the argument suggests that when private citizens have weapons in their homes or are able to carry concealed weapons, they are less likely to be successfully targeted by criminals.

Answers

Answer 1

The self protection argument suggests that when private citizens have weapons in their homes or are able to carry concealed weapons, they are less likely to be successfully targeted by criminals.

Violence committed with the use of a firearm is referred to as gun-related violence. Violence with firearms may or may not be prosecuted as a crime. Gun violence (save when and if deemed justifiable), assault with a lethal weapon depending on the jurisdiction, are all examples of criminal violence. Death and injuries caused by accident or negligence are examples of non-criminal violence (except perhaps in cases of criminal negligence). Statistics on gun violence frequently include military or paramilitary involvement. The rate of gun violence in the United States is 25 times greater than the average rate in other high-income countries, ranking it as the 11th highest in the world.

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Related Questions

Based on the case "Burdeau v. McDowell (1921)" the __________________ Rule does not apply when evidence is obtained illegally by a private security guard.

A) Removal
B) Firehouse
C) Exclusionary
D) Revisionist
E) Preclusion

Answers

The Supreme Court ruled in its decision that incriminating materials provided to government representatives by private people or employees did not fall under the same restrictions as those governing legal search and seizure. Hence option E is correct .

Who was "Burdeau v. McDowell (1921)" ?

For instance, if a private citizen produces incriminating documents that were obtained without a search warrant, these documents are admissible in court and are not governed by the same regulations of search and seizure as if they were being gathered by a police officer.

In a petition submitted to the United States District Court for the Western District of Pennsylvania, J. C. McDowell—hereinafter referred to as the petitioner—asked for an order directing Joseph A. to return certain books, documents, memos, communications, and other information to him.

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Which of the following police personnel positions was identified by the President's Commission on Law Enforcement and Administration of Justice as most likely to be a good police-community relations representative?

Answers

Community service officer position was identified by the President's Commission on Law Enforcement and Administration of Justice as most likely to be a good police-community relations representative.

A police officer assigned to a community or area as part of a community policing programme is known as a community service officer (CSO). The Streator Police Department's Community Service Officer is a civilian post that is filled by a non-sworn employee. Community Service Officers (CSO) are in charge of carrying out a number of tasks that support other departments, primarily the public safety agency. CSOs offer customer service to residents, enforce some city ordinances, and perform various non-criminal police-related tasks. They also conduct community outreach, patrol, and give non-EMS on-site and in-home help to citizens. They don't carry out duties that are only allowed for peace officers in Illinois by law. They lack the ability to make arrests and do not carry weapons.

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Which of the following creates civil liability for a wide range of false, misleading, confusing, or deceptive representations made in connection with goods or services?

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Section 43(a) of the Lanham Act creates civil liability for a wide range of false, misleading, confusing, or deceptive representations made in connection with goods or services.

The Act, which bears the name of Texas Representative Fritz G. Lanham, was approved on July 5, 1946, and President Harry Truman signed it into law on July 6, 1947, making it effective "one year from its adoption". Rarely, a conflict between trademarks that have been in use since before the Lanham Act took effect would develop, necessitating that the courts consider the case in accordance with the trademark law that was in existence before the Lanham Act. Since it was passed, the Act has undergone numerous amendments. The Trademark Counterfeiting Act of 1984, which made the purposeful use of a counterfeit trademark or the illegal use of a counterfeit trademark a crime, greatly increased its impact.

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QUESTION 4 Cluster theory demonstrates how economic growth in cities occurs because: a)of suburban manufacturing b)educational opportunities c)of the increased amount of talent and skills in dense urban centers d)none of the above​

Answers

Cluster theory demonstrates how economic growth in cities occurs because of the increased amount of talent and skills in dense urban centers. Thus, option c) is correct.

What is Cluster theory?

According to the notion, consolidating industries in particular areas has various benefits. For starters, when multiple businesses congregate in one place, there is more economic activity. Since a result, agglomeration spillovers are produced, which raise the total factor productivity of businesses located in the same county as everyone is vying for the top rank. Most towns and nations have a geographically dispersed economy, which can result in cheap labour costs owing to little to no competition. Because there are better worker-firm matching in denser labour markets, labour and land are valued extremely highly in clusters, regions of considerable economic activity. [2] Because they reduce transportation costs, clusters provide economies of agglomeration that benefit businesses.

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The Constitution of 1836 showed the direct influence of the U.S. Constitution through the inclusion of which of the following?A) state retention of ownership of mineral rightsB) a unicameral legislatureC) a judicial system with four levelsD) government divided into three branches with a system of checks and balances

Answers

Government with three branches and a check-and-balances system.

What is check-and-balances?

A power structure with parts or branches is referred to as having checks and balances. Each branch has the ability to thwart or restrict the others' abilities. Ones, especially national governments, typically employ checks and balances. Laws are created by the legislative branch, but the President, who is part of the executive branch, has the power to veto them. The judicial branch has the authority to declare laws passed by the legislative branch to be unlawful. Each part of government is given its own authority to check the other branches and prevent any one branch from becoming overly dominant thanks to the checks and balances system.

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melissa hurls a rock with the intention to hit dave, with whom she has just fought. the rock hits stacey, instead, who is sitting next to dave. melissa is liable for battery under the clause of:

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melissa hurls a rock with the intention to hit dave, with whom she has just fought. the rock hits stacey, instead, who is sitting next to dave. melissa is liable for battery under the clause of transferred intent.

Battery the course of justice, trespass to goods, conversion, and land are examples of torts and wrongful instances where transferred intent is relevant. If the person knew their actions would cause to someone, they are legally accountable.

In tort cases, transferring intent is not a defense. The offender may still be held accountable for misconduct even if he intended to harm but instead produced another kind of damage or injured an unintentional victim.

According to the idea of transferred intent, a defendant may be held accountable for an indictable he meant to commit against A but unintentionally committed against B.

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Katelyn dresses up as a vampire and wants to try out her scare tactics on her roommate, Joan, who has no idea about Katelyn's plans. Katelyn
approaches Joan as she is sleeping and whispers menacingly, "I want to suck your blood!" Joan wakes up screaming and crying, terrified that there
truly is a vampire in her room.
- battery
-assault
- intentional infliction of emotional distress

Answers

It is possible to classify Katelyn's behaviour as intentional infliction of emotional distress.

What is intentional infliction of emotional distress?

A tort (a type of civil wrong) known as intentional infliction of emotional distress is when someone purposefully or recklessly causes severe emotional distress to another person. Physical assault, threats, humiliation, or other extreme and outrageous behaviour are just a few examples of this type of behavior's many manifestations. To prove intentional infliction of emotional distress, the victim must show that the defendant's actions were extreme and outrageous, that the defendant intended to cause severe emotional distress, and that the victim actually suffered severe emotional distress as a result. It can be challenging to establish that a defendant intentionally caused emotional distress, and there must be solid proof that their actions were both deliberate and unreasonable.

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terrance is looking to find the law that georgia passed in regard to mud flaps required on 18-wheel semi-trucks. where would he look to find the law?

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Terrance is looking to find the law that Georgia passed in regard to mud flaps required on 18-wheel semi-trucks. he would look to find the law in state codes.

What is state codes?

The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) produced the ISO 3166 standard, which provides codes for the names of the major subdivisions (such as provinces or states) of all nations codified in ISO 3166-1. ISO 3166-2:IN is the entry for India in ISO 3166-2.

Currently, 28 states and 8 union territories in India have their ISO 3166-2 codes specified.

Each code has two sections that are separated by a hyphen. The ISO 3166-1 alpha-2 code for India is IN, which is the first component. With certain exceptions, the second component, which consists of two letters, is presently used on automobile licence plates.

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Gale is separated from her husband two months ago. The relationship between Gale and her husband is antagonistic. He is trying to gain custody of their two children—a boy of eight and girl of five years. There have also been quarrels over financial support. A month ago, Gale was diagnosed with a mental health disability, and it was suggested by the doctor that she take three months away from work. After discussions with Gale and some written communication with the doctor, it was determined that Gale could return sooner if the job in which she was placed was not stressful.

Gale works in a call center and her work involves dealing with customers by phone. Interviews with the manager, Gale, and other workers indicate that the job is stressful because staff are often under pressure to solve issues and there are also scheduling pressures that arise. Prior to her absence (Gale and her husband were separating), a less stressful job was found for Gale as an assistant in another area. However, Gale's relationship with the woman who managed the department quickly degenerated as Gale had frequent absences. Gale refuses to return to this job, although the manager, who understands that some of the problems were related to Gale's personal situation, has reluctantly agreed to accept her. Gale has also refused to accept a manufacturing job that would be less stressful than the call center but still somewhat demanding. Since she began working for the organization right after high school and has had no job training, there are no other unfilled jobs that she is qualified for at the current time.
Questions
1. Does the employer have a "duty to accommodate", Gale and her return to work, why or why not?
2. Is the employer required to find another job for Gale, why or why not?
3. What rights do Gale and her employer have in the current situation?

Answers

1. Yes, the employer has a "duty to accommodate" Gale and her return to work. This duty arises from various laws such as the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), which require employers to provide reasonable accommodations to employees with disabilities. The duty to accommodate requires employers to make changes to the work environment or to the way work is performed that will enable the employee to perform the essential functions of the job.

2. No, the employer is not necessarily required to find another job for Gale. The duty to accommodate requires the employer to provide reasonable accommodations, not necessarily to create a new job or transfer the employee to another position. However, if the employer can show that accommodating Gale in her current job would cause an undue hardship, then they may be excused from this duty.

3. In this situation, Gale has the right to request a reasonable accommodation for her disability and to be free from discrimination based on her disability. The employer has the right to determine the essential functions of the job and to make decisions about reasonable accommodations that do not impose an undue hardship. The employer must also ensure that the work environment is free from discrimination and harassment based on disability. If Gale and her employer are unable to reach a mutually agreeable solution, then she may have the right to file a complaint with the EEOC or seek legal counsel

MIAMI HERALD INVESTIGATION
Considering everything you read, do you believe further investigations need to be conducted in this facility? If yes, what issues would you investigate? How would you manage these issues? If not, why would you not investigate any further? Explain your answer.

Answers

As per the reading From Miami Herald Investigation, further investigations need to be conducted in order to ensure the well-being of Prisoners in Prison.

What is Miami Herald Investigation?

Inmates who reported were physically attacked, isolated, and denied basic amenities like food, soap, and sanitary napkins, according to the Herald investigation, which revealed that institutional abuses persisted.

Inmates' death under controversial circumstances is a problem that has to be addressed. Family members claim they don't get enough explanations. This problem can be resolved by enforcing strong punishment against the guard who is participating in the act.

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state police have credible information about a meth lab operating in their jurisdiction and have illegally obtained evidence by searching the home without a warrant and confiscating a large quantity of drugs. this would most likely lead to which of the following?

Answers

The drugs are not being used as evidence because the exclusionary rule was broken.

What is Evidence?

(1) Oral evidence refers to any statements made by witnesses that the Court permits or requires to be made in front of it regarding the facts being investigated. 2) All documents, including electronic records created for the Court's inspection, are referred to as documentary evidence.

An item or piece of information presented to increase or decrease the likelihood of a fact's existence. Documents, photographs, videos, voice recordings, DNA testing, and other tangible items are all examples of evidence.

The terms "evidence," "exhibit," "testimony," and "proof" all refer to the information provided in a legal investigation to back up a claim. Any such information, whether it comes from documents, witnesses, or another source, is considered evidence: In a trial, hearsay evidence is not admissible.

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MIAMI HERALD INVESTIGATION
What were the specific issues with the prison kitchens? Taking into account that all of the women inmates in Lowell are convicted felons, why does it matter if the issues with the prison kitchens are not resolved- or does it matter? What would you do as the warden of this prison? Explain your answer.

Answers

The specific issues with the prison kitchens are a shortage of employees, poor quality of food as well as Hygiene problems.

What are prison kitchens?

Prison kitchens are referred to as food areas where the preparation of food for prisoners will be done in order to provide their basic meals. These prison kitchens are funded by the government and handled by jail authorities.

The issues mentioned above need to resolve in order to maintain well being of prisoners. Being a warden of this person one can request to a higher authority to pay attention to this situation in order to bring improvement in condition.

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How did the court of appeals decide the case? Was this an easy case for the court to decide? Anheuser-Busch, Inc., v. Schmoke 63 F. Supp 1305 (4th Cir. 1995)

Answers

In Anheuser-Busch case, the court upheld against a constitutional challenge a city ordinance prohibiting the placement of stationary, outdoor advertising of alcoholic beverages in certain areas of Baltimore City.

Summary of the case "Anheuser-Busch, Inc., v. Schmoke':

To meet Central Hudson's third prong in Anheuser-Busch, Inc. v. Schmoke, the City relied on numerous studies that linked alcohol advertising to underage drinking.

The Court stated in response to Anheuser-challenge Busch's to those conclusions: there is a logical link between the City's goal and the means chosen to achieve that goal, and it is not necessary to prove conclusively that the correlation exists or that the steps taken will solve the problem in order to satisfy Central Hudson's third prong.

If that were required, communities could never take even minor steps to address their problems because they could never be certain of their success.

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Which ICS structure enables different jurisdictions to jointly manage?

Answers

Unified command ICS structure enables different jurisdictions to jointly manage.

What is Unified command?

In the Incident Command System, a unified command is an authority structure in which two or more people, each of whom is already in a position of authority within a distinct responding agency, share the responsibility of incident commander. One method of exercising command is through unified command, in which the responding agencies and/or jurisdictions in charge of the situation share incident management. When numerous jurisdictions or agencies are involved in an incident, a unified command may be required. Incident commanders from agencies or jurisdictions that are jointly responsible for the incident coordinate the response from a single incident command post if a unified command is required.

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Under Japanese law, parties to a contract may specify liquidated damages recoverable when a contractual obligation is not performed at all or not performed by a specified date.

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Under Japanese law, parties to a contract can agree to specific damages that will be recoverable in the event of a breach of contract.

These damages are referred to as liquidated damages and are a pre-agreed amount that the non-breaching party can recover as compensation for the breach. The purpose of liquidated damages is to provide a mechanism for parties to estimate the actual damages that may arise from a breach of contract, so as to avoid disputes over the amount of damages to be paid in the event of a breach. It is important to note that the amount of liquidated damages agreed upon must be a reasonable estimate of the actual damages that would arise from a breach. If the liquidated damages are found to be excessive or punitive in nature, they may be considered as unenforceable under Japanese law. Furthermore, it is also possible for parties to agree to a specific date by which a contractual obligation must be performed. If the obligation is not performed by the specified date, the non-breaching party may be  entitled to recover the liquidated damages. In conclusion, liquidated damages under Japanese law provide a means for parties to a contract to agree on a specific amount of damages in the event of a breach, and to ensure that damages are recoverable in a timely manner.

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if you were asked to provide a fact about a common law system, what should you say?

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A common law system is a legal system where judicial decisions and precedent play a central role in defining the law. In common law systems, past judicial decisions are used as guidance in deciding current cases, and the decisions of higher courts are binding on lower courts in the same jurisdiction. This contrasts with civil law systems, where laws are primarily codified and past judicial decisions are not typically considered binding precedent. The United Kingdom, the United States, and many former British colonies have common law systems

A fact about a common law system is that it is a legal system that relies on judicial precedent and case law to determine legal questions and establish legal principles. In a common law system, judges have the authority to interpret and apply the law, and their decisions become binding precedents for future cases.

This is in contrast to a civil law system, which is based on written legal codes and statutes that are created by legislative bodies. Common law systems are used in many countries, including the United States, the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, and India.

A common law system is a legal system that relies on judicial precedent and case law to determine legal questions and establish legal principles. In a common law system, judges have the authority to interpret and apply the law, and their decisions become binding precedents for future cases.

This is in contrast to a civil law system, which is based on written legal codes and statutes that are created by legislative bodies. Common law systems are used in many countries, including the United States, the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, and India.

In a common law system, legal principles are developed through the accumulation of judicial decisions and the application of legal precedent to new cases. This approach provides flexibility and adaptability to changing circumstances, as legal principles can evolve over time based on new interpretations of existing case law.

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A husband and wife have a son. The husband dies and the wife remarries. The wife and her second husband have a son and a daughter. The wife and second husband die in a boating accident leaving their entire estate to the daughter. A few years later, the daughter dies. The daughter did not have a will. How will the estate be distributed in Florida? Answers: A. The son from the first marriage and the son from the second marriage each receive one-half of the estate. B. The son from the second marriage receives the entire estate. C. The son from the first marriage receives one-third of the estate and the son from the second marriage receives two-thirds of the estate. D. The estate escheats to the state.

Answers

The option (c) the son from the first marriage receives one-third of the estate and the son from the second marriage receives two-thirds of the estate is correct.

Half-blood relations exist between siblings who only had one parent in common. Florida has a specific law that only applies to lineal descendants, not to inheritance by collateral kindred. If an intestate leaves property to collateral relatives, and some of the collateral kindred are of whole blood and others are of half blood, the half-blood kindred will receive half of what the whole-blood kindred would receive. The daughter's half-blood sibling is the son from the first marriage, whereas the daughter's full-blood sibling is the son from the second marriage. As a result, the daughter's half-blood brother would receive a third of her estate and her full-blood brother would receive the remaining two-thirds.

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What were the laws called that separated black people from white people?

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The laws called jim crow laws separated black people from white people.

Any law that enforced the civil rights act of 1964 between the 1877 end of the Civil War and the start of the civil movement of the 1950s is known as a "Jim Crow statute" in American history. Thomas Dartmouth ("Daddy") Rice, the minstrel who created the Jim Crow minstrel show.

Several of his followers, notably actor Joseph Jefferson, began performing it in 1828 under the moniker Jump Jim Crow. The phrase eventually evolved into a disparaging nickname for African Americans as well as a description of their segregated lifestyle.

Since the late 1870s, when so-called carpetbaggers the freedmen were no longer in control of Southern state legislatures, legislation requiring the segregation of whites and "persons of color" in public accommodations and educational institutions has been in effect.

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Which of the following is listed in the Texas Bill of Rights, but is not in the U.S. Bill of Rights?A. a list of rights guaranteed to victims of crime, such as the right to restitution and the right to be protected from the accused
B. a major stock fraud involving bribery of several elected officials, state party officials, and bankers
C. a two-thirds vote in both houses of the state legislature and a majority vote from the voters of Texas
D. after Texas joined the Confederacy in February 1861, a new constitution was needed since Texas was no longer part of the United States

Answers

A. a list of rights guaranteed to victims of crime, such as the right to restitution and the right to be protected from the accused is listed in the Texas Bill of Rights, but not in the U.S. Bill of Rights.

The first ten Changes to the Constitution are known as the Bill of Rights. It outlines the rights of Americans in regards to their government. Individuals are given freedoms and civil rights like freedom of speech, of the press, and of religion. It identifies the rights of Americans in reference to their government. Individuals are given liberties and rights like freedom of speech, of the press, but of religion. The majority of the power not assigned to the Federal Government are reserved for the people or the States, and it establishes guidelines for due process of the law. Also, it adds that "this designation with certain rights included in the Constitution shall not be considered to invalidate or belittle another possessed by the public."

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Government officials have hired your consulting firm to encourage more people to use city's zoo. In the initial meeting you discussed several options. In the initial meeting you discussed some ideas for increasing demand. Three suggestions are listed below. Based on your knowledge of the law of demand, what is your recommendation for each suggestion?

Answers

One of the most core concepts in economics seems to be the law of demand.

It outlines how capitalist economies disperse resources and set the costs of goods and services that we see in daily transactions by blending the law of supply. Under the law of demand, the quantity ordered varies inversely with price. In other words, the equilibrium quantity decreases as the price hikes. Because of diminishing returns utility, this transpires. In other words, highlights the benefits the earliest units of an economic good they buy to fulfil their most pressing requirements first, then they use each additional item to fulfil gradually pretty low goals.

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Identify and discuss three strengths and three weakness of the 1992 Constitution of the Republic of Ghana.​

Answers

Answer:

The 1992 Constitution provided for the greater freedom of the press and human rights guarantees, a similar executive branch to the US with the president being elected in four-year terms, and the reinforcement of a unitary government while allowing for local governments

Explanation:

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T/F: if a majority of the supreme court justices agree as to the outcome of a case, but not as to the reasoning for reaching the outcome it is called a decision.

Answers

True, if a majority of the Supreme Court justices agree on the outcome of a case, but not as to the reasoning for reaching that outcome, it is called a decision.

In other words, a decision is the official ruling or result of a case that is reached by a majority of the justices. The reasoning, or the written opinion explaining the basis for the decision, can be provided by one or more of the justices in the majority. However, if the majority of the justices agree on the reasoning as well as the outcome, it is called a majority opinion. It is also worth noting that when a decision is reached by a bare majority, with only 5 out of 9 justices agreeing, the reasoning behind the decision may be fragmented and include multiple opinions. In such cases, the lead opinion, which represents the views of the majority of the justices, carries the greatest weight. The dissenting opinions, which represent the views of the justices who did not agree with the majority, can also provide important insights and can shape future decisions.

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the distance a vehicle traveles from the time the driver applies the brakes until the vehicle stops is the

Answers

The distance a vehicle travels from the time the driver applies the brakes until the vehicle stops is the Braking Distance.

The distance your car travels after using the brakes until it comes to a total stop is known as the braking distance. The sum of the response and braking distances is the total stopping distance. The average person thinks for one-fifth of a second before reacting and applying the brakes for the final one-fifth of a second. Because of this, it is generally advised that drivers leave two seconds between themselves and other drivers. The two-second safe driving space rule is designed to ensure that there is adequate space between your vehicle and the vehicle in front of you for you to stop or divert around it if it abruptly stops. One of the two main factors that make up the total braking distance is the braking distance. The response distance, which is also a factor, is the result of the driver's or rider's speed and perception-reaction time.

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Many organizations find _________ too difficult, too radical, too lengthy, and too comprehensive. A. BPC
B. BPI
C. BPM
D. BPR

Answers

The answer is c (BPM) Business performance management is a metric for determining overall business progress toward goals .Organizations use business performance management (BPM) to evaluate the overall performance of their employees and organization

This cycle begins with the definition of strategic business objectives and translates into operational plans and objectives for individual departments within the organization. Business performance management provides managers, business owners, and management teams with valuable information about their customers and employees. Performance management is an opportunity to make necessary changes and adjustments to business functions. Management evaluates individual employees and entire departments to make the right decisions for the company. It is important to note that this method is not limited to analyzing the financial side of the company, it also considers employee and customer satisfaction.

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the definition of _____ states: a partnership in which two or more companies,often from different countries, join to undertake a major project.

Answers

The definition of joint venture states a partnership in which two or more companies, often from different countries, join to undertake a major project.

What is joint venture?

An enterprise that was founded by two or more people is known as a joint venture, and it is frequently characterized by shared control, ownership, and returns. In general, businesses enter into joint ventures for one of four reasons. To obtain access to a new market, especially an emerging one; to increase scale efficiency by integrating the assets, to get access to skills and resources, or to share the risk of large investments or projects. The venture could be a firm, be designed to focus on a single project, define standards, or act as an "industry utility" by offering a specific set of services to other industry participants.

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the ___ and each of the 50 state governments maintain their own systems of courts. these systems include ___.

Answers

Answer: Federal government, trial and appellate

Explanation:

The federal government and each of the fifty state governments maintain their own system of courts. These systems include both trial courts and appellate courts.

What is the meaning of royalty fee?

Answers

Royalty fees are paid to the original creator of a work for the continual use of that work.

What is Royalty payment?

A payment given by one party to another that is the owner of a specific asset for the right to continuous use of that asset is known as a royalty. There are additional forms and measures of remuneration besides royalties, which are frequently agreed upon as a portion of gross or net income obtained from the use of an asset or a fixed price per unit sold of one of these.  A royalty interest is the legal right to receive a regular stream of future royalties.

The conditions under which a resource or property is leased by one party to another are specified in a licensing agreement, either without restriction or subject to a limitation on duration, business or geographic region, kind of product, etc.

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What is the rule regarding owner occupied discriminatory housing practices in Tennessee?

Answers

Single-family homes and duplexes are excluded from this rule. Before any work is started on a residential property, the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation must give its clearance.

What is residential property?

Any structure or unit that is zoned for residential use is considered residential property. One of the two main categories of real estate is residential property; the other is commercial property. Although it's not always the case, residential property is often owner-occupied. Homes or apartments are considered residential properties. These could be apartments, townhomes, single-family homes, studios, etc. Most investors in residential real estate who don't live there themselves will rent it out to others in order to profit from the investment. Commercial real estate, in essence, is any property that can be used specifically for commercial purposes (CRE). There are now also multi-use zones that can serve as both residential and business spaces. Real estate for residential use includes housing that is often rented out rather than owned.

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This theory assumes that governments will be influenced by various interest groups and will not be biased for or against any of those groupsState centered theoryMarxist theoryPluralist theoryRational choice theoryInstitutionalist theory

Answers

Pluralist theory assumes that governments will be influenced by various interest groups and will not be biased for or against any of those groups.

What is Pluralist theory?

Pluralism is a political theory that holds that people from varied racial, ideological, and lifestyle backgrounds can coexist peacefully and equally engage in politics. According to pluralism, as a result of its practice, decision-makers will develop solutions that advance the "common good" of the entire society. By establishing a "competitive equilibrium" that would ultimately benefit significant portions of society, pluralism encourages people to use the government to protect their specific interests. Negotiations between employees and employers are an example of pluralism, which does not always apply to various races or religions.

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How did the supreme court used 10th amendment to overturn some new deal programs?

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Since 1992, the Supreme Court has ruled that the Tenth Amendment prohibits the federal government from passing or rejecting certain laws or from compelling states to enforce federal laws. In New York v. United States (1992),

the Supreme Court reversed portions of the Low-Level Waste Directive Amendment Act of 1985. The Tenth Amendment has been interpreted to mean that the states have all rights not expressly prohibited or granted to the federal government by the Constitution (the concept of federalism). For example, Missouri can regulate its own school system, but it cannot declare war on France.

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