Riley can paint 1/5 a room in 1/10 of an hour. At what rate does she paint?

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

D starts low on both sides but is highest in the middle

Answer: 1499999

Step-by-step explanation:

1000 x 1000= 1000000

1000000 x 3= 3000000

3000000-6= 2999994

2999994+4=2999998

2999998/2=1499999

Answer:

2.7

Step-by-step explanation:

SI = (P*T*R)/100

P = 45$

R = 3 percent

T = 2 years

Now,

SI = (P*T*R)/100

= (45*2*3)/100

= 2.7$

Answer:

184

Step-by-step explanation:

here's your solution

=> first term = 4 = a

=> common difference = 2 = d

=> formula = a + (n - 1) d

=> putting the value of variable

=> 4 + (91 - 1)* 2

=> 4 + (90 * 2)

=> 4 + 180

=> 184

hope it helps

Answer:

810 Cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

6x60=360

5x90=450

360+450=810

Answer:

-(x^2 + 10x^2 - 2x - 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello There!

First thing we notice is that the y intercept is at (3,0) meaning that they have some sort of fee that has a charge of 3 dollars (represented by the 3)

Because the fee is 3 dollars we can immediately eliminate answers B and C

Now we want to find the charge for each bag of Potpourri (this can be represented by the slope)

Once again we want to choose two points on the line and plug it in into the slope formula

the points are optional but i have chosen the points (1,4.5) and (2,6)

*plug it into the slope formula*

[tex]slope=\frac{6-4.5}{2-1} \\6-4.5=1.5\\2-1=1\\slope =\frac{1.5}{1} or1.5[/tex]

so we can conclude that the charge per bag of potpourri is $1.50 leading us to answer choice A  

Answer: 6.5

Step-by-step explanation:

1 (to the power of 5) is 1 and 5 (to the power of 2) is 25.

25 (to the power of 0) is 1 and 5 (to the power of 1) is 5.

1 + 25 = 26 and 1 - 5 = -4.

Since the slash means division in math and any number to the power of 0 is always 1.

The answer would be: -6.5.

The solution for the expression  [tex]\frac{(1^5 + 5^2)}{(25^0 - 5^1)}[/tex] after simplifying is,

[tex]\frac{(1^5 + 5^2)}{(25^0 - 5^1)} = \frac{- 13}{2}[/tex]

We have to give that,

The expression to simplify is,

⇒ [tex]\frac{(1^5 + 5^2)}{(25^0 - 5^1)}[/tex]

Simplify the expression by simplifying each term in a given fraction,

⇒ [tex]\frac{(1^5 + 5^2)}{(25^0 - 5^1)}[/tex]

Since,

1⁵ = 1

5² = 5 × 5

= 25

25⁰ = 25

5¹ = 5

Substitute all the values,

⇒ [tex]\frac{(1 + 25)}{(1 - 5)}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]\frac{26}{-4}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]\frac{-26}{4}[/tex]

Simplify the fraction in simplest form,

⇒ [tex]\frac{- 13}{2}[/tex]

Hence, The solution is, - 13/2

To learn more about the fraction visit:

https://brainly.com/question/5454147

#SPJ4

Answer:

500,000 grams

Step-by-step explanation:

1 kg  = 1000 g

500 x 1000 = 500,000

Answer:

500,000 grams

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = -3

y = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

C = (-3,3)

Hope I helped! Have a nice day! Plz mark as brainliest!!! :D

-XxDeathshotxX

Answer:

The question is corrected to get;

405,852

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression of the description when written as follows;

'I am a 6-digit number one of my 4s is worth 400,000. The other 5 is worth 1/100 as much. My 5 is worth 5 (10s). y 8 is worth 800. My 2 is' worth 2. My other digit is a 0 what number am I, we have;

The number of digits in the number = 6

The position of the number 4 = 100,000s, we have;

4xx,xxx

The position of the number 5 is in the 10s position, we have;

4xx,x5x

The other 5 = 50100 = 0.5

Therefore, we have;

4xx,x5x.5

The position of the 8 is the 100s, to give;

4xx,85x.5

The number 2 is in the unit position, therefore, we have;

405,852

Answer:

2 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

It is because the 2 wholes and 2/5

Answer:

2 and 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the first two pies are completely shaded giving us the 2 whole. And the third pie has two parts shaded out of the five parts giving us the 2/5.

Now you put them together: 2 and 2/5.

Answer:

Unit Rate:5 teabags for 1$

teabags for $20: 100

Step-by-step explanation:

make 3/15  a fraction

simplify

multiply 20 times 5

Answer:

angle KPL = 70 degree

Step-by-step explanation:

A straight line will equal 180 degrees

To find angle IPN, add angles NPM (60) and IPJ (50) and subtract the number from the straight line (180)

60 + 50 + IPN = 180

110 + IPN = 180

IPN = 70

IPN is a congruent angle to KPL

Congruent means they will equal the same

IPN = KPL

70 = 70

We can check our work by adding NPM (60) and KPL (70) and subtracting the sum from the straight line (180). Our answer should be the same as IPJ (50) as MPL is congruent to IPJ

60 + 70 + MPL = 180

130 + MPL = 180

MPL = 50

Correct

20

[tex]\frac{y-x}{z}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{64-4}{3}[/tex]

[tex]64-4=60[/tex]

60 ÷ 3 = 20

Answer:

1.3n + 9.6

Step-by-step explanation:

3.4n-2.1n is 1.3n and we have the left over +9.6 .

Answer:

Each person got 1/4 of a sandwitch

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Neither the table and the graph is correct.

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

devide 105 by 3 then add one 34+35+36=105

Answer:

It's 37 because the three are 33, 35, and 37. 37 is the largest of all of them.

Step-by-step explanation:

105/3 = 35, therefore the middle number is 35, and the 3 numbers are 33, 35, and 37.

Answer:

24.1

Step-by-step explanation:

7.4x3=22.2

22.2+1.9=24.1

Answer:

3 both sides

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(2, 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

M = (x1 + x2 / 2, y1 + y2 / 2)

M = [ 7 + (-3) / 2, -1 + 3 / 2]

M = (2, 1)

Answer:

ans= -10× +18

-2(5×-8) distribute -2

-10× + 16

thank u i hope that helps

Answer:

1896

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 & 2^7

2. b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b x b & b^13

Hope that helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

just plug 4 inside f(x)=3(4)+5

3x+5=38

3x=33

Divid by 3 on both sides

x=11

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

720 = x +133+138+148+95+105

x = 101