PLEASE HELP!!
Guys please help i need this

Step-by-step explanation:

the probabilty for exactly 48 people surviving is

(64 over 48) × 0.8⁴⁸ × 0.2¹⁶

the possible combinations of 48 people out of 64 associated with the probability of 48 survivors and 16 deaths.

"at least" is then sum of the probabilities of exactly 48, 49, 50, 51, ... 64 people surviving.

that is a longer calculation of these 17 possibilities.

they go

(64 over 48) × 0.8⁴⁸ × 0.2¹⁶ = 0.0714...

(64 over 49) × 0.8⁴⁹ × 0.2¹⁵ = 0.0933...

(64 over 50) × 0.8⁵⁰ × 0.2¹⁴ = 0.1119...

...

(64 over 63) × 0.8⁶³ × 0.2¹ = 0.00001004...

(64 over 64) × 0.8⁶⁴ × 0.2⁰ = 0.0000006277...

the sum is the probabilty (that at least 48 out of the 64 are alive at 64) of 0.8746...

the maximum single probability (for an exact number of survivors) is as expected at exactly 51 and exactly 52 survivors with a probability of 0.1229... for each case.

of course, this is around the expectation value of

64×0.8 = 51.2 (out of the 64 it is expected that per average 51.2 people survive and reach age 64).

Answer:

Here’s something I wrote that can help you. I don’t really wanna do transformations but this should help you get the answer in a snap.

ONLY FOR REFLECTIONS

Over the x-axis:  (x, y) — > (x, –y)

Over the y-axis:  (x, y) — > (–x, y)

Over the line y = x:  (x, y) — > (y, x)

Through the origin:  (x, y) — > (–x, –y)

So for example E is (6,-1)

Over the y axis so following the coordinate plane rules, (6,-1) — > (-6, -1)

(-6, -1) over x axis which is following the rules

(-6, -1) — > (-6, 1)

Final answer (-6,1)

Answer:

(-6, 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

If you reflect over y-axis and x-axis it is just the opposite of each number.

Answer:

15% of 40 is 6

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  $6

Step-by-step explanation:

15% is the ratio of the price increase to the original price.

As a fraction 15% = 15/100 (fifteen hundredths).

As a decimal, 15% = 0.15 (fifteen hundredths).

__

The statement about the price increase is telling you ...

  (increase)/(original) = 0.15

Multiplying by the original price, we get ...

  (increase) = 0.15×(original) = 0.15 × $40 = $6.00

The price of the shirt went up $6.00.

This is quite an interesting problem. I am not sure how high you are in math, but I am going to use calculus I techniques to solve it. First, we need to model an equation. Let P be the total profit and x be every time you increase the cost by $10. If you think about it hard enough you come up with the equation

[tex]P(x)=(200-5x)(250+10x)[/tex]

(200-5x) is the amount of plots you will be able to sell, and (250+10x) is the amount you charge for. So, at x =0

[tex]P(0)=(200-5(0))(250+10(0))=(200)(250)=$50,000[/tex]

This is the initial condition where if we sell 200 plots at $250/plot.

So, this equation makes sense.

Now, let's maximize using the first derivative of the function.

Let's get it into an easily differentiable form.

[tex]P(x)=(200-5x)(250+10x)=-50x^2+2000x-1250x+50000\\=-50x^2+750x+50000[/tex]

From here, differentiate the problem.

[tex]P'(x)=-100x+750[/tex]

Now, set it equal to zero and solve for x.

[tex]P'(x)=-100x+750=0\\x=7.5[/tex]

This a critical point of the function. Let's plug back into the original equation to see what it gives us.

[tex]P(7.5)=(200-5(7.5))(250+10(7.5))=(162.5)(325)=52,812.50[/tex]

You cant sell half a plot, so we need to see what happens if we sell 162 plots and 163 plots, and then compare which one gives us more money.

In order to sell 162 plots

[tex]200-5x=162\\x=7.6[/tex]Plug back into P(x) to see the profit

[tex]P(7.6)=(200-5(7.6))(250+10(7.6))=(162)(326)=52,812[/tex]

Now, do the same for 163 plots

[tex]200-5x=163\\x=7.4\\P(7.4)=(200-5(7.4))(250+10(7.4))=(163)(324)=52,812[/tex]

As we can see, they are the same. So, you can charge either $324 or $326 in rent. But, if your teacher is not looking for a logical answer and you can somehow sell half a plot, you can charge $325 in rent for the maximum profit.

Answer:

it won't let me message back.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3¹⁶

Step-by-step explanation:

While adding numbers with exponents, if the base of the numbers is same, then it will also be the same in the final answer and the exponents add

Hope this helps!

Answer:

You can just add the exponents power

9+7=16

So its 3^16 in exponential form

You can think of it like this.

for 3^9 its

3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3

And for 3^7 its

3*3*3*3*3*3*3

Now your multiplying them all together.

Really your jsut adding the value so in the end

3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3

So its

3^16

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If the volume of each piece is V = 1/4s²h then formula for s is 2√V/h

a three dimensional shape can be defined as a solid figure or an object or shape that has three dimensions—length, width, and height.

Given that a solid right square prism is cut into 4 equal pieces parallel to its bases

The volume of each piece is V = 1/4s²h.

We have to solve for s

4V/h=s²

Take square root on both sides

√4V/h = s

2√V/h = s

Hence, if the volume of each piece is V = 1/4s²h then formula for s is 2√V/h

To learn more on Three dimensional figure click:

https://brainly.com/question/2400003

#SPJ2

Answer:

X equals 8.

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly, you remove the parentheses

Secondly, you move the terms

Then you collect like terms and add the numbers

Lastly, you divide both sides which gives you 6 x = 48,

so your answer is 8.

Hope this helped.

Answer:

x = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculating purely on the assumption the question is equal to 7(x - 5) = x + 13

7(x - 5) = x + 13

7x - 35 = x + 13 ⇒ expand brackets

7x - 35 + 35 = x + 13 + 35 ⇒ add 35 to both sides

7x = x + 48

7x - x = x + 48 - x ⇒ subtract x from both sides

6x = 48

[tex]\frac{6x}{6} = \frac{48}{6}[/tex] ⇒ divide both sides by 6

x = 8

Hope this helps!

a) Samsung Ltd will record these Journal Entries from July 2016 to June 30, 2021, using the straight-line and revaluation methods of depreciation:

July 1, 2016 Debit Equipment $1,502,000

Credit Cash $1,502,000

June 30, 2017 Debit Depreciation Expense $150,000

Credit Accumulated Depreciation $150,000

June 30, 2018 Debit Depreciation Expense $150,000

Credit Accumulated Depreciation $150,000

June 30, 2019 Debit Accumulated Depreciation $300,000

Credit Revaluation Reserve $300,000

June 30, 2019 Debit Revaluation Reserve $198,000

Credit Revaluation Surplus $198,000

June 30, 2020 Debit Revaluation Expense $400,000

Credit Revaluation Reserve $400,000

June 30, 2021 Debit Revaluation Reserve $500,000

Credit Revaluation Surplus $500,000

Data and Calculations:

Cost of machine on July 1, 2016 = $1,502,000

Estimated Residual Value = $2,000

Depreciable amount = $1,500,000

Estimated useful life = 10 years

Based on the straight-line method the depreciation expense for each year = $150,000 ($1,500,000/10).

Value of Machine at:

June 30, 2019 - $1,400,000

June 30, 2020 = $1,000,000

June 30, 2021 = $1,500,000

Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/19908089

Answer:

surface area is 2(lb + bh + lh)

I think this is the right formula

Answer:

Total surface  area = 62 cm^2.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 2 faces each of area 2 * 3 = 6, = 12 cm^2.

There are 2 faces each of area 10, = 20 cm^2.

There are 2 faces each of area 15, = 30 cm^2.

12 + 20 + 30 = 62 cm^2.

Answer:

1) No solution

2) Infinitely many solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

1) No solution

0=2 is false.

2) Infinitely many solutions

2=2 is true because both sides are equal, hence, it is an infinite solution.

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

69

Step-by-step explanation:

because 34plus 35 will give you 69

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

U

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x^4-y^4=(x^2)^2-(y^2)^2=(x^2-y^2)(x^2+y^2)\\24=8(x^2+y^2)\\x^2+y^2=\frac{24}{8}\\x^2+y^2=3[/tex]

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation: the guy up top is correct:)

The probability that we will be lucky tomorrow and encounter neither tornadoes nor a monsoon is 0.85

Probability is the likelihood or chance that an event will occur.

Probability = Expected outcome/Total putcome

If there is a 15% chance that tornadoes and monsoon will occur, hence the

the probability that we will be lucky tomorrow and encounter neither tornadoes nor a monsoon will be expressed as:

Pr(neither tornadoes nor a monsoon) = 1 - Pr(both will occur)

Pr(neither tornadoes nor a monsoon) = 1 - 0.15

Pr(neither tornadoes nor a monsoon) = 0.85 =  85%

Hence the probability that we will be lucky tomorrow and encounter neither tornadoes nor a monsoon is 0.85

Learn more on probability here: https://brainly.com/question/13604758

Answer:

71.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

71.1 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The rate of change for Function 2 is one third the rate of change for Function 1.

Please mark brainliest if possible :)

Answer:

1- 12.20$

2- 1.30$ + 1.40y$

3- 1.3x + 1.4y

Step-by-step explanation:

input unknown values using x and y

Answer:

-4+7x-3=-21+-4=-25

Step-by-step explanation:

2 3/8 - 1 5/8

19/8 - 13/8

6/8

3/4

The answer is 3/4

Sub 2 Raging Sushi plz

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer is C, 40

Step-by-step explanation:

(100)-(60)

Answer:

D: Both the slopes and the y-intercepts are the same.

Answer:

its the same

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope is -2 and the y-intercept is (0,3)

Answer:

Mexico, Japan, South Korea, Taiwan, and the United States, Chile, Japan, the US west coast;  Chile, Japan, the US west coast; So all that is left for the people who live around the Ring of Fire is to be aware of the danger, perhaps to live further inland, build safer, earthquake-resistant housing, and for nations everywhere to improve oceanic and land-based early-warning systems to help minimize the risk to life

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the first recipe

Step-by-step explanation:

We can answer by finding the ratio of nuts to cereal. The one that has the higher ratio of nuts to cereal is the nuttier one.

Recipe 1: 2 1/2 cups of nut per 5 cups of cereal.

nuts to cereal ratio = 2 1/2 : 5 = 1 : 2

Recipe 2: 1 cups of nuts per 3 cups of cereal.

nuts to cereal ratio = 1 : 3

1 : 2 is a higher ratio than 1 : 3

Answer: the first recipe

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a:

a) 0.3526 = 35.26% probability of rejecting a lot that is 3% defective.

b) 0.4295 = 42.95% probability of accepting a lot that is 4% defective.

For each device, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of a device being defective is independent of any other device, hence the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem, the sample has 100 units, hence [tex]n = 100[/tex].

Item a:

3% of the pieces are defective, hence [tex]p = 0.03[/tex].

The probability is:

[tex]P(X \geq 4) = 1 - P(X < 4)[/tex]

In which:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)[/tex]

Hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{100,0}.(0.03)^{0}.(0.97)^{100} = 0.0476[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{100,1}.(0.03)^{1}.(0.97)^{99} = 0.1471[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{100,2}.(0.03)^{2}.(0.97)^{98} = 0.2252[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{100,3}.(0.03)^{3}.(0.97)^{97} = 0.2275[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.0476 + 0.1471 + 0.2252 + 0.2275 = 0.6474[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 4) = 1 - P(X < 4) = 1 - 0.6474 = 0.3526[/tex]

0.3526 = 35.26% probability of rejecting a lot that is 3% defective.

Item b:

4% of the pieces are defective, hence [tex]p = 0.04[/tex].

Lot is accepted if less than 4 units are defective, hence:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{100,0}.(0.04)^{0}.(0.96)^{100} = 0.0169[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{100,1}.(0.04)^{1}.(0.96)^{99} = 0.0703[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{100,2}.(0.04)^{2}.(0.96)^{98} = 0.1450[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{100,3}.(0.04)^{3}.(0.96)^{97} = 0.1973[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.0169 + 0.0703 + 0.1450 + 0.1973 = 0.4295[/tex]

0.4295 = 42.95% probability of accepting a lot that is 4% defective.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

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Explanation:

Part A

Ignore the g(x) curve. We're looking for the intersection of the p(x) and f(x) curves. The two cross at (-3,-3) which is the solution to the system of these two equations. This point is on both p(x) and f(x) simultaneously. That means the coordinates of the point satisfy both p(x) and f(x) equations simultaneously.

------------------------

Part B

Pick any two points you want from the f(x) curve. You could pick the solution we mentioned, but I'll go for (0,0) and (2,2). When talking about a single curve, it has infinitely many solutions (as long as you pick a point on the curve).

------------------------

Part C

Ignore the f(x) curve. The graphs of p(x) and g(x) intersect when x = -6, which is the solution to the equation p(x) = g(x). We're only concerned about the x coordinate of the intersection.

Answer:David bought an identical mailbox for $ 19.95 at a different store.

Step-by-step explanation:

David bought an identical mailbox for $ 19.95 at a different store. you can buy a same mailbox but for different prices you have 22 dollars you have a 110 percent off you dont have enough