let's say that two people (both heterozygotes) can taste a chemical substance called ptc. the ability to taste ptc is caused by a dominant allele (a). the inability to taste ptc is caused by a recessive allele (a). what proportion of the children of a cross between aa x aa would be expected not to taste ptc?

Answers

Answer 1

0% of their descendants proportion of the children of a cross between aa x aa would be expected not to taste ptc

A single gene with two alleles—the dominant allele "A" and the recessive allele "a"—determines the capacity to taste PTC. A person can taste PTC if they have two copies of the dominant allele "AA." A person cannot taste PTC if they carry two copies of the recessive gene "aa." A person may taste PTC if they possess one copy of each "Aa" allele.

When two heterozygotes "Aa" are bred, half of the progeny will have the dominant gene "A" and the other half will carry the recessive allele "a". Therefore, it is projected that 0% of their descendants would not taste PTC.

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Related Questions

6. Which statement BEST describes natural selection?

population growth of a species in advantageous environments

advantageous mutations that are selected by nature

population growth of a species found in nature.

advantageous growth due to an organism's environment

Answers

Answer:Advantageous mutations that are selected by nature

Explanation: Natural Selection is the process in which certain traits that are created by mutations are able to allow the organism to thrive. Those with these mutations are likely to live better and spread that trait to future generations.

B. advantageous mutations that are selected by nature. For inference, the definitive of the word natural selection.

in order for an embryo to develop male genitals, the embryo must?

Answers

In order for an embryo to develop male genitals, the embryo must receive hormonal and genetic signals.

An embryo is the first stage of a multicellular organism's development. Embryonic development is the phase of life cycle that starts just after the male sperm cell fertilises the female egg cell in sexually reproducing animals.

The consequence of the union of these two cells is a single-celled zygote that divides several times to give rise to blastomere cells. The blastomeres are structured as a solid ball, or morula, which when it reaches a specific size absorbs fluid to form a hollow, or blastocoel. It is then known as a blastula, or a blastocyst in animals, after the structure.

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What best describes the radiation emitted from the sun?
A. It travels at different speeds
B. It is made up of one type of electromagnetic wave
C. It is made up only of yellow light
D. It is made up of different frequencies of light

Answers

Answer: B. Radiation emitted from the sun contains one type of electromagnetic wave .

if organisms used only twelve different amino acids to build proteins instead of twenty, what would be the smallest number of dna or rna nucleotides needed to code for an amino acid?

Answers

The minimum number of DNA or RNA nucleotides required to code for an amino acid is 2, which would be the case if organisms only employed twelve different amino acids to construct proteins rather than twenty.

Amino acids: what are they?

Amino acids are the building components of proteins. An extensive chain of amino acids makes up proteins. There are countless different types of proteins in your body, each of which has a vital function. Each protein has a unique arrangement of amino acids.

The protein can have many forms and perform a number of biological roles depending on the sequence. You can compare amino acids to the letters of the alphabet. You can create new words by combining letters in novel ways. Similar to how proteins are made, amino acids can be combined in many ways to create a variety of proteins.

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when rna transcript is first made in a eukaryote, it requires further processing to become messenger rna (mrna). what steps are needed to produce a mature mrna?

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Pre-mRNA is transcribed from the DNA by RNA polymerase and requires further processing to become messenger RNA (mRNA). The steps for producing a mature mRNA are capped, splicing, polyadenylation, export, and protein synthesis.

What is RNA transcript?

The enzyme RNA polymerase initially transcribes the RNA transcript from the DNA in eukaryotes. This transcript is known as pre-mRNA, and it must be processed further to produce messenger RNA (mRNA). The following are the stages for creating mature mRNA:

1. Capping: A 7-methylguanosine cap is added to the 5' end of the pre-mRNA to modify it. This prevents mRNA degradation and aids in the effective translation of mRNA into protein.

2. Splicing: The pre-mRNA is cut at the introns and the exons are spliced together in this phase. This results in the formation of mature mRNA, which then exits the nucleus.

3. Polyadenylation: The insertion of a poly-A tail to the 3' end of the mRNA modifies it. This is beneficial in the efficient translation of the mRNA into protein.

4. Export: The mature mRNA is exported out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm for protein synthesis.

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describe how light interacts with pigments in photosystems of the light reactions, and why certain wavelengths of light (green) are not helpful for photosynthesis

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In a mechanism known as resonance energy transfer, when one of these pigments is activated by light, it transfers energy to a neighbouring pigment through direct electromagnetic interactions.

What light frequencies are not used in photosynthesis?

Chlorophyll, the green pigment present in all photosynthesis cells, absorbs all visible light wavelengths except green, while green is reflected. Because of this, plants appear green to us.

What wavelengths are emitted by green plants but not absorbed?

Plants have a green tint because of chlorophyll, which does not absorb green portions of white light. The plant seems to be green because it reflects that particular light wavelength.

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ou generate a plant with a mutation in the enzyme rubisco, and this mutant enzyme now shows optimal activity at a ph of 7.5. what consequences might this mutation have on the regulation of the calvin cycle?

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The mutation in rubisco leading to optimal activity at a pH of 7.5 may affect the regulation of the Calvin cycle by altering the rate of carbon dioxide (CO2) fixation.

If the pH deviates from 7.5, the activity of the mutated rubisco enzyme may decrease, leading to a decrease in the rate of CO2 fixation. This can impact the rate of photosynthesis and the overall efficiency of the plant's energy production.

Additionally, changes in pH can also affect the activity of other enzymes involved in the Calvin cycle, potentially disrupting the entire process and leading to growth and metabolic abnormalities in the plant.

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Explain why the Tonga Trench region and the Chile Trench region produce earthquakes with different focal depths. be specific

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I have no idea to what this answer would be

raits thought to be caused by the combined effects of multiple genes and environmental factors are referred to by which term?

Answers

Complex traits are used to describe traits that are thought to be caused by the combined effects of multiple genes and environmental factors. Here option D is the correct answer.

Complex traits are traits that are influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors. These traits are often referred to as "polygenic" or "multifactorial" traits, as they result from the interplay between many different genetic and environmental factors. Examples of complex traits include height, body mass index, intelligence, and various diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.

In contrast, simple traits are traits that are influenced by a single gene and have a straightforward pattern of inheritance. These traits are often referred to as "Mendelian" traits, after Gregor Mendel, the father of genetics. Examples of simple traits include eye color, blood type, and sickle cell anemia.

Complete question:

What term is used to describe traits that are thought to be caused by the combined effects of multiple genes and environmental factors?

A. Simple traits

B. Polygenic traits

C. Mendelian traits

D. Complex traits

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assume you are using the explorer 11/12. on posterior teeth, which part of the tooth is instrumented twice: once when the instrument is pointing distally, and again when it is pointed mesially?

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When using the Explorer 11/12 on posterior teeth, the distal surface of the tooth is instrumented twice - once when the instrument is pointing distally and again when it is pointing mesially.

This is done to ensure that the instrument reaches the deepest parts of the pocket and removes any debris that may have been left behind.

The instruments used in root canal treatment include endodontic files, reamers, and burs. Endodontic files are used to clean and shape the root canal, and are available in a variety of shapes and sizes. Reamers are used to enlarge the root canal, while burs are used to remove excess cement, debris, and access the root canal. All of these instruments must be used with care and precision to ensure the best outcome for the patient.

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Fats and oils are made up of ______________ and ______________.

Answers

Glysrol and fatty acids

i find a fossil arm bone covered in volcanic ash that i think is a very ancient human ancestor. i want to get a numerical age of it. how do i date it?

Answers

To date a fossil, scientists typically use one of two methods: relative dating or absolute dating.

Relative dating involves comparing the fossil to other fossils found in the same location to determine its age based on the geological layer it is found in.

Absolute dating methods, such as radiocarbon dating and potassium-argon dating, provide a numerical age in years. Radiocarbon dating measures the decay of the radioactive isotope carbon-14 and can be used to date organic materials up to around 50,000 years old. Potassium-argon dating measures the decay of potassium-40 into argon-40 and can be used to date materials up to billions of years old.

To use either method, a sample of the fossil or surrounding material must be taken for laboratory analysis. The choice of method depends on the age of the fossil and the type of material it is made of. In your case, given the age of your fossil, potassium-argon dating might be more appropriate. However, it is important to consult with a specialist in the field to determine the most appropriate method and to ensure proper sampling and analysis.

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how does one determine the minimum inhibitory concentration in the broth test? select one: a. reading the concentration on the plastic strip b. testing the fic index c. looking at the growth inhibition zone d. examining the broth for lack of turbidity

Answers

One can determine the minimum inhibitory concentration in the broth test by examining the broth for lack of turbidity.

The correct option is option d.

The minimum inhibitory concentration happens to define the in vitro levels of susceptibility or the resistance of some particular bacterial strains to the applied antibiotic. Reliable assessment of the minimum inhibitory concentration has a very significant impact on the therapeutic strategy which will be chosen and also affects efficiency of an infection therapy.

The minimum inhibitory concentration or the MIC is basically the lowest concentration of a chemical, which is usually a drug which happens to prevent the visible growth of the bacterium. The determination of the minimum inhibitory concentration is basically based on turbidity. High turbidity would mean high concentrations of anti microbial drugs whereas lower the turbidity, the lower will be the microbial concentration.

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During which of these processes is oxygen consumed?

Answers

The process of burning,
•When plants perform photosynthesis
• when aerobic bacteria breaks down dead algae in a pond
• when forests are burned to clear land for forming

Where would you find the genotypes for the offspring or babies?

Answers

The genotypes of the kid are created at the junction of the parent's alleles. The Punnett square findings may be used to calculate the odds of certain genotypes and phenotypes.

Punnett squares are diagrams used to forecast the outcomes of traditional breeding experiments. They believe in Mendelian inheritance, as well as the rules of segregation and independent assortment. During meiosis, chromatids are divided so that each gamete receives just one allele.

Furthermore, various genes are distributed and inherited independently of one another; the chance of one phenotype does not alter the probability of another. The genotypes of both parents must be known to generate a Punnett square.

The alleles of one parent are displayed across the top of the table, while the alleles of the other parent are listed along the left side. The genotypes of the child are created at the junction of the parent's alleles. The Punnett square findings may be used to calculate the odds of certain genotypes and phenotypes.

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Sometimes a hypothesis is not supported. Yet, scientists consider the findings valuable. State one reason scientists would value an experiment that does not support the initial hypothesis.

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One reason through which scientists would value an experiment that does not support the initial hypothesis is as follows:

It supports them to make new discoveries and refine their hypotheses on the basis of some facts.

What is a Hypothesis?

A hypothesis may be defined as a testable statement that signifies the relationship between two or more variables or a proposed explanation for some observed phenomenon.

Hypotheses are always constructed and tested with respect to the experiments. When the outcome of an experiment supports a hypothesis, such a hypothesis is accepted.

But on contrary, when the outcomes of an experiment do not support a hypothesis, such a hypothesis is refined and retested.

Therefore, the hypothesis helps scientists to make new discoveries and refine their hypotheses on the basis of some facts and findings.

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Suppose that 16 pairs of pintaloosa horses have one offspring per pair. How many of each phenotype would be expected? Determine the number out of 16 expected for each phenotype. Only count phenotypes for offspring expected to live past one week of age.

Answers

The number of solid overo is 2, few spot is 3 and white Overo is 0. A pantaloons is a type of horse which is produced from the breeding between overo and leopard.

So from the parameters given in the question, 2 different individuals possess genotype for overo (Ovo) phenotype.

It is very clear from the complete question that the number of:

Solid is 2

Few spot is 3

White Overo is 0

This goes to say that just only out of the 16 pair will have an overo phenotype.

Overo genotype

         Ov           ov

Ov    OvOv      Ovov

ov     Ovov      ovov

Leopard genotype

         Lp           lp

Lp     LpLp      Lplp

lp      Lplp       lplp

The expected phenotype for:

Solid is related to the Overo gene and its genotype is ovov, so from the Punnett's square, the possibility for a offspring is 1 out of 16;

Fewspot is related to both Overo and Leopard gene. A fewspot horse is both Ovov and LpLp, so the number is 3 out of 16;

White Overo is related to the Overo gene and these offspring dies at birth. Since it is asking for the number of ofspring to live past one week of age, there will 0 white overos;

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Full Question ;

In horses, the Overo gene, Ov, produces a white splotch pattern on the coat. The overo phenotype is seen only when a horse has one Ov copy, Ovov. Horses with two Ov copies, OvOv, die soon after birth and are called white overo because they are completely white. Horses with no Ov copies are solid colored, ovov. The Leopard complex gene, Lp, shows incomplete dominance and controls white spotting. One Lp allele, Lplp, produces the leopard phenotype, in which there are spots everywhere. Two Lp alleles, LpLp, produce the fewspot phenotype, in which the horse is mostly white with colored spots. A horse that is both overo and leopard is called pintaloosa, and these horses are spotted with splotches. A horse that is overo and fewspot is considered fewspot because the white areas from Lp is indistinguishable from the white from Ov.

Suppose that 16 pairs of pintaloosa horses have one offspring per pair. How many of each phenotype would be expected? Determine the number out of 16 expected for each phenotype. Only count phenotypes for offspring expected to live past one week of age.

Number of:

Solid:____

Fewspot:_____

White Overo:______

explain where the carbon dioxide comes from​

Answers

Answer:

Carbon dioxide comes from a variety of sources, both natural and man-made. On the natural side, carbon dioxide is released through respiration, decay of organic matter, volcanic eruptions, and the ocean. On the man-made side, carbon dioxide is released through the burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes.

Answer:

Hi there. Carbon dioxide comes from plants when they go through photosynthesis and take oxygen from the air and convert it to carbon dioxide!

Brainiest? Can you click on the crown on this answer? Thanks!

What is an example of parental care?

Answers

When the birds and animals like those belonging to group of mammals keep their children closely attached to them when they are young, it serves as an example of parental care.

Parental care is the act of protecting and raising the young ones until they are able to survive on their own. The mode parental care may change from one person to another. The majority of parental care can be observed in mammals and birds.

Mammals are the vertebrate animals that are characterized by the presence of mammary glands in females. These are the most advanced type of animals with complete organ system level of organization. The examples are: humans, monkeys, kangaroos, etc.

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what pieces of evidence support the hypothesis that tetrapods evolved from lobeâfin fish?

Answers

The hypothesis that tetrapods evolved from lobe-finned fish is supported by multiple lines of evidence, including the fossil record, genetic analysis, and comparative anatomy. While there is still much to learn about the evolution of tetrapods, this hypothesis provides a compelling framework for understanding how these diverse and fascinating animals came to be.

Tetrapods are a diverse group of animals that includes all living and extinct amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals. Scientists have long been interested in the origin and evolution of tetrapods, and one of the most well-supported hypotheses is that they evolved from lobe-finned fish. In this answer, we will examine the pieces of evidence that support this hypothesis.

Fossil evidence: One of the most compelling lines of evidence for the evolution of tetrapods from lobe-finned fish is the fossil record. Fossils of several species of lobe-finned fish have been found that show a range of adaptations that are thought to have been important in the evolution of tetrapods. For example, some lobe-finned fish had limb-like fins with a series of bones that resemble the bones found in the limbs of tetrapods. Fossils of early tetrapods have also been found that show a transitional form between fish and tetrapods, with limbs that were used for both swimming and walking on land.

Genetic evidence: Another line of evidence for the evolution of tetrapods from lobe-finned fish comes from genetic studies. Genetic analysis has shown that tetrapods are more closely related to lobe-finned fish than to other types of fish. This supports the idea that tetrapods evolved from a group of lobe-finned fish that were more closely related to tetrapods than to other fish.

Comparative anatomy: A third line of evidence comes from comparative anatomy. Many of the features that are unique to tetrapods, such as limbs, lungs, and the ability to walk on land, are also found in lobe-finned fish. For example, the bones in the limbs of tetrapods are similar in shape and structure to the bones in the fins of lobe-finned fish. This suggests that the limbs of tetrapods evolved from the fins of lobe-finned fish.

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How do bicarbonates influence biotic factors?

Answers

I hope this helps you

What are three factors that could prevent an organism from long ago from ever turning up in a fossil collection today?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The organism generally must have hard parts such as shell, bone, teeth, or wood tissue; the remains must escape destruction after death; and the remains must be buried rapidly to stop decomposition.

Explain the roles of white blood cells when a pathogen enters the body

Answers

Answer:

They are attracted towards the infective agents, then surround and engulf them. Once inside the cell, these white cells then release chemicals that break the organism down and destroy it. Other white cells, called lymphocytes, target attacks in another way, by making antibodies.

Explanation:

(:

Which of these statements about skeletal muscles is false?A) Their fibers branch.B) They store nutrient reserves.C) They pull on tendons.D) They support soft tissues.

Answers

The correct option is A ;  Their fibers branch. A branched fiber is a type of skeletal muscle fiber that is made up of two or more cataclysmically continuous strands.

Skeletal muscle fibers branch or split during extreme muscle loading and subsequent hypertrophy. A skeletal muscle fiber is composed of a single cylindrical muscle cell. A single skeletal muscle can be composed of hundreds or even thousands of muscle fibers bundled together and wrapped in connective tissue. The epimysium is a connective tissue sheath that surrounds each muscle.

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SOMEONE PLS EXPLAIN PLS "a diploid reproductive cell dovides mitotically to form four haploid cells called spermatids"​

Answers

Explanation:

the mother cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid) then divide into 2 daughter cells (haploid) then those 2 daughter cells form another 4 daughter cells that are (haploid) each sperm cell is haploid and each egg cell is haploid when the fertilization takes place the two cells form a diploid zygote.

Look at the diagram. The function of part 1 is to provide an efficient __________ supply. What one word completes the sentence?

Answers

I’m sorry but ion even know

meiosis in animals is responsible for what

Answers

Answer: formation of gametes cells I think

Explanation:

in woody dicots, the periderm eventually replaces question 6 options: xylem. phloem. epidermis. parenchyma lenticels

Answers

in woody dicots, the periderm eventually replaces epidermis. as to  response to the increased demand for protection.

The periderm eventually takes the role of the epidermis in woody dicots. A layer of tissue called periderm develops on the outside of the stem and root of woody plants as protection. It is made up of numerous cork cell layers, which are distinguished by their thick walls and capacity to withstand drying.

The original epidermis, or the outermost layer of cells on a stem or root, is gradually covered with periderm as a plant grows. The periderm takes the place of the epidermis in response to the growing need for protection as the plant ages and becoming woody. The periderm acts as a barrier against water loss, as well as a layer of defence against physical harm and pathogen infiltration. The transfer of nutrients and water, however, is carried out by the xylem, phloem, and parenchyma cells, which are significant parts of the vascular system in plants. Lenticels, which can be seen on the surface of stems and roots, are tiny, elevated pores that enable gas exchange between the plant and the atmosphere.

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pls help

Why are the cells produced via mitosis identical to one another?​

Answers

Answer:

In short,this is Because each daughter cell carries the exact same chromosomes of the parent.

the presence of increased numbers of circulating nucleated red blood cells may occur with a markedly regenerative anemia. when this occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophillic stippling, it may indicate

Answers

When this occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophilic stippling, it may indicate : lead Poisoning.

What is meant by regenerative anemia?

If bone marrow is responding to anemia, then anemia can be classified as regenerative and the cause for anemia is hemorrhage or hemolysis.  Regenerative response is assessed by identifying immature anucleate red blood cells in the peripheral blood.

Regenerative anemia may be caused by poisoning, infection, trauma, or other conditions that may cause loss of blood or hemolysis ( that is shortened life span of erythrocytes). With regenerative anemia, bone marrow responds properly to the decreased red cell mass by increasing RBC production and also releasing reticulocytes.

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Note: The question given on the portal is incomplete. Here is the complete question.

Question: The presence of increased numbers of circulating nucleated red blood cells may occur with a markedly regenerative anemia. when this occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophilic stippling, it may indicate

Lead poisoning

Food poisoning

infection

Anemia

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