Please help me out!

Which of the following is NOT true about the chromosomes in your body?

-Include 46 total chromosomes
-Include 2 sex chromosomes
-Exist in 46 pairs
-Exist in 23 pairs

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Exist in46 pairs

Explanation:


Related Questions

When your cell makes a new compound, such as glycogen from many glucose molecules, usable energy is needed and is obtained by which action?

Answers

When cells makes a new compound, such as glycogen from many glucose molecules, usable energy is needed and is obtained by removing a phosphate group from ATP, producing energy plus ADP plus phosphate.

What is ATP?

This is referred to as adenosine triphosphate and is the energy currency of the cells.

This is  usually formed from the synthesis of ADP and a phosphate group thereby making it the most appropriate choice.

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The reduction of blood volume occurs following severe dehydration and hemorrhage; however, although dehydration results in an increase in hematocrit, immediately following hemorrhage hematocrit is unchanged. Explain this difference.

Answers

During bleeding, both formed elements (platelets, white blood cells, red blood cells) and plasma are lost from the circulatory system. They are lost proportionally, so initially there is no change in hematocrit.

Hematocrit is the percentage of the blood volume made up of elements (Hct = cell volume/blood volume). During dehydration, only water and electrolytes are lost, and the number of cells remains constant - the same number of cells in a smaller volume leads to an increase in hematocrit. When the body tries to restore blood volume, the first thing to recirculate is water from the ECF and this increases the amount of water without increasing the amount of red blood cells, so the compensatory mechanism causes the hematocrit to fall.

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A boy has been reported to lack fear and not show any stress in dangerous situations. these symptoms suggest issues with which area of the brain?

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If a person is not able to show stress in dangerous situations and lacks fear, there might be issues with an area of their brain known as the amygdala.

The amygdala is an almond-shaped structure which can be found in the medial temporal lobe of the brain, right in front of the hippocampus. It is a region of the brain which primarily deals with regulating our emotional processes like fear response but is also responsible for other strong emotions like aggression and pleasure. In case the amygdala gets damaged, it impairs the emotional memories of the person and also results in poor decision making.

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Injury to cervical vertebra c 3-c 4 is particularly problematic because ________.
A. part of the brain stem is located hereB. several ganglia are near this region that serve the heartC. the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from hereD. the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive there fibers from here

Answers

Injury to cervical vertebra c 3-c 4 is particularly problematic because C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here.

The top portion of the spinal cord, which is made up of the seven cervical vertebrae (C-1 to C-7) in the neck, is located in the cervical region of the spine.Cervical spinal cord injuries are often the most serious kind of spinal cord injury because they affect a bigger area of the body and are closer to the brain. Tetraplegia or quadriplegia, which means there is little to no feeling or movement below the shoulders or neck, will develop from a cervical injury. The cervical spine's middle segment is made up of the C3, C4, and C5 vertebrae. Injuries to the cervical vertebrae C3–C5 are frequently severe because they inflict more harm to the central nervous system.

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Most mycoses are difficult to treat because?

Answers

According to the research, most mycoses are difficult to treat because to determine the responsible fungus it is necessary to culture the lesions.

What is contact dermatitis?

They are skin conditions resulting from parasitization by "fungi"; these are vegetables that do not carry out the phenomenon of photosynthesis.

They are caused by fungi belonging to the genera Epidermophyton, Microsporum and Trichophyton.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, most mycoses are difficult to treat because to determine the responsible fungus it is necessary to culture the lesions.

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plan an investigation on how temperature affects seed germination. ​

Answers

Answer:

Moisture, hormone production, and enzyme activity. For seeds to germinate, they need to imbibe water. For this to occur, sufficient moisture must be present. A warmer climate may increase evaporation and decrease moisture, which would negatively affect germination.

It is said that "animals do not have plastids, but they depend on them". explain.

Answers

Answer: because this has a relation with the food chain of lower levels like herbivores.

Explanation:

as you know plastids are the main source of food production in plants. As they meet the food requirements in plants but animals don't have it so the lower levels like deer who eat grass depend on these plastids of plants to fulfill the need for food and nutrients as animals cant process or made their food. and carnivores fed on these herbivores for their food consumption. so you can indirectly relate this statement to the food chain. and this is how animals depend on plastids found in plants.

Identify the process seen in the picture and write a short note on it.

Answers

The process seen in the image is hay harvesting, which is widely used as fodder.

What is hay for?

Hay is a viable alternative to be used as fodder (for animals to feed in the troughs) if there is not enough pasture or the climate is unfavorable for grazing. It is also used for animals that must be kept in the stable or barn (eg when the females are pregnant).

With this information, we can conclude that Hay is a mixture of mown and dried plants that can be used as fodder.

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Based on your knowledge of scientific laws and theories, which of the following is true?
a. Both laws and theories can be expressed in terms of a single mathematical equation.
b. They are ordered, with theories coming before laws.
c. A law explains what happens; a theory explains why something happens.
d. Neither laws nor theories can ever change.

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

A law is an observation; a theory is the explanation of that observation.

source: http://www.differencebetween.net/miscellaneous/culture-miscellaneous/difference-between-theory-and-law/

In science, a scientific law is a descriptive statement or mathematical equation that describes a natural phenomenon or pattern consistently observed in the natural world.

The correct statement is option c.

The statement explains what happens and is often based on empirical evidence obtained from repeated observations and experiments.

On the other hand, a scientific theory is a well-substantiated and comprehensive explanation of some aspect of the natural world. It goes beyond mere observation and provides an understanding of why and how a particular phenomenon occurs. A scientific theory is supported by a substantial body of evidence, and it can be used to make predictions about future observations or experiments.

Scientific laws and theories are both essential components of scientific understanding, and they are not ordered in terms of coming before or after each other.

Hence , C is the correct option

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Will the real atomic model please stand up?,” describe what Dalton’s theory states about a molecule of water.

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According to  the Dalton's atomic theory, we can see that there are two atoms that compose the water molecule.

What is the atomic model?

The atomic theory states that matter is made up of small particles called atoms. These atoms are capable of independent existence and can take part in chemical reaction.

From the Dalton's atomic theory, we can see that there are two atoms that compose the water molecule. These atoms are hydrogen atom and the oxygen atom.

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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. rna interference is a mechanism of eukaryotic gene regulation. in this mechanism, the enzyme "dicer" cuts dsrna into smaller fragments called , which form a complex with risc and degrade specific .

Answers

The dicer enzyme processes dsRNA and forms siRNAs, which suppress the expression of target genes by cutting mRNA. 1) siRNA 2) RNA.

What are siRNA fragments?

siRNA means small interfering RNA. This is a silencing RNA molecule involved in the RNA interference mechanism, intervening in the expression of a specific gene.

siRNAs are complementary double-stranded RNA molecules composed of about 20-21 nucleotides. siRNA originates from a long double-stranded RNA (dsRNA).

The dicer enzyme cuts dsRNA molecules and produces siRNA. siRNAs suppress the expression of target genes when cutting messenger RNA.

siRNAs suppress the expression of target genes by cutting the complementary messenger RNA (mRNA) into two halves. This is accomplished by the interaction of the siRNA with the RISC complex (RNA-induced silencing complex).

The two mRNA halves are later degraded by the cellular machinery, leading to the suppression of the gene expression.

siRNAs also participate in other pathways related to RNAi, such as in antiviral defense or in the chromatin structure organization.

RNA interference is a mechanism of eukaryotic gene regulation. In this mechanism, the enzyme dicer cuts dsRNA into smaller fragments called (1) siRNA, which form a complex with RISC and degrade specific (2) RNA.

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Determine whether the following statement is true or false, and why: "Populations are dynamic, responding to variations in their environment."
A. False, it should read "Populations are static, responding to variations in their environment."
B. False, it should read "Populations are dynamic, they do not respond to variations in their environment."
C. False, it should read "Populations are static, they do not respond to variations in their environment."
D. True

Answers

The is true that populations are dynamic and respond to variations in their environment (option D).

What is a population?

A population is the collection of organisms of a particular species, sharing a particular characteristic of interest and living in a given area.

However, populations of organisms are dynamic in nature, meaning that they can change over time in response to environmental conditions.

Therefore, it is true that populations are dynamic and respond to variations in their environment.

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A new animal is discovered that is more sensitive to pain in its toes than its fingers. If we were to examine the brain of this animal we would notice that ________.

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A new animal is discovered that is more sensitive to pain in its toes than its fingers. If we were to examine the brain of this animal we would notice that the parietal lobe would have more brain area devoted to the toes than the fingers.

What is the parietal lobe's primary purpose?

The parietal lobe is one of the major lobes in the brain, roughly located at the upper back area of the skull.It is found on both the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex.

Somatosensory information from the body, such as touch, pain, temperature, and the perception of limb position, is processed by the parietal lobes. The parietal lobes play a role in integrating data from several modalities, just like the temporal lobes do. Parietal lobe houses the primary somatic sensory cortex, a part of the brain that processes information from various parts of the body.

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Which of the following examples can cause gene flow between populations?
A) an increase in predators to a population of zebra
B) a volcanic eruption that kills half of a population of mice
C) bird droppings that contain seeds from a different location
D) a person that sprays a toxin on a group of mosquitoes

Answers

Answer: c. Bird droppings that contain seeds from a different location

C

Gene flow is the process by which certain alleles (genes) move from one population to another geographically separated population.

A student did an experiment with ice. A beaker of ice was placed on a hot plate for 30 minutes and its temperature was recorded after every 5 minutes. The table below represents how the temperature and state of ice changes with time.


Time from start (in minutes) 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
State of matter in beaker ice water P water Q steam steam
Temperature of matter in beaker (in ° C) 0 0 50 80 100 100 142


What do the labels P and Q most likely represent?
both P and Q represent ice
both P and Q represent water
P represents ice and Q represents steam
P represents steam and Q represents ice

Answers

From the table, we can see that  P and Q represent water. (Option B)

What does P and Q represent?

We know that the liquid range of water is 0 - 100 degrees Celsius. Within this temperature range, water exists as a liquid substance.

Looking at the table we can see that the temperatures of P and Q are 50 and 100 degrees Celsius respectively hence both P and Q represent water.

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Match these items.

1. Aorta
bring blood to the heart

2. Veins
major artery bringing blood from the heart to the body

3. Pulse
doorways to the heart

4. Valve

measure of the rate of heart contractions
5. Atrium
heart passageway to the arteries

6. Ventricle
passage to the ventricle

Answers

The correct matching is as follows:

Veins - bring blood to the heartAorta - major artery bringing blood from the heart to the bodyValve - doorways to the heartPulse - measure of the rate of heart contractionsVentricles - heart passageway to the arteriesAtrium - passage to the ventricle

What are blood vessels?

Blood vessels are those vessels a re tubes in which blood in the body flows.

The blood vessels of the body include, veins, arteries and capillaries. Larger blood vessels include the aorta

The correct matching is as follows:

Veins - bring blood to the heartAorta - major artery bringing blood from the heart to the bodyValve - doorways to the heartPulse - measure of the rate of heart contractionsVentricles - heart passageway to the arteriesAtrium - passage to the ventricle

In conclusion, blood vessels transport blood throughout the body.

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A ""hot spot"" appears darker than other areas on a bone scan and indicates an area of _________ metabolism.

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A ""hot spot"" appears darker than other areas on a bone scan and indicates an area of increased metabolism.

Nuclear imaging is used during a bone scan to assist identify and monitor various bone diseases. In order to observe internal structures like bones, such as the bones in the body, nuclear imaging uses small amounts of radioactive chemicals (radiotracers), a particular camera that can detect the radioactivity, and a computer. These could be metabolic or other chemical activity levels. Hot spots are regions with higher intensity. These might exhibit high levels of radiotracer concentrations as well as intense chemical or metabolic activity.

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Reduced microglial immunoreactivity for endogenous NMDA receptor agonist quinolinic acid in the hippocampus of schizophrenia patients

Answers

Postmortem and positron emission tomography have shown that microglial cells play a pathophysiological role in schizophrenia.

Reduced microglial immunoreactivity for endogenous NMDA receptor?

We postulated that the previously mentioned glutamatergic impairments in the hippocampus of schizophrenia patients may be related to the microglial synthesis of quinolinic acid (QUIN), an endogenous N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor (NMDAR) agonist. Reduced microglial immunoreactivity for endogenous NMDA receptor agonist quinolinic acid in the hippocampus of schizophrenia patients. We measured the number of QUIN-immunoreactivity microglial cells in the CA1, CA2/3, and dentate gyrus (DG) regions of the posterior hippocampus formation in schizophrenia patients and matched controls. HLA-DR, a popular microglial surface marker, was further immunostained in nearby histological sections. In the CA1 hippocampus sub region of schizophrenia patients compared to controls, fewer QUIN-immunoreactivity microglial cells were seen (left p=0.028, right p=0.018). In the CA2/3 and DG areas, no notable diagnosis-dependent alterations were seen. Potential confounding factors such as age, disease duration, autolysis time, psychotropic medication, and hippocampus volume were taken into account while analyzing these results. There were no variations in the overall density of microglial cells linked to diagnosis (HLA-DR expression). Our results imply that schizophrenia is related with decreased microglial QIUN content in the hippocampus CA1 region. We surmise that this connection could be a factor in schizophrenia patients' hippocampus' decreased glutamatergic neurotransmission.

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How much of the land in the Chesapeake Bay watershed is used for
agriculture?

Answers

Answer:

Across the Chesapeake Bay watershed, 23 percent of the land is used for agriculture and almost 12 percent has been developed. Most of the remaining land is forested.

Which statement is true concerning the skeletal system?
There are 600 bones in the human body.
Bile is produced in the bone marrow.
Bones protect vital organs.
Carbohydrates are stored in the bones.
The smallest bone is found in the foot.

Answers

Answer:

bones protect vital organs

Explanation:

there are approx 200+ bones only on average, hence the first is out

bike is produced in the bike duct which acts to break down fats into simpler substance for the body to intake

red blood cells are produced and stored in the bones and not carbohydrates

the smallest bone is found in your ear, hence the last one is out

In a hardy-weinberg population, 16% of individuals display the homozygous recessive phenotype. What proportion of the population will be heterozygous carriers of the recessive allele?.

Answers

Proportion of the population will be heterozygous is 0.48

Let's start with the basic Hardy-Weinberg equations first.

p + q = 1 and p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

With "p" being the dominant allele and "q" being the recessive allele

We know that 16% (or 0.16) show the recessive trait. This means that the fraction of the population with the recessive trait, q^2 is 0.16

With the value for q^2, q can be calculated

What follows is that q = 0.4

With this knowledge "p" can be calculated 1 - q= p

which results in "p" being 0.6

This 0.6 is the frequency at which the dominant allele is present in the population

heterozygous = 2pq = 2 (0.6 x 0.4) = 0.48

Hence, proportion of the population will be heterozygous is 0.48

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Select the correct answer. rachel ate a piece of fruit and happened to drop the seeds in her backyard. after a few weeks, she saw a small plant with flowers growing in the backyard. which group does this plant belong to? a. angiosperms b. gymnosperms c. pteridophytes d. bryophytes e. chytrids

Answers

Answer:

Angiosperms

Explanation:

Answer:

A. Angiosperms

Hope this helps!

Explanation:

On each side of the skull, the __________ suture joins the parietal bone with the temporal bone.

Answers

On each side of the skull, the Squamosal suture joins the parietal bone with the temporal bone.

The squamosal or squamous suture is the cranial suture between the temporal and parietal bones bilaterally. From the pterion, it extends posteriorly, curves inferiorly and continues as the parietotemporal suture. The squamous suture is the connecting joint in the skull between the parietal bone and the lower portion of the temporal bone called the par squamosa. Edges of the squamous suture overlap in a scale-like formation. It is located just above the ears on both sides of the head. The squamous suture forms the joint of the skull between the squamous part of the temporal bone and the inferior aspect of the parietal bone.

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DNA:_______.
a. is single stranded.
c. directs cellular function.
b. contains six different nucleotide bases.
d. contains the base uracil.

Answers

DNA is single-stranded. There are two types of DNAs, fiber polymer(ssDNA) and double-stranded polymer (dsDNA). Consequently, the polymer binding proteins typically contain fiber DNA-binding proteins (SSBs) and double-stranded DNA-binding proteins(DSBs).

Single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSBs) and double-stranded DNA binding proteins (DSBs) are two different types of DNA binding proteins that participate in many biological processes.

While SSBs typically serve roles in DNA replication, recombination, and repair, among other processes, DSBs typically operate as transcriptional factors to control the expression of the genes. For the study of protein functions, knowing a DNA binding protein's binding specificity is useful.

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The coagulation pathway that begins with the release of tissue factor iii from damaged tissue is:_______

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The coagulation pathways that begins with the release of tissue factor from damage tissues is Extrinsic pathways. Its is a pathway of blood coagulation activated by endothelial tissue .

The clotting of blood is two pathways - intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.Extrinsic pathway is activated by any external trauma or external injury which causes blood to escape from the tissues.

Coagulation pathways is path which allows for rapid healing of injury and prevent from bleeding or other bacterial infection.coagulation also known as clotting , the process by which blood change into gel from liquid.This mechanism of coagulation involves activation, adhesion and aggregation.

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A function ________ eliminates the need to place the function definition before all calls to the function.

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A function prototype eliminates the need to place the function definition before all calls to the function.

The variable that are defined inside the function but not out side the function are local variable and global variable . A static variable that is defined within a function is initialized only once, the first time the function is called. A function prototype is a definition that is used to perform type checking on function calls when the EGL system code does not have access to the function itself. We prototype the function to tell the compiler about the number of arguments and about the required datatypes of a function parameter, it also tells about the return type of the function.

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Cardiac triggering monitors cardiac motion by coordinating the rf excitation pulse with the ______ wave of cardiac systole.

Answers

Cardiac triggering monitors cardiac motion by coordinating the rf excitation pulse with the R-wave of cardiac systole.

What is the function of the heart monitor?

A heart monitor is useful for measuring the rate of your beats per minute, especially if you do some physical activity. Continuous monitoring during practice helps to manage the functioning of the organism, visualizing when the heart beats increase and decrease

Through the electrocardiogram (ECG), the multi-parameter vital signs monitor follows the patient's heartbeat, which are captured through the ECG cable that is connected to some points on the patient's chest.

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after two half-;ives (9 billion years) what percent of the orignal uranium remains?

Answers

The percentage of the orignal uranium that remains after two half-lives is 25%

Data obtained from the question Original amount (N₀) = 100%Number of half lives (n) = 2Percentage remainig (N) =?

How to determine the percentage remaining

N = N₀ / 2ⁿ

N = 100 / 2²

N = 100 / 4

N = 25%

Thus 25% of the original sample remains

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What happens during prophase of meiosis l?
a) spindle fibers reform and attach to the haploid chromosomes
b) cytokinesis begins, the cells pinch off, forming two cells
c) the spindle fibers are made by centrosomes and are attached to the centromeres of the chromosomes
d) the duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange their chromatid segments

Answers

During prophase of meiosis l happens the duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange their chromatid segments.

What is meiosis I stage?

Meiosis I begins with prophase I, a phase marked by the progressive condensation of chromosomes, exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids, formation of the spindle (bundle of microtubules), breakdown of the nuclear envelope and the beginning of the migration of homologous chromosomes towards to the metaphase plate.

In this case, is correct to say that the duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange their chromatid segments occurs in meiosis I.

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Is the following statement true or false? the most frequent sign and symptom of a developing pulmonary embolus is tachypnea and dyspnea

Answers

The statement is True.

Dyspnea has a multi-factorial origin, resulting from bronchospasm or vasospasm, disturbances in pulmonary circulation, immobility or diminished respiratory excursion of the diaphragm, atelectasia and/or pulmonary infarction, anoxia, or impairment of cardiac function.

Dyspnea, chest pain, and cough are the most frequent symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism(PE), while fever, tachycardia, abnormal pulmonary signs, and peripheral vascular collapse are the most common physical findings.

Pulmonary embolism (PE) occurs when a blood clot gets stuck in an artery in the lung, blocking blood flow to part of the lung. Blood clots most often start in the legs and travel up through the right side of the heart and into the lungs. This is called deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Clot in the lung circulation (pulmonary embolus): Breathlessness is usually sudden and associated with rapid breathing and may be accompanied by chest pain.

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