Liam is going to invest in an account paying an interest rate of 5.7% compounded daily. How much would Liam need to invest, to the nearest ten dollars, for the value of the account to reach $23,000 in 5 years?

Answer:

um isn't it (4,14)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

18541.89/9 = $2060.21 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Total college tuition = $18541.89

Number of equal payments = 9

Equal payments = 18541.89/9

                           = $2060.21

(Please do correct me if I'm wrong as I'm not completely sure)

Answer:

(a) A trapezoid has only 1 pair of parallel sides but a parallelogram has 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Required

The difference between a trapezium and a parallelogram

The major difference is:

A trapezium has a pair of parallel side, the other sides are not parallel

A parallelogram has 4 sides where opposite sides are parallel (i.e 2 pairs of parallel sides).

Hence, (a) is correct

Answer:

1. VR and TS

2. TS and RS

3. TV and RS

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 11

Step-by-step explanation:

interior angles of a triangle = 180

equation:

⇒ 82 + 31 + 6x + 1 = 180

combine like terms:

⇒ 82 + 31 + 6x + 1 = 180

⇒ 114 + 6x = 180

subtract 114 on both sides:

⇒ 114 - 114 + 6x = 180 - 114

⇒ 6x = 66

divide 6 on both sides:

⇒ 6x = 66

⇒ [tex]\frac{6x}{6} = \frac{66}{6}[/tex]

⇒ x = 11

Answer:

A. 84 pi feet^2

Step-by-step explanation:

So the lateral area is the rectangular piece on the net

In order for it to be an actual cylinder the 2 circles are congruent

Therefore the radi, area, circumference ect.. are the same.

So the only missing measurement we need to find the lateral area is the length of the rectangular piece

If you visualize a cylinder, the rectangular piece goes around the perimeter/circumference of the circle

So that means that the length of the rectangle is the circumference of the circle

Circumference = 2*pi*r

2 * pi * 6

= 12 pi

Then 7*12 pi

=84 pi

So the lateral area is 84 pi

:0

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

(20x15)0.5

Answer:

Mode

Step-by-step explanation:

Measures of central tendency:

The 3 most common measures of central tendency are: The mean, the median, and the mode.

The mean is the average value.

The median separates the lower 50% of the values from the upper 50% of the values.

The mode is the value that appears the most times in the data-set.

In this question:

To find the doughnut you should make more, you should have to know which has the biggest interest from clients, that is, the one that is sold the most, which means that the mode should be used.

Answer:

Mode

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

...

Step-by-step explanation:ok first off im not good at math try ur best

everybodys smartVwV

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x = -4.5

Answer:

0.005

Step-by-step explanation:

75/50 = 1.5

1.5/300 = 0.005

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply and divide your equation then subtarct it and you get your answer

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1. 6.1 to 10.3

  2. 9.6 hours

  3. 7.5 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The empirical rule or the supplied chart will tell you that μ ±3σ of the distribution is within 99.7% of the mean. Here, that is ...

  8.2 ±3(0.7) = 8.2 ±2.1 = [6.1, 10.3]

The range of hours is 6.1 to 10.3 hours.

__

2. 2.5% of the distribution is above μ +2σ, or ...

  8.2 +2(0.7) = 9.6 . . . hours

__

3. The bottom 16% of the distribution is below μ -σ, or ...

  8.2 -0.7 = 7.5 . . . hours

Answer:

[tex]v = \frac{1}{3} \times h \times r {}^{2} \times \pi[/tex]

[tex]v = \frac{12cm \times (8cm) { }^{2} \times \pi}{3} [/tex]

[tex]v = \frac{768cm {}^{3}\pi }{3} [/tex]

[tex]v = 256\pi \: cm {}^{3} [/tex]

Answer:

C; 6 cubic ft.

Step-by-step explanation:

theres 6 cubes and each are 1 feet 2^ so therefore 6 times 1 = 6 ft. 2^

Answer:

A.) 11%

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1) There are 9 favorable outcomes but only 1 outcome is possible, so that leaves us with a fraction of: [tex]\frac{1}{9}[/tex]

Step 2) Then we need to turn this into a decimal to find the percentage:

1 ÷ 9 = 0.111111111...

Step 3) We now need to turn this into a percent:

0.11 x 100% = 11%

Answer:it should be 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Missing Details

Quarters  ≡ Dimes ≡  Nickels ≡  Pennies

23             ≡   29      ≡  17           ≡  38

Answer:

[tex]P(Q\ or\ P) = 0.5701[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]Quarters = 23[/tex]

[tex]Dimes = 29[/tex]

[tex]Nickels = 17[/tex]

[tex]Pennies = 38[/tex]

First, we calculate total number of coins

[tex]Total = 23 + 29 + 17 + 38[/tex]

[tex]Total = 107[/tex]

The probability of obtaining quarter (Q) of penny (P) is:

[tex]P(Q\ or\ P) = P(Quarters) + P(Pennies)[/tex]

[tex]P(Q\ or\ P) = \frac{n(Quarters)}{Total} + \frac{n(Pennies)}{Total}[/tex]

Take LCM

[tex]P(Q\ or\ P) = \frac{n(Quarters) + n(Pennies)}{Total}[/tex]

[tex]P(Q\ or\ P) = \frac{23 + 38}{107}[/tex]

[tex]P(Q\ or\ P) = \frac{61}{107}[/tex]

[tex]P(Q\ or\ P) = 0.5701[/tex]

Answer:

5X²+7X-9-4X²-X+18

5X²-4X²+7X-X+18-9

X²+6X+9 =0

X²+(3X+3X)+(3×3)=0

ALL FACTORS ARE =3,3   that is  pdt of factor 3×3 =9   sum =3+3 =6

(X+3) ( X+3) =0  

X+3 =0

X=-3

ANS = X=-3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x)x+5x

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\huge\text{Hey there!}[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{If x = 4 and f(x) = y}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{y = 4^2 + 5(4)}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{4^2 = 4 \times 4 = 16}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{y = 16 + 5(4)}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{5(4) = 20}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{y = 16 + 20}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{36= 20 + 16}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{y = 36}[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{\boxed{\mathsf{Answer: \bf{y = 36}}}}\huge\checkmark[/tex]

[tex]\text{Good luck on your assignment and enjoy your day!}[/tex]

~[tex]\frak{Amphitrite1040:)}[/tex]

Answer:

4*x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4x

Step-by-step explanation:

x in this case would be the number