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Answer: True

Explanation:

Let point G be the center of both the hexagon and the circle.

The measure of arc AB is the same as central angle AGB, both of which are 360/6 = 60 degrees. This applies to the other arc measures as well. The full 360 degree circle is split up into 6 equal pieces, each piece being 60 degrees.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

There are not rotational symmetry.

Answer:

3 divided by 7 and x=-1.5*x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

mug = 4

plate = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

10 x + 2y =54

8x + 2y = 46

2x = 8

x = 4

2y = 14

y = 7

Grapefruit=108

Orange=100

Apple=90

a) (108-90)/90*100 = 18/90*100=20%

b) (108-90)/108= 18/108*100=16 2/3%

Answer:

The grapefruit is 20% heavier than the orange:)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the weight of orange be x.

This means that the weight of grapefruit is:

       1.08x

( Since grapefruit is: 8% heavier than orange )

Also, the weight of apple is 10% lighter than apple.

This means that the weight of apple is: 0.90 x

Answer:

True.

Step-by-step explana

-4/5 + 4/5 is 0

An obvious substitution would be to take u = x - y and v = x + 2y, so that 0 < u < 1 (which follows from y = x   ==>   x - y = 0 and y = x - 1   ==>   x - y = 1), and 0 < v < 1.

Solve for x and y in terms of u and v :

u - v = (x - y) - (x + 2y) = -3y   ==>   y = (v - u)/3

2u + v = 2 (x - y) + (x + 2y) = 3x   ==>   x = (2u + v)/3

Compute the Jacobian and its determinant:

[tex]J=\begin{bmatrix}D_ux&D_vx\\D_uy&D_vy\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}\dfrac23&\dfrac13\\\\-\dfrac13&\dfrac13\end{bmatrix} \implies |\det(J)|=\dfrac13[/tex]

Now in the integral, we have

[tex]\displaystyle\iint_R\frac{x+2y}{\cos(x-y)}\,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy = \frac13\int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{v}{\cos(u)}\,\mathrm du\,\mathrm dv \\\\ \displaystyle= \frac13\left(\int_0^1v\,\mathrm dv\right)\left(\int_0^1\sec(u)\,\mathrm du\right) \\\\ \displaystyle= \frac13\bigg(\frac{v^2}2\bigg)\bigg|_0^1\bigg(\ln|\sec(u)+\tan(u)|\bigg)\bigg|_0^1 \\\\ \displaystyle= \boxed{\frac16\ln(\sec(1)+\tan(1))}[/tex]

Answer:

The best point estimate for the mean amount of money spent for textbooks for all students at the College is of $121.60.

Step-by-step explanation:

Best point estimate:

The best point estimate of a population mean is the sample mean.

In this question:

The sample mean amount of money spent for textbooks was $121.60, which means that the best point estimate for the mean amount of money spent for textbooks for all students at the College is of $121.60.

Answer:

this probability is 0.68

Step-by-step explanation:

the probability she buys fruit but not a CD is

0.6 × (1 - 0.2) = 0.48

the probability she buys a CD by not fruit is

0.2 × (1 - 0.6) = 0.08

the probability that she buys both is

0.6 × 0.2 = 0.12

the probability that she buys fruit or a CD or both is adding all 3 probabilities :

0.48 + 0.08 + 0.12 = 0.68

Step-by-step explanation:

everything can be found in the picture

Answer:

Hello There!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Museums are regarded as information resources because there are historical things and artifacts there.

hope this helps,have a great day!!

~Pinky~

Answer:

Below in bold.

Step-by-step explanation:

x + y = 33      where x = 10 cent coin and y = 20 cent coin

10x + 20y = 460

Multiply first equation by 10:

10x + 10y = 330

Subtract this from the second equation:

10y = 130

y = 13

So there are 13 20c coins

and 33 - 13 = 20 10c coins.

Answer:

64.2 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

Shen set timer to run=93 minutes

He has finished his run=69%

We have to find total number of minutes have gone by.

69% of 93

=[tex]\frac{69}{100}\times 93[/tex]

By using

a%[tex]=\frac{a}{100}[/tex]

69% of 93=[tex]\frac{6417}{100}[/tex]

69% of 93=64.17 min

69% of 93[tex]\approx 64.2min[/tex]

Hence, 64.2 minutes have gone by.

Answer:

The intersection region shown in the graph attached is the solution of the system of inequalities

The statements DF=EG, EF=DG and ∠DEG ≅ ∠FGE are true for parallelogram DEFG.

a quadrilateral is a four-sided polygon, having four edges and four corners.

DEFG is a parallelogram.

A parallelogram is a simple quadrilateral with two pairs of parallel sides.

The opposite or facing sides of a parallelogram are of equal length and the opposite angles of a parallelogram are of equal measure.

DF=FG is a true statement.

The diagonal passing through a parallelogram are equal in length.

EF=DG is a true statement

The opposite sides of a parallelogram are equal.

∠DEG ≅ ∠FGE are congruent angles.

Because the opposite angles of a triangle are equal in meausure.

Hence, the statements DF=EG, EF=DG and ∠DEG ≅ ∠FGE are true for parallelogram DEFG.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:Bó tay

The sample space for the suits of a standard 52-card deck of cards is {Hearts, Diamonds, Clubs, Spades}.

It is a branch of mathematics that deals with the occurrence of a random event.

The sample space for the suits of a standard 52-card deck of cards consists of four elements, one for each suit:

Hearts

Diamonds

Clubs

Spades

Each card in the deck belongs to one of these four suits. Therefore, the sample space for the suits of a standard 52-card deck of cards is {Hearts, Diamonds, Clubs, Spades}.

Hence, the sample space for the suits of a standard 52-card deck of cards is {Hearts, Diamonds, Clubs, Spades}.

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Answer:

The expected total amount of time the operator will spend on the calls each day is of 210 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

n-values of normal variable:

Suppose we have n values from a normally distributed variable. The mean of the sum of all the instances is [tex]M = n\mu[/tex] and the standard deviation is [tex]s = \sigma\sqrt{n}[/tex]

Calls to a customer service center last on average 2.8 minutes.

This means that [tex]\mu = 2.8[/tex]

75 calls each day.

This means that [tex]n = 75[/tex]

What is the expected total amount of time in minutes the operator will spend on the calls each day

This is M, so:

[tex]M = n\mu = 75*2.8 = 210[/tex]

The expected total amount of time the operator will spend on the calls each day is of 210 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 weeks : 49 days

42 days : 49 days

42/49(HCF is 7, so divide both values by 7)

that will equal to 6/7

Step-by-step explanation:

everything can be found in the picture

Answers:

(a) [tex]n = 2(r+m)[/tex]

(b) [tex]n = \frac{h^2}{9}[/tex]

===========================================

Work Shown:

Part (a)

[tex]\frac{n}{2} - m = r\\\\\frac{n}{2} = r+m\\\\n = 2(r+m)[/tex]

In the second step, I added m to both sides. Afterward, I multiplied both sides by 2 to fully isolate n.

------------------------

Part (b)

[tex]3\sqrt{n} = h\\\\\sqrt{n} = \frac{h}{3}\\\\n = \left(\frac{h}{3}\right)^2\\\\n = \frac{h^2}{3^2}\\\\n = \frac{h^2}{9}\\\\[/tex]

First I divided both sides by 3. After that, I squared both sides. The (h/3) squares to (h^2)/9.

Answer:

I. m = 2401

II. ((n+1) ∆ y)/n = 1/n[(n – y + 2)(n – y) + 1]

Step-by-step explanation:

I. Determination of m

x ∆ y = x² − 2xy + y²

2 ∆ − 5 = √m

2² − 2(2 × –5) + (–5)² = √m

4 – 2(–10) + 25 = √m

4 + 20 + 25 = √m

49 = √m

Take the square of both side

49² = m

2401 = m

m = 2401

II. Simplify ((n+1) ∆ y)/n

We'll begin by obtaining (n+1) ∆ y. This can be obtained as follow:

x ∆ y = x² − 2xy + y²

(n+1) ∆ y = (n+1)² – 2(n+1)y + y²

(n+1) ∆ y = n² + 2n + 1 – 2ny – 2y + y²

(n+1) ∆ y = n² + 2n – 2ny – 2y + y² + 1

(n+1) ∆ y = n² – 2ny + y² + 2n – 2y + 1

(n+1) ∆ y = n² – ny – ny + y² + 2n – 2y + 1

(n+1) ∆ y = n(n – y) – y(n – y) + 2(n – y) + 1

(n+1) ∆ y = (n – y + 2)(n – y) + 1

((n+1) ∆ y)/n = [(n – y + 2)(n – y) + 1] / n

((n+1) ∆ y)/n = 1/n[(n – y + 2)(n – y) + 1]

Answer:

x = 35

Step-by-step explanation:

The angles shown are vertical angles

Vertical angles are congruent

Hence, 80 = 2x + 10

( Note that we just created an equation that we can use to solve for x )

We now solve for x using the equation we created

80 = 2x + 10

Step 1 subtract 10 from each side

80 - 10 = 70

10 - 10 cancels out

We now have 70 = 2x

Step 2 divide each side by 2

70/2 = 35

2x / 2 = x

We're left with x = 35

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B, 4x6x7 and 1x3x3.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, remember the formula: V=LWH (Volume equals length times width times height). Lastly, find the equations that match that formula, therefor B, 4x6x7 and 1x3x3 matches the formula, so B  is your correct answer.

Answer:

3:1

Step-by-step explanation:

90:30 simplified is 3:1

Answer: PiN, Pi/3+2PiN, 5Pi/3+2PiN

Step-by-step explanation: Use formula sheet

The number of times that the band played an encore at 7 out of the next 14 shows.

Algebra is the study of abstract symbols, while logic is the manipulation of all those ideas.

The band should do an encore at a rate of 2 out of every 4 gigs, or 2/4 = 1/2 shows, according to the available statistics.

We may use the following percentage to determine how many of the following 14 performances will likely have an encore:

1/2 = x/14

14 = 2x

x = 7

Therefore, we can expect the band to play an encore at 7 out of the next 14 shows.

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Answer:

200

Step-by-step explanation:

You were right to divide 55 by 163. The problem, however, asks for the answer to be rounded to the nearest tenth.

Therefore, 55 / 163 = 0.3374 = 33.7%

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Negative. The answer gives - 5

Answer:

Negative

Step-by-step explanation:

-40/8 is equivalent to -5. Since -5 or "negative five" is negative (as it states), the equation is negative.