The three items that are economic espionage activities Fraud, illegal trespassing, and electronic hacking.
In order to understand what is morally right or wrong, just or unjust, ethics explores the intellectual justifications for our moral judgments. In a broader sense, ethics considers how people interact with one another and with nature, as well as their own freedom, responsibility, and sense of justice. Normative, meta, and practical ethics are the traditional divisions of ethics. What is right or wrong in human action is the subject of ethics. This area of philosophy focuses on moral concepts. Moral philosophy is another name for ethics. Contents page. A subfield of moral philosophy called normative ethics is concerned with the standards for what is morally good and evil.
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commercial filmmaking typically strives for _______ .
Commercial filmmaking is an industry that creates movies for the purpose of making a profit.
It is driven by a variety of factors that influence the creative and business decisions made by filmmakers, including audience preferences, technological advancements, and competition within the industry.The primary goal of commercial filmmaking is to create films that will generate revenue and provide a return on investment for the filmmakers and investors. To achieve this, filmmakers must produce movies that will appeal to a wide audience and generate ticket sales, as well as other sources of revenue, such as merchandise sales, digital downloads, and broadcast rights.In order to appeal to audiences, commercial films must have high production value, meaning that they must be visually and aesthetically pleasing, with well-designed sets, special effects, and costumes. They must also have compelling stories, interesting characters, and engaging dialogue, all of which contribute to the overall viewing experience. Additionally, films must be well-promoted through advertising, public relations, and other marketing efforts to generate buzz and attract audiences.In order to maximize profitability, commercial filmmakers must carefully manage costs, including production budgets, marketing expenses, and distribution costs. They must also consider factors such as the target audience, release date, and competition within the industry when making decisions about production, marketing, and distribution.Overall, the goal of commercial filmmaking is to create films that are both entertaining and profitable, and that will appeal to a wide audience while delivering a return on investment for the filmmakers and investors. To achieve this, filmmakers must balance the creative and technical aspects of filmmaking with business and financial considerations.
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the inductive approach to writing a business argument
Which three of the following points about the daily Scrum are TRUE? (Choose three.)A. It is time-boxedB. It is held at the same place and time every dayC. The Product Owner provides an updateD. The Scrum Master enforces the rule that only Development Team members participate
Option D is correct. The Scrum Master enforces the rule that only members of the development team participate.
As explained in the Scrum Guide, the purpose of the Daily Scrum is to review progress towards the Sprint's goals, adjust the planned work, and adjust the Sprint Backlog as needed .
Daily Scrum is his 15 minute event for developers on scrum teams. To reduce complexity, it happens at the same time and place on all business days of the sprint. When a product owner or scrum master is actively working on items in his backlog in a sprint, they participate as developers. Developers can choose the structure and methodology they prefer, as long as the Daily Scrum focuses on progress towards the sprint goal and creates an actionable plan for the next business day. This will help you focus and improve your self-management.
The Daily Scrum improves communication, identifies bottlenecks, and facilitates rapid decision-making, thus eliminating the need for other meetings.
The Daily Scrum isn't the only way developers can adjust their plans. They often meet throughout the day to have more detailed discussions about coordinating or rescheduling the rest of the work in the sprint.
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Martha can produce 70 quilts or 140 batches of chocolate chip cookies in a month. Jane can produce 8 quilts or 24 batches of chocolate chip cookies in a month.
_______has an absolute advantage in both goods.
______ has a comparative advantage in quilts.
______ has a comparative advantage in chocolate chip cookies.
Martha has an absolute advantage in both goods. Martha can produce more of both goods than Jane can in a month.
Jane has a comparative advantage in quilts. She can produce 8 quilts in a month, which is more than a third of Martha's 70 quilts.
Martha has a comparative advantage in chocolate chip cookies. She can produce 140 batches in a month, which is nearly six times more than Jane's 24 batches.
Comparative advantage occurs when an individual or group is able to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another individual or group.
The individual or group that has a comparative advantage in a product has the advantage of being able to produce more of it with the same amount of resources.
In this case, Martha has an absolute advantage in both goods, but Jane has a comparative advantage in quilts and Martha has a comparative advantage in chocolate chip cookies.
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bill is leading a project team in the development and building of a new hotel. he has assembled his project team members for the project's kick-off meeting. the team members are highly experienced in developing and building hotels. bill introduces the team members to various key stakeholders. after the introductions, bill summarizes each of the team member's roles and responsibilities. he then mentions that their project will incorporate a war room. which option represents the main function of a war room?
Expert strength, Bill has authority in his field, and he would probably let everyone know during the project. A person's technical knowledge, skill, and credibility are the foundations of their expert power.
We are aware from Bill's past in the building sector that he has contributed to numerous construction projects, that he mentors aspiring project managers, and that he has project management expertise. The first stage in launching a new project is project initiation.
You determine the project's purpose and the business value it will provide at the project start phase. Then, you use that knowledge to win support from important stakeholders. Project managers and project engineers are other names for construction managers. The project's completion on schedule and within budget is guaranteed by the construction manager.
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Correct Question:
Bill is leading a project team in the development and building of a new hotel. He has assembled his project team members for the project's kick-off meeting. The team members are highly experienced in developing and building hotels.
Bill provides the team members with his background. Bill explains that he started out as a construction worker helping to build houses, malls, hotels, and business offices. He decided to go back to college to get a degree in business administration. He worked his way through various management levels and eventually became a project manager for a multi-national company. He also mentors other employees of the company who are training for project management positions, and regularly attends project management seminars. Which form of power will Bill MOST likely express during this project?
Who pays fees to private employment agencies?a. Employers onlyb. Applicants onlyc. Both employers and applicantsd. Neither employers nor applicants.
Answer:
Employment agency fees are paid by a company to an employment agency when it successfully places a suitable employee with that employer. With employer-paid fees, the employer pays the fee to the agency, so the employee pays nothing.
Explanation:
you are engaged in the control quality process of a project designed to build the world's smallest car. the development of the car has been plagued with issues. the spi of the project is currently 0.61 and there are no additional funds available in the budget. at this point in the project, the car has been fitted with secondary systems such as suspension and brakes, but the power train has yet to be installed. this delay has prevented any electrical systems from being installed. which impact will this have on the quality tests related to this process? answers a. testing will need to be changed to reflect the work performance data b. fast-track the schedule and then perform the required quality assessments c. crash the schedule and then perform the required quality assessments d. quality testing will be incomplete, and the data will be inconclusive
Going over the critical route and determining which tasks may be completed concurrently is the first step in using fast-tracking in project management.
Is crashing an expenditure increase that enables a project to be completed more quickly?When you cut the time required for one or more activities inside a project, this is known as project crashing. Crashing is accomplished by adding more resources to the project, which helps tasks finish sooner than they were expected to. Naturally, this raises the whole project's cost.
Which is better between the quick tracking method and the crashing method?The distinctions between crashing and fast tracking are, in essence: Fast tracking entails the execution of tasks concurrently, whereas crashing entails the addition of resources to a project.
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Management is needed in all types and sizes of organizations, at all organizational levels and in all organizational work areas, and in all organizations, no matter where they are located. This principle is known as the ________
.
A) impartiality of management
B) neutrality of management
C) universality of management
D) reality of management
Management is needed in all types and sizes of organizations, at all organizational levels and in all organizational work areas. This principle is known as the universality of management
It doesn't matter where an organisation is located; management is required at all organisational levels, in all organisational work areas, and in all types and sizes of organisations. The universality of management refers to this. In order to accomplish their objectives effectively and efficiently, corporations, governmental organisations, non-profits, and other types of organizations must practise effective management.
It indicates that while a variety of organisations might benefit from the same fundamental ideas and practises, the specific methods may differ according to the situation and the particular problems that each organisation faces. For example: a retail store's management may be different from that of a major multinational organization, yet both need to be effective at planning, organizing, directing, and managing in order to succeed.
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Which of the following are used to achieve operational excellence? (Select all that apply.)
Supply chain management
Loyalty programs
Branding and positioning
Operations
Good options are Supply Chain Management and Operational Excellence.
are used to achieve operational excellence from the given options.
To have a product with high perceived value and effective branding and positioning. Operational excellence is a management strategy that involves maximizing the efficiency of processes within an organization. It is more reliable and performs better than its competitors. “Operational Excellence consists of four main categories. This includes strategy development, performance management, high-performing work teams and process excellence,” said Peter, CEO of training company Global Six Sigma and president of the International Society of Six Sigma Professionals. says Peterka.
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A cost may be direct or indirect, depending on the cost object.a. True
b. False
The given statement is true.
Indirect costs are those associated with sustaining and running a business, whereas direct costs are those that can be linked to a specific product. If you can classify one‟s costs properly, you will as a business owner have a greater idea of how to set pricing.
Direct labor, direct materials, kickbacks, piece rate wage levels, and manufacturing supplies are a few examples of direct costs. Payroll for production supervisors, quality control expenses, insurance, and depreciation are a few examples of indirect costs.
Accounting and legal costs, executive salaries, office expenses, rents, security charges, telephone prices, and utility costs are a few examples of indirect costs. Direct costs are expenses connected with a particular cost object. A business, person, geographical region, or other thing for which expenses are tallied is referred to as a cost object.
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according to most management researchers, the modern study of management originated in which century? a)the 20th century b)the 18th century
According to most management researchers, the modern study of management originated in the 19th century. The correct option is D.
Who is the father of modern management?Drucker is known as the Father of Modern Management. Peter F. Drucker is known as the "Father of Modern Management," and he has been a force in the field for over 50 years. His book The Practice of Management, first published in 1954, has since become a valuable resource for business leaders all over the world.
Management is thought to have originated with Frederick Winslow Taylor, a man whose single-minded obsession with efficiency resulted in the original management theory of note: Scientific Management, but whose deterministic thinking has been superseded by a greater concern for people and the environment.
Thus, the ideal selection is option D.
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Your Question is incomplete most probably your complete Question was:
According to most management researchers, the modern study of management originated in which century? The 20th century O The 18th century O The 21st century The 19th century
which of the following appear on the statement of stockholders' equity? common stock, paid-in capital, retained earnings, and treasury stock.
The following appear on the statement of stockholders' equity common stock.
Which of the following is included in the stockholders equity statement?D. Common stock and retained earnings is the right response. Explanation: The total amount of common stock held by shareholders and retained earnings makes up stockholder equity, often referred to as shareholder equity.
The statement of retained profit includes shareholders equity, right?The balance sheet's shareholders' equity column includes the value of the company's common and preference shares. The statement of retained earnings does not include shares.
What is included on both the balance sheet and the statement of shareholders equity?Both the balance sheet and the statement of owner's equity provide information about the Capital Account's final balance.
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You are a senior consultant for McKinsey & Company and you are based out of the Chicago office. You have several clients in Los Angeles that demand regular on-site visits. You have a significant amount of family in the LA area, so you often host diners for your family while working on-site and charge the diners to your corporate account as an entertainment expense. What type of conflict of interest is most illustrated within this scenario?A. Moonlighting.B. Misusing employer's property.C. Post-employment.D. Misuse of inside information.
The correct answer to this question here is option a. Moonlighting is the type of conflict of interest most illustrated within this scenario.
Employer worries about side jobs typically fall into the following groups: Conflict of interest. Your company might be worried if you hold another position in the same industry since you might be disclosing trade secrets to a rival or bidding for the same clients.
A conflict of interest can exist if your second employment is in the same field as your primary one. Before starting a second job, it's a good idea to speak with HR and get the company's official position on the matter if your employment contract is vague on moonlighting or you can't see a non-compete clause.
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Which of these nations had a lower GNI per capita than the United States in 2019?
India had a lower GNI per capita than the United States in 2019.
GNP is defined as gross domestic product + net receipts from abroad of employee compensation, property income, and net taxes less production subsidies.
Compensation of employees receivable from abroad is earned by residents who essentially live within the economic territory but work abroad (this occurs on a regular basis in border areas) or by people who live and work abroad for short periods of time (seasonal workers) and whose center of economic interest remains in their home country.
Interest, dividends, and all (or a portion of) retained earnings of foreign firms owned entirely (or partially) by resident enterprises include property income receivable from/payable to abroad (and vice versa).
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Correct question:
Which of these nations had a lower GNI per capita than the United States in 2019?
a) India
b) Switzerland
c)Ireland
d0 Norway
how many times are customers able to make a payment via a payment link before it expires?
The number of times customers are able to make a payment via a payment link before it expires depends on the specific payment system or service being used. Different payment providers may have different policies and settings regarding payment link expiration and usage limits.
In many cases, payment links are designed for one-time use only. Once the customer completes a payment using the link, it may become invalid or expired. This approach helps ensure security and prevents unauthorized access or multiple payments from a single link.
However, it's important to note that payment providers may offer options or configurations that allow for multiple payments or extended validity periods for payment links.
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akeshore cinemas is considering a contract to rent a movie for $1,980 per day. the contract requires a minimum one-week rental period. estimated attendance is as follows: monday tuesday wednesday thursday friday saturday sunday 450 300 200 550 1,000 1,000 500 required determine the average cost per person of the movie rental contract separately for each day. suppose that lakeshore chooses to price movie tickets at cost as computed in requirement a plus $3. what price would it charge per ticket on each day of the week? use weekly averaging to determine a reasonable price to charge for movie tickets.
Using weekly averaging, a reasonable price to charge for movie tickets is $7.63.
Akeshore cinemas are considering a contract to rent a movie for $1980 per day.
Now to calculate the average cost per person of the movie contract separately for each day we need to divide movie rent per day by estimated attendance and to calculate the price per ticket each day, we need to add the average cost per person with $3.
Day Attendance Average cost Price per ticket
per person
Monday 450 $4.40 $7.40
Tuesday 300 $6.60 $9.60
Wednesday 200 $9.90 $12.90
Thursday 550 $3.60 $9.60
Friday 1000 $1.98 $4.98
Saturday 1000 $1.98 $4.98
Sunday 500 $3.96 $6.96
Now,
Weekly average = ($7.4 + $9.6 + $12.9 + $9.6 + $4.98 + $4.98 + $6.96)/7
= $7.63.
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TRUE/FALSE. in maryland, you could be fined up to $1,000 per solicitation if you use this method to advertise and a prior business relationship does not exist.
In Maryland, if you use a fax machine to promote and a prior business relationship is not present, you might be fined up to $1,000 per solicitation.
"Junk faxes" are faxes that you receive that are unsolicited marketing. Sending junk faxes through fax machine is often prohibited by FCC regulations under the Telephone Consumer Protection Act and the Junk Fax Prevention Act. If you granted permission, businesses may fax you an advertisement. In all other cases, you and the fax sender must already have a working business connection (based on an inquiry, application, purchase or transaction). If you granted permission, businesses may fax you an advertisement. In all other circumstances, you and the sender of the fax must already have an established working relationship (resulting from a request, application, purchase, or other transaction), and the sender must have acquired your fax number in one of the following ways:
1. Straight from you in the context of the already-existing business connection, such as as part of an application, contact information form, or membership renewal form.
2. From a directory, advertisement, or website when the sender took reasonable measures to confirm that you gave approval for the number to be included and you freely agreed to make it available for public dissemination.
3. From your own directory, ad, or website, unless it is explicitly stated that you don't accept unsolicited fax advertisements.
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which one of the following risks does not apply to preferred stock?
Unlike other investment kinds, like bonds, preferred stock does not have the same risks. Due to the absence of interest payments and expiration dates, preferred stock does not have the same default risk as bonds.
Preferred stock, also known as preferred shares, preference shares, or simply preferreds, is a part of share capital that may include any combination of attributes not found in ordinary stock, such as traits of both an equity and a debt instrument. In general, preferred stock is thought of as a hybrid instrument. Preferred stocks are subordinate to bonds but senior to common stock in terms of claim (or rights to their part of the company's assets, providing that these assets are receivable to the returnee stock bond). Furthermore, when it comes to dividend payments and liquidation, preferred stocks may be given preference over common stock (also known as ordinary shares). The terms of the preferred stock are set forth in the articles of association or articles of incorporation of the issuing company.
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TRUE/FALSE. value-oriented marketers engage in an ongoing process of balancing
Marketers who prioritize value do regular cost-benefit analyses of their products and services. views the connection between the buyer and seller as a collection of discrete transactions, with minimal relevance to events that occurred before or after the transaction.
Value-driven marketers are always comparing the benefits that clients believe they are receiving to the price of their products. They uncover possibilities to better serve their customers' requirements, control expenses, and foster lifelong loyalty by using the customer data that is now available. Value marketing sometimes referred to as customer-centric marketing, is focused on tactics that aim to surpass clients' expectations and encourage customer loyalty to achieve customer success. Value marketing strategies seek to convert consumers into ardent advocates who will use their positive testimonials to spread the word about goods and services.
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Foster Industries has a project that has the following cash flows: Year Cash Flow 0 -$300. 00 1 100. 00 2 125. 43 3 90. 12 4 ? What cash flow will the project have to generate in the fourth year in order for the project to have a 15% rate of return?
The cash flow that needed to be generated in order to have a 50% return rate is $458.96 in the fourth year.
Initially the cash flows are$300, $1100, $2125.43, $390.124.
A return in finance is a profit on an investment. It includes any change in the investment's value and/or cash flows received by the investor, such as interest payments, coupons, cash dividends, stock dividends, or the payout from a derivative or structured product. A loss rather than a profit is referred to as a negative return if the amount invested is larger than zero.
To compare returns across time periods of varying durations on an equal footing, each return should be converted into a return over a standard length of time. The rate of return is the outcome of the conversion.
Show from the formula let us suppose the 4 year investment is X dollars
so, x - 390.124 / x = 15%
= x - 390.124/x = 0.15
= x - 0.15x = 390.124
= x = $ 458.96
Hence the cash flow in the 4th year will be $458.96.
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Assume that kubin company produced 20,000 units and expects to sell 19,800 of them. If a new customer unexpectedly emerges and expresses interest in buying the 200 extra units that have been produced by the company and that would otherwise remain unsold, what incremental selling and administrative cost per unit is incurred to sell these units to the customer?.
Incremental cost: This is the cost which is added or incurred by producing an additional unit product or providing extra service.
Incremental cost is the amount of money it would cost a company to make an additional unit of product.
Companies can use incremental cost analysis to help determine the profitability of their business segments.
The incremental manufacturing cost/unit incurred to sell extra units to the customers is 0. This is because 200 extra units were already produced and was supposed to be remain unsold as out of 20000 units only 19800 units were expected to be sold.. But the customer unexpectedly came and demanded 200 units which otherwise would have been unsold.
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the marginal opportunity cost of producing a bushel of oranges in mexico is
The marginal opportunity cost is the cost of giving up the opportunity to produce one more unit of a good or service, in terms of the next best alternative use of the resources used to produce that unit.
In the case of producing a bushel of oranges in Mexico, the marginal opportunity cost would be the cost of giving up the opportunity to produce the next best alternative good or service using the same resources that are used to produce the additional bushel of oranges. For example, let's say that in Mexico, the resources used to produce a bushel of oranges can also be used to produce a certain amount of avocados. The marginal opportunity cost of producing a bushel of oranges would be the cost of giving up the opportunity to produce the next best alternative good, which in this case would be the avocados. If the cost of producing a bushel of avocados is higher than the cost of producing a bushel of oranges, then the marginal opportunity cost of producing a bushel of oranges would be the cost of producing a bushel of avocados.
In conclusion, the marginal opportunity cost is a key concept in economics that helps to determine the most efficient use of resources. It provides a measure of the cost of giving up the opportunity to produce the next best alternative good or service, and helps to guide decisions about resource allocation.
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select the four principles that underlie the strategic marketing process.
The four principles that underlie the strategic marketing process are customers are different, customer change, competitors change and react and organizational resources are limited.
Research is conducted as part of the strategic marketing process, and targets and objectives are set in order to maximize the success and efficiency of your overall marketing plan. This procedure is advantageous since it enables you to market with greater intention.
Strategic marketing analysis, marketing mix planning, marketing implementation, and marketing control make up the four steps of the marketing process.
A Marketing Strategy's Elements
The client segment to which all marketing efforts are focused is known as the target market.
Business Offering: The goods or services that the company provides.
Competitive advantage: The unique selling point that sets a company apart from its rivals.
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is the value proposition and business model of govworks compelling?
A value proposition is a statement that describes the unique value that a business offers to its customers. The business model of a company refers to the way in which it creates and delivers value to its customers and generates revenue.
Whether the value proposition and business model of Govworks are compelling depends on a number of factors, including the company's target market, its competition, and the needs and preferences of its customers.
In order to determine if the value proposition and business model of Govworks are compelling, it is important to consider the following:
Customer needs: Does Govworks offer a solution to a problem or meet a need that its customers have?Competitor analysis: How does Govworks compare to its competitors in terms of the value it offers and its ability to generate revenueRevenue generation: Does the business model of Govworks allow the company to generate sufficient revenue to support its operations and growthMarket fit: Does Govworks have a strong fit with its target market, or is there room for improvement in terms of its value proposition and business modelUltimately, whether the value proposition and business model of Govworks are compelling is subjective and depends on individual perspectives and evaluations. However, by considering the above factors, one can gain a better understanding of the strengths and weaknesses of the company's value proposition and business model.
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What is bottom-up approach in management?
Bottom-up approach in management refers to a management style where decisions are made from the lower levels of an organization, rather than being dictated from the top.
The idea is to involve employees at all levels in the decision-making process, promoting a sense of ownership and responsibility.
In the bottom-up approach, ideas and suggestions are gathered from employees on the front lines, who have a close understanding of day-to-day operations and can provide valuable insights. These suggestions are then brought up to higher levels of management, where they are considered and evaluated for implementation.
This approach empowers employees and encourages a more participatory management style.
The bottom-up approach contrasts with the traditional top-down approach, where decisions are made by higher level management and imposed on lower level employees. The bottom-up approach is often more effective in promoting innovation, as it allows for a diverse range of ideas to be heard and considered.
Additionally, it can lead to higher employee satisfaction and motivation, as employees feel their opinions are valued and taken into account.
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how did the corpoate culture of enron contribute to its bankruptcy
Enron's corporate culture was characterized by a focus on short-term profits, excessive risk-taking, and a disregard for ethical behavior.
This culture, along with inadequate regulation and auditing, allowed senior executives to engage in fraudulent accounting practices that concealed the company's financial struggles.
This ultimately led to the collapse of Enron and one of the largest corporate bankruptcies in history.
The lack of transparency, accountability, and integrity within Enron's corporate culture created an environment where unethical behavior was tolerated and encouraged, ultimately leading to the company's downfall.
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which of these describes the result of a modified endowment contract
Pre-death distributions are typically taxable describes the result of a modified endowment contract that failed to meet the seven-pay test
Modified endowment contracts (MEC) differ from regular life insurance policies in how pre-death dividends are taxed because they are typically used as investment vehicles. To sell variable annuities, a life insurance producer must be in possession of a securities license.
The surviving spouse of an IRA owner who has passed away may use the IRA as his or her own IRA, or they may decide to continue functioning as the beneficiary and distribute the assets in accordance with the 10-year rule or the single life expectancy rule .
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The correct question is :
Which of these describes the result of a modified endowment contract that failed to meet the seven-pay test?
if money grows according to simple discount at an annual rate of 5%, what is the value at time 4 of $3, 170.00 to be paid at time 9?
At the moment the loan is made, banks frequently deduct the basic interest from the loan amount. In such a case, the loan is referred to as discounted.
What is discounting at simple interest rate?The actual amount that is paid to the borrower is known as the proceeds, while the interest that is subtracted is referred to as the discount.
The maturity value designates the sum that must be repaid by the borrower.
Reduced price and earnings
When a sum M is borrowed for a period of time t at a discounted rate of r per year, the discount D is
D=M⋅r⋅t(8.1.3)
The borrower receives the proceeds P, which are represented by
P=M−D=M−Mrt
or
Where r represents the interest rate in decimals, the equation is P=M(1rt).
Examples:
At a simple interest rate of 15% annually, Francisco takes out a $1200 loan for a term of 10 months. Analyze the revenues and discount.
Solution
The interest on the loan is subtracted by the bank from the loan amount and is represented by the discount D.
D=MrtD=$1200(0.15)(1012)=$150
As a result, the bank deducts $150 off the $1200 maturity value and provides Francisco $1050. The $1200 owed to the bank by Francisco must be paid.
Given that D = $150 in this instance, the proceeds
P=$1200−$150=$1050.
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salma contributes $100 cash to her city's police department to be used as a reward for information about a crime. the city police department is a qualified organization, and her contribution is for a public purpose. salma can deduct what amount of her contribution on her income tax return?
a monopoly is a market with one a. buyer, and that buyer is a price taker. b. seller, and that seller sets the price. c. buyer, and that buyer sets the price. d. seller, and that seller is a price taker.
A monopoly is a market with one seller and that seller sets the price. So option b is correct.
A monopoly is characterized by a single firm that is the sole producer and seller of a product or service, with no close substitutes. This means that the monopolist has complete control over the market supply.
As a result, has the ability to set the price. In a monopoly market, the monopolist is not a price taker, as they do not face any competition and therefore are not forced to accept the market price.
On the other hand, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers, and each one of them is a price taker as they do not have any significant influence on the market price.
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