, triatomine bugs, sand flies, and black flies. Arthropod vectors are cold-blooded (ectothermic) and therefore particularly sensitive to climatic factors. Arthropods transmit the parasites either by injecting them into the host's bloodstream directly through their salivary glands, or by driving the parasites into the pool of blood that develops when the skin is chewed.
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A Phase 1/2 Study of a Respiratory Syncytial Virus Prefusion F Vaccine With and Without Adjuvant in Healthy Older Adults
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is an important cause of disease in older adults.
Safety and immunogenicity of a stabilized RSV prefusion F subunit (RSVpreF) vaccine candidate with/without adjuvant in adults 65 - 85 years.
What are the results of Study of a Respiratory Syncytial Virus ?All RSVpreF vaccine candidates elicited robust and persistent serum neutralizing responses when administered alone or with SIIV.
There was no notable difference in neutralizing response between the formulations, including those containing CpG. In the Month 0,2 Cohort, there was no booster effect of dose 2. SIIV responses were similar or slightly lower with concomitant administration of RSVpreF. Most systemic and local reactions were mild and more frequent after RSVpreF than placebo.Learn more about Respiratory Syncytial Virus here:
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One of the most effective strategies for resisting drugs is simply to?
One of the most effective strategies for resisting drugs is simply to avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
What is drug resistance?Drug resistance can simply be defined as the reduction in effectiveness of a medication such as an antimicrobial or an antineoplastic in treating a particulat disease or condition at a given period of time.
Drugs are substances used to treat an illness, relieve a symptom, or modify a chemical process in the body for a specific purpose.
So therefore, one of the most effective and simplest strategies for resisting drugs is simply to avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
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The city aquarium got a new tank for their dolphins. The tank is 16 feet high with a radius of 28 feet. Answer these questions about the new dolphin tank. Approximately how much water will it take to fill the tank
The water tank is 39388.16 [tex]ft^{3}[/tex].
Given,
H=16ft, R=28ft.
Water holding capacity of the water tank is π[tex]R^{2} H[/tex]= π*[tex]28^{2} *16[/tex]=39388.16 [tex]ft^{3}[/tex]
Water tankAn object used to store water is a water tank.
Water tanks are used to store water for use in many different applications, including drinking water, irrigated agriculture, fire suppression, agricultural farming, both for plants and cattle, chemical manufacture, food preparation, and many other uses. General tank design, material selection for construction, and linings are all water tank factors. To construct a water tank, a variety of materials are utilized, including steel, fiberglass, concrete, stone, and polymers (polyethylene and polypropylene) (welded or bolted,[citation needed] carbon, or stainless). Water can also be kept in earthen jars like the matki used in South Asia. To help underdeveloped nations preserve clean water, water tanks are an effective solution.
The city aquarium got a new tank for their dolphins. The tank is 16 feet high with a radius of 28 feet. Answer these questions about the new dolphin tank. Approximately how much water will it take to fill the water tank.
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Can the pupillary response be inhibited?
The pupillary response may be inhibited by problems with the photomotor reflex and/or specialized drugs.
What does pupillary reaction mean?The pupillary light reflex or photomotor reflex is part of a standard neurological examination. It evaluates the constriction reflex of the pupil, called miosis, in view of the incidence of direct light in the eye to be tested.
With this information, we can conclude that Pupillary response varies the size of the pupil of the eye via the iris dilator muscle, which dilates in response to a stressor.
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Which nutrient should all women of childbearing age consume in adequate amounts to reduce the risk of birth defects
All women of childbearing age should consume folic acid in adequate amounts to reduce the risk of birth defects.
Folic acid should be taken in adequate amounts along with food during childbearing age. Folic acid helps in the prevention of some major neural tube defects of the baby, mainly those defects of the baby's spine or brain.
Anencephaly can be caused in which the formation of baby's skull and brain does not take place correctly. Spina bifida is also a serious birth defect in which the formation of the spine does not occur correctly.
Women of childbearing age should consume 400 micrograms of folic acid each day in order to remain healthy and thereby reduce the risk of birth defects.
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most sports nutrition experts recommend at least ____ to____ grams of high-quality protein within the first 1 or 2 hours after exercise to maximize protein synthesis.
Most sports nutrition experts recommend at least 20 to 25 grams of high-quality protein within the first 1 or 2 hours after exercise to maximize protein synthesis.
The stimulation of muscle protein is mainly stimulated by the resistance workout and ingestion of protein. Protein intake is essential to maintain the nitrogen balance in the body. Protein recommended by the International Society of Sports Nutrition emphasizes on consuming egg protein, soy protein isolate, and milk-based whey protein to receive the essential amino acids in the body. Such proteins will be utilized by the muscles immediately to regulate the nitrogen balance in the body. Muscles are most sensitive after a workout and protein consumption post-exercise would boost protein synthesis and muscle recovery.
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hen assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the prob
Medical history
To better understand the patient's health and determine whether any recent complaints are related to it, you should ask the patient for a medical history. This will help you arrive at a diagnosis.
What is Medical history ?A doctor can learn about a patient's medical history, case history, or anamnesis (from the Greek words v, aná, "open," and mnesis, "memory") by asking particular questions.
A file containing details on a person's health. In a personal medical history, details concerning ailments, operations, vaccines, and the outcomes of physical examinations and tests may be included. Information on medications taken as well as health practises like diet and exercise may also be included.Learn more about Medical history here:
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The implementation of nutritional counseling for pregnant women best represents which public health strategy
The implementation of nutritional counseling for pregnant women best represents Active Primary Prevention.
What is primary prevention?Prevention includes a wide range of activities (interventions) which are aimed at reducing risks or threats to health.There are three categories of prevention: primary, secondary and tertiary.Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs. This is done by preventing exposures to hazards that cause disease or injury, altering unhealthy or unsafe behaviors that can lead to disease or injury.It includes measures that a patient can take to avoid some diseases. These include hand washing, immunization, birth control and condoms, etc.Passive prevention strategies are those that do not require action by an individual for protection to occur; individuals are automatically protected. E.g.: Airbags in carsActive prevention strategies are those that require individual action for the intervention to be effective. E.g.: Wearing seat belt, nutritional counsellingLearn more about prevention here:
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The nurse is caring for a client with chronic pancreatitis. Which meal should the nurse recommend when assisting the client in selecting food items from a menu
Baked tilapia with lemon wedge, sweet potatoes, and green peas is the best food which should be recommended for a patient with chronic pancreatitis.
What is Pancreatitis?This is referred to a medical condition which is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas.
The appropriate food sources are the ones with low fat protein such as tilapia, peas etc.
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What instruction should the nurse give a client who is diagnosed with fibrocystic changes of the breast
Every month, perform a breast self-exam (BSE). This is the instruction given by the nurse for diagnosed with fibrocystic changes of the breast.
What is breast self-exam?Breast self-examination is a screening technique used to try and find breast cancer early on. The woman herself examines and feels each breast to check for any potential lumps, deformities, or swelling.Right shoulder should be supported by a pillow, as should your right arm behind your head. Gently wrap your left hand's finger pads around your right breast, covering the entire breast and armpit region. Apply gentle, moderate, and hard pressure. Squeeze the nipple and feel for lumps and discharge.By feeling for lumps or other changes, a person can examine their own breasts. Self-examinations of the breasts can teach a person how they typically feel and appear and help them recognize when changes take place.Learn more about breast self-exam here:
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Approximately how many grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult who is not an athlete? (Tip: One kilogram = 2.2 pounds.)
Approximately 66 grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult.
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA):
The average daily dietary nutrient intake level which is sufficient to fulfill the nutrient needs of nearly all (97-98 %) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.
Protein needs depend on a number of factors, such as:
weight and composition of the body (increased muscle mass)Level of physical activityEnergy and carbohydrates intake of an individualDisease or injury present (e.g. recovering from trauma or operation)Rate of growth for the person (e.g. greater during childhood )Estimated protein requirements in accordance with US and Canadian Dietary Reference Intake recommendations:
46 grams of protein per day for women between the ages of 19 and 70. (based on 57.5 kg individual).56 grams of protein per day for men ages 19 to 70. (based on 70kg individual).Learn more about Protein here :
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After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented
The priority nursing action that should be implemented after checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing with a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours is to report the findings to the surgeon.
When a patient is critically unwell, fluid resuscitation is sometimes guided by the amount of urine produced as a measure of acute renal impairment. In critically ill patients, neurohormonal variables and functional alterations may affect diuresis and natriuresis even though a decrease in urine production may be linked to a drop in glomerular filtration rate due to a reduction in renal blood flow or renal perfusion pressure. After examining the urinary drainage system for tube kinks with 54 ml of black, concentrated urine produced over the previous two hours, the main nursing step is to inform the surgeon of the results.
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Which possible outcome would be a major disadvantage of any pain relief method that also affects awareness of the mother
The possible outcome would be a major disadvantage of any pain relief method that also affects awareness of the mother is that the mother may have difficulty working effectively with contractions.
Epidural :
The epidural is one of the most efficient ways to relieve pain during childbirth and delivery, and it has little side effects on both the mother and the newborn. During lengthy surgical operations, such as a C-section delivery, or while recovering from specific treatments, an epidural can offer continuous pain relief.
Some of the disadvantage of using pain relief :
The blood pressure may drop suddenly after receiving an epidural. Shivering, fever, or itching are a few adverse symptoms that some women report. One can experience nausea or vertigo after having the epidural removed, along with back pain and soreness where the needle was inserted. With an epidural, some women report having more trouble giving birth. The likelihood of requiring interventions like forceps, drugs, or a C-section may rise significantly.Learn more about childbirth here :
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Mike is a terminally ill patient who stays at home rather than in a hospital. His treatment focuses on the reduction of pain and suffering since any medical treatment would be of little help. This scenario demonstrates _____.
This scenario demonstrates Palliative care.
What is Palliative care?People with serious illnesses can receive specialized medical care called palliative care. Relief from the illness's symptoms and stress is the main goal of this kind of care. The objective is to enhance the patient's and the family's quality of life.
A specifically trained group of physicians, nurses, and other professionals who collaborate with a patient's medical clinicians to offer an additional layer of support provides palliative care. Palliative care is based on the patient's needs rather than their prognosis. At any age or stage of a serious illness, it is suitable, and it can be given in addition to curative care.
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Dozens of clients arrive in the emergency department with chemical burns and inhalation injuries from exposure to anhydrous ammonia gas released from a tanker truck on a highway. What is the priority action by the nurse
For chemical burns, the priority action by the nurse should be to Assist clients to remove contaminated clothing and shower with copious amounts of water.
Strong acids, drain cleaners, paint thinner, gasoline, and many other substances can induce chemical burns, which are tissue injury.For patients who have been exposed to a hazardous chemical or radioactive agent, decontamination is a top nursing priority. Before offering care to patients in a disaster, the nurse should help them completely decontaminate. Decontamination reduces exposure to other clients and personnel as well as further client injuries.If a shower is available, take off any contaminated clothing or jewelry and rinse the chemicals off for at least 20 minutes. Avoid getting chemicals in your eyes.Dress the burn. Apply a fresh bandage to the burn. On prevent applying pressure to the burned skin, wrap it loosely.Re-rinse if necessary. Rinse the area several more times if you experience more burning.learn more about chemical burns here: https://brainly.com/question/24720375
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The primary health care provider (PHCP) has prescribed codeine sulfate for a client with a nonproductive cough to suppress the cough reflex. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for which side effect of the medication
The nurse should teach the client to monitor for constipation side effect of the medication.
What is constipation?Patients with constipation may experience abdominal tightness or a severe, cramping discomfort in the middle of their gut.Even though they haven't eaten in several hours, they could constantly feel as though they have just had a substantial meal.Additionally, patients may feel gassy, yet passing gas does not make them feel better.When you have difficult or infrequent bowel movements, you are constipated. Most people eventually go through it.Even while it's generally nothing serious, once your body is back on track, you'll feel considerably better. Individual differences in the average interval between bowel motions are significant.Additionally lacking in fiber, these foods can significantly slow down the passage of food through your intestines.Learn more about constipation here:
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What type of interview relies on a set of open-ended questions designed to assess the client's reasons for being in treatment, symptoms, health status, family background, and life history
An unstructured interview is a type of interview relies on a set of open-ended questions designed to assess the client's reasons for being in treatment, symptoms, health status, family background, and life history
An unstructured interview is the most adaptable sort of interview, with a chance for spontaneity. As opposed to a structured interview, the inquiries and the request wherein they are introduced are not set. All things being equal, the interview continues in view of the member's past responses. Unstructured meetings are unconditional. There are 3 significant sorts of unstructured meetings. These are oral history, imaginative meeting, and post-current meeting.
They likewise have expanded legitimacy since it offers the questioner the chance to test for a more profound comprehension, request explanations, and permit the interviewee to guide the heading of the meeting and so on.
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The learning curve for ultrasound-guided peripheral intravenous cannulation in adults: a multicenter study
Nurses should receive training and practice in employing ultrasonic (US) guidance in order to reduce the threshold for using it during peripheral intravenous cannulation.
Abstract:Aim:
The main goal of the study was to estimate how many procedures beginners must complete before becoming proficient at US-guided peripheral intravenous cannulation.
Materials and procedures:
After a theoretical training session, a multicenter prospective observational study was divided into two phases: supervised life-case training and practical training. The goal was to determine how many US-guided peripheral intravenous cannulations a participant would need to complete before being considered competent in the life-case scenario. Each participant's specific learning curve was determined via cusum analysis.
Results:
A total of 1855 procedures were carried out by the 49 participating practitioners. During the initial procedure, first, try cannulation success was 73 percent; however, it climbed to 98 percent on the forty-first attempt (p 0.001). This study's overall first-try success rate was 93 percent. According to the cusum learning curve for each practitioner, proficiency was attained after a median of 34 procedures. The amount of time needed to complete a procedure successfully dropped as the practitioner's experience increased, from 14 minutes for the first procedure to 3 minutes for the forty-first (p 0.001).
Conclusions:
By adhering to a set educational programme, one can become proficient in US-guided peripheral intravenous cannulation, which increases the success rate of cannulation attempts on the first try as more procedures are conducted.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) and moderate carotid stenosis who has undergone a carotid endarterectomy. Which postoperative finding would cause the nurse the most concern
The postoperative finding that would cause the nurse the most concern is difficulty in swallowing.
What are transient ischemic attacks?
An episode of transient ischemic attack (TIA), which has symptoms resembling those of a stroke, occurs suddenly. A TIA typically lasts only a few minutes and has no lasting effects.
What is carotid endarterectomy?Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a build-up of fatty deposits (plaque), which cause narrowing of a carotid artery.
The carotid arteries are the main blood vessels that supply blood to the neck, face and brain.
Carotid endarterectomies are carried out when 1 or both carotid arteries become narrowed because of a build-up of fatty deposits (plaque).
This is known as carotid artery disease or carotid artery stenosis.
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An osmotic diuretic such as mannitol is given to the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) to
An osmotic diuretic such as mannitol is given to the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) to dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema.
One's skull may experience increasing pressure as a result of a brain injury or another medical issue. Increased intracranial pressure, or ICP for short, is a risky condition that can cause headaches. One's brain or spinal cord may possibly suffer additional damage from the pressure. The amount of brain and extracellular fluid is decreased by osmotic diuretics by drawing water across intact membranes. The patient with IICP is given antipyretics and a cooling blanket to reduce fever. Mannitol is a form of diuretic, but its purpose is not to make you pee more. To lessen the demands on cellular metabolism, medications such as barbiturates are administered to patients with IICP.
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Elaine was a diabetic and had a wound that would not heal, so Dr. Smith had her placed in a hyperbaric oxygenation of the wound. The root operation term used in ICD-10-PCS is:
Elaine was a diabetic and had a wound that would not heal, so Dr. Smith had her placed in a hyperbaric oxygenation of the wound. The root operation term used in ICD-10-PCS is: Assistance
ICD-10-PCS :
THE INTERNATIONAL CLASSIFICATION OF DISEASES Tenth Revision Procedure Coding System (ICD-10-PCS) was developed to accompany the World Health Organization’s (WHO) ICD-10 diagnosis classification. The new procedure coding system was created to replace of ICD-9-CM procedure codes for describing inpatient procedures.
The root operations defines the the objective of the procedure. Some examples of root operations are Bypass , Drainage, and Reattachment.
Assistance defines procedures that assist a physiological function but do not take complete control of it, such as intra-aortic balloon pump to support cardiac output and hyperbaric oxygen treatment.
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The nurse explains to the parents of a 2-day-old newborn that decreased life span of neonatal red blood cells has contributed to which complication
The nurse explains to the parents of a 2-day-old newborn that decreased life span of neonatal red blood cells has contributed to hyperbilirubinemia.
Jaundice, a yellow colouring of the skin and eyes brought on by hyperbilirubinemia, is caused by an accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. Low bilirubin levels in newborns are typical, do not cause any problems, and resolve on their own within the first week of life.
On the other hand, some situations, such as prematurity, infection, or specific blood abnormalities, can cause a rapid buildup of bilirubin to a dangerous level.About 60% of term neonates and 80% of premature babies both experience hyperbilirubinemia, which causes jaundice.
Red blood cell lysis naturally produces bilirubin as a byproduct. Unconjugated bilirubin is transformed by the adult liver into a conjugated form that is eliminated.
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A nurse provides teaching on hand hygiene to a client. Which of the following client statements indicates to the nurse a need for further teaching
The following client statements indicates to the nurse a need for further hygiene teaching "I should wash my hands until they appear clean".
Washing hands until they appear clean is not the correct way to maintain hygiene. Generally speaking, washing your hands with soap and water is recommended. Regular soap is just as good at fighting germs as over-the-counter antibacterial soaps.Clean, running water, either warm or cold, should be used to wet your hands.Apply soap and thoroughly lather.For at least 20 seconds, vigorously rub your hands. Keep in mind to scrub everything, including the wrists, between your fingers, and under your fingernails.Clearly rinse.Dry your hands using a fresh towel or let them air dry.learn more about hygiene here: https://brainly.com/question/13562099
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A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta2-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient
A nurse is questioned about a long-acting beta2-agonist drug by a patient who experiences persistent, recurrent asthma exacerbations. As prophylactic, the glucocorticoid is used to stop exacerbations.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects a lot of people. In wealthy nations, it is viewed as a major cause of morbidity and a major contributor to the high cost of healthcare. The two main pathogenic characteristics of asthmatics' airways are inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Treatment for asthma should be intensified gradually in order to regulate the condition, both for symptom relief and to avoid exacerbations. This methodical approach, which begins with low dose inhaled corticosteroids and progresses, if necessary, to inhaled corticosteroids combined with long-acting -agonists, will control the majority of instances of asthma.learn more about asthma here: https://brainly.com/question/17481521
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Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD?
Airway blockage or limitation is a hallmark of the group of chronic, irreversible respiratory disorders known as a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not treatable or contagious. Reduced pulmonary airflow brought on by elevated inflammation characterises asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Two primary phenotypes have been established based on clinical, pathological, and radiological characteristics:
Emphysema type A and type B patients are referred to as "pink puffers" and "blue-bloaters," respectively (chronic bronchitis)
Dyspnea is the most common symptom in Type A patients, while cough and hypersecretion are mild. The main causes of the decreased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO) and frequently enlarged lung volumes in Type A patients include non-homogeneous ventilation and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Type A patients also seldom have hypercapnia or recurrent heart failure.
Mucous hypersecretion is the predominant symptom of type B patients, although dyspnea is mild. While lung capacities are not expanded and carbon monoxide diffusing ability is often conserved, type B patients frequently exhibit hypercapnia, hypoxia, secondary pulmonary hypertension, and cardiovascular comorbidities.
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Using SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation/Request) to communicate with the health care provider, which statement should the nurse include to describe the situation
1."She is a 53-year-old female who was admitted 2 days ago with pneumonia and was started on Levaquin at 5 pm yesterday. She complains of a poor appetite."
2. "The patient reported feeling very nauseated after her dose of Levaquin an hour ago."
3. "Would you like to make a change in antibiotics, or could we give her a nutritional supplement before her medication?"
4. "The patient started complaining of nausea yesterday evening and has vomited several times during the night."
The correct option is 4,1,2,3
The nurse describes the patient's complaint of nausea and vomiting to the physician (Situation). Specific patient demographic information.
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In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person Group of answer choices has just recovered from mumps. is allergic to mumps. is immune to mumps. was recently infected with mumps.
In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person was recently infected with mumps.
This is the most common antibody. It is in the blood and other body fluids and protects against bacterial and viral infections. It may take time for IgG to form after infection or immunization. The presence of detectable IgG class antibodies indicates previous exposure to mumps virus through infection or immunization. Individuals who test positive are considered immune to the mumps virus. People with a history of mumps vaccination may not have detectable mumps IgM antibodies regardless of the timing of sample collection. IgG test results are usually positive and elevated at the initial blood draw.
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