James Watson was awarded the Nobel prize for discovering that DNA has a double helix shape.
DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is a nucleic acid structure that stores all kinds of biological information from living things.
On February 28, 1953, US scientists discovered and clarified the double helix structure of human DNA. The discovery of the structure of DNA was thanks to the efforts of two Cambridge University scientists, James D. Watson and Francis H.C. Crick, who at that time was curious about human DNA.
They observed using a high-level electron microscope, the double helix structure in DNA looks like two twisted strands. One of the bands is blue and the other is red. The discovery of the double helix structure of DNA is like a kind of miracle that unravels many mysteries of the human genetic code.
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Which clinical manifestation would be typical in a closed fracture? a) deformity b) broken skin c) visible bone d) draining wound.
deformity clinical manifestation would be typical in a closed fracture.
In a closed fracture, the skin is not broken and the bone remains beneath the skin, causing a deformity. A deformity is a noticeable deviation from the normal appearance or shape of a body part, caused by a broken bone that is out of place. In a closed fracture, the bone fragments may push against the skin, causing it to look abnormal, swollen, or misshapen. However, the deformity skin remains intact, without any breaks or open wounds. The other symptoms, such as visible bone, broken skin, and draining wounds, suggest an open or compound fracture.
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lola is a tree. she has apples growing out of her branches per quarter second. however, she has a disease and a mother in law, molly, becomes a puppy. how many apples does lola have now that her mother in law is a puppy?
The transformation of Lola's mother-in-law into a puppy does not affect the number of apples growing on Lola. The number of apples on Lola remains the same.
What is mother in law?
A mother-in-law is the mother of one's spouse, A family tree is a chart or diagram that shows the relationships among members of a family, including parents, grandparents, great-grandparents, and descendants. It is often used to help trace the ancestry and lineage of individuals and their relatives.
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A patient with a bowel obstruction is likely to experience which type of pain? A. Visceral B. Somatic C. Neuropathic D. Hyperesthesia.
A bowel obstruction patient is likely to feel visceral pain. The correct answer is option(a).
An intestinal obstruction happens when a meal or seat cannot move through the entrails is called bowel obstruction. The obstacle may be complete or incomplete. There are many causes. The most prevalent are adhesions, hernias, cancers, and sure cures.
Visceral pain is pain had a connection with the interior in the midline of the physique. Unlike bodily pain — pain that happens in tissues to a degree that influences, skin, or junctures — instinctive pain is frequently hazy, take place occasionally and feels like a deep ache or pressure.
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drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via phase i or phase ii reactions. the purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via phase i or phase ii reactions. the purpose of both of these types of reactions is to produce substrate for phase ii to and inactive metabolite for body observation.
The liver is a crucial organ for metabolism and controls how the body uses its energy. It serves as a hub to connect to different tissues metabolically, such as skeletal muscle and adipose tissue. Neuronal and hormonal systems closely control the liver's metabolic functions. Hepatic gluconeogenesis is stimulated while it is suppressed by the parasympathetic nervous system. Glucagon inhibits the effects of insulin by promoting gluconeogenesis while inhibiting glycolysis and lipogenesis. The expression of the enzymes that catalyse the rate-limiting steps of liver metabolic processes is regulated by a large number of transcription factors and coactivators, such as CREB, FOXO1, ChREBP, SREBP, PGC-1, and CRTC2. This regulates the metabolism of liver energy. Insulin resistance, diabetes, and nonalcoholic fatty liver disease are all encouraged by the liver's abnormal energy metabolism.
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Which report is sent to the patient by the payer to clarify the results of claims processing?
The report sent to the patient by the payer to clarify the results of claims processing is called an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) report.
An EOB report is a detailed document that provides information about the claims that have been processed by the insurance company, including the amounts that have been paid, the amounts that the patient is responsible for, and the reasons why certain claims were denied or reduced.
EOB reports are typically sent to the patient after the claims have been processed, and are designed to help the patient understand the results of the claims processing process.
The EOB report will also provide information about any remaining balances or charges that the patient is responsible for, as well as any steps that the patient can take to resolve any issues or disputes.
In summary, the Explanation of Benefits (EOB) report is a critical tool for patients in understanding the results of the claims processing process, and is sent by the payer to the patient to provide clear and concise information about the claims that have been processed.
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Benefits provided by a Medicare Supplement policy must NOT:
a. be payable to the insured
b. duplicate Medicare benefits
c. be sold to individuals under 70
d. charge additional premiums
Benefits provided by a Medicare Supplement policy must not be duplicate Medicare benefits.
Private businesses sell Medigap, which is Medicare Supplement Policy that fills in any "gaps" left by Original Medicare. Most but not all of the cost of approved medical services and supplies is covered by Original Medicare. A Medicare Supplement Insurance (Medigap) plan can assist with some of the outstanding medical expenses, including:
Copayments, Coinsurance and Deductibles.
Even if you have health issues, any standardized Medigap coverage is sure to be renewed. As long as you continue to pay the premiums, the insurance provider cannot terminate your Medigap policy.
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When planning your diet you may want to consider aiming for A. the Upper Limits B. the Minimal Daily Sum C. the Recommended Dietary Allowance D. the Estimated Average Requirements
When planning your diet you may want to consider aiming for C. the Recommended Dietary Allowance.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is a figure that may be used to help healthy people get enough nutrients. It is an average consumption objective over time; daily changes are to be expected. RDAs are established independently for each life stage groups, and they can differ for men and women.
Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are nutrient consumption levels determined by the Food and Nutrition Board to be adequate to fulfill the known nutritional needs of nearly all healthy people based on scientific evidence. The philosophy underlying the RDA notion is that people of identical age, gender, and physical activity levels may have different nutritional demands. Both hereditary and environmental variables are most likely at work.
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A nurse is required to assess a client reporting unusual vaginal discharge for bacterial vaginosis. For which classic manifestation of this condition should the nurse assess?
dysfunctional uterine bleeding
heavy yellow discharge
erythema in the vulvovaginal area
characteristic "stale fish" odor
A client who reports unusual vaginal discharge must be evaluated by a nurse for bacterial vaginosis. The classic symptom of this condition is that the nurse evaluates it as having a "stale fish" odor. The correct answer is option(d).
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition that takes place when skilled is excessive of sure microorganisms in the vulva. This changes the common balance of microorganisms in the vulva. Bacterial vaginosis tends to influence girls of giving birth age. Activities that change the balance of microorganisms in the vulva, in the way that making love or frequent drenching, can increase a person’s risk.
In a few cases, there are no symptoms. In added cases, skilled can be weird vaginal discharge, tingling, or odor. Normally, discharge holds vaginal skin cells, microorganisms, and gelled waste and fluid presented for one vulva and narrow connector. A common discharge frequently has a slight scent and can cause temperate sensitivity of the organs.
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premature babies are especially likely to gain weight if stimulated bya.sound and music.
b.light and colors.
c.touch and massage.
d.movement and acceleration
Answer:
B. Light and colors
Explanation:
the physician orders 650mg of acetaminophen. on hand you have 325mg tabs. how many tablets will be given to the patient?
Answer:
2 tablets
Explanation:
650/325 = 2
For the physician's order of 650mg of acetaminophen, approximately 2 tablets of 325mg each will be given to the patient. It is important to carefully follow the physician's instructions and to always consult a healthcare provider before administering any medications.
Acetaminophen, also known as paracetamol, is a commonly used pain reliever and antipyretic medication. When a physician orders 650mg of acetaminophen, it is important to understand the dose being given and how it should be administered. In this scenario, we are given that the available acetaminophen tablets have a strength of 325mg each. To determine the number of tablets that will be given to the patient, we need to perform a simple calculation.
To calculate the number of tablets to be given, we will divide the total ordered dose of 650mg by the strength of each tablet, which is 325mg. This gives us a quotient of approximately 2 tablets. However, it is important to note that the actual number of tablets given may vary depending on the patient's age, weight, and other factors that affect their medication regimen.
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visual examination of the bladder and urethra via a lighted cystoscope is?
A visual examination through a cystoscope of the bladder and urethra is there to find out the cause of uncontrolled urination, painful urination, or the presence of blood in the urine.
What is the bladder?The bladder itself is a part of the urinary tract that functions as a reservoir for urine before it is excreted from the body. The organs that are included in the urinary system include kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.
Using a cystoscope on the bladder to find out the cause of uncontrolled urination, pain when urinating, or the presence of blood in the urine. Diagnosing bladder stones, enlarged prostate, inflammation of the bladder (cystitis), and bladder cancer.
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Shin splints are usually caused by overuse or improper conditioning of the leg muscles
The given statement: "Shin splints are usually caused by overuse or improper conditioning of the leg muscles" is TRUE
What is a Shin Split?Shin splints are caused by the straining and tearing of the muscles and connective tissues in the lower leg, which repeatedly stresses the shin bone.
Activities such as running and jumping can subject the shin bone to continuous, repetitive pressure that might result in shin bone inflammation (swelling or irritation) and weakness and hence, the statement is correct.
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In the given case scenario, Ms. Bell is a 65-year-old woman, who is under RN Jane. She has undergone a total hip replacement and is under excruciating pain. Unlike regular administration, the physician has ordered a pain medication every 6 hours. Ms. Bell is constantly complaining of pain and has rated her pain to be of the level 10, on a 10-point scale. She contacted the physician to ask if she could administer the pain medication, but the physician gave a strict no. She talked to the supervisor who said that the surgeon seemed to be approachable and allowed a one-time IV dose of pain medication for relieving immediate pain.In the relationship between Jane and the surgeon, the ethical issues going on are:- Oppression against women.- The hierarchical relationship in which doctors present themselves to be superior.- Open disagreement.- Competency as well as quality of care conflicts.- Communication lack.The surgeon violated the principles of:- Beneficence: as his act was not appropriate in providing benefit to the patient.- Non maleficence: his act was not in accordance in relieving the pain or not providing harm to the patient.
From the above situation these statements are correct :
Autonomy: the physician's strict denial of administering pain medication violates Ms. Bell's right to make informed decisions about her own health care.
Justice: there may be concerns about unequal treatment or unequal access to care based on factors such as gender, race, or socioeconomic status.
Fidelity: there is a lack of trust between Jane and the surgeon, which can negatively impact their ability to work together effectively to provide high-quality care for Ms. Bell.
In conclusion, the situation between Jane and the surgeon raises several ethical concerns and violates several principles of ethical practice in health care. It is important for all parties involved to engage in open and respectful communication, to prioritize the well-being of the patient, and to uphold ethical standards in their professional practice.
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A nurse has a difficult client has become frustrated. Which entry in nursing documentation is considered nonjudgmental in reporting findings?
Nursing paperwork for a difficult client who has gotten frustrated should describe the client's behaviour in a factual and objective manner, without making any personal or moral judgements. The paperwork could say, for example, "Client was upset and voiced displeasure with their current condition." This language is neutral, non-threatening, and non-judgmental, which is necessary to protect the client's privacy and dignity.
Nursing documentation, which acts as a record of the nurse's observations, evaluations, and interventions, is an essential component of patient care. To ensure that nursing documentation is precise, thorough, and nonjudgmental, specific wording that accurately portrays the client's behaviour or condition should be used.
It is also critical to capture any relevant observations or interventions, including the client's response to any interventions and the nurse's observations of their behaviour, in a timely manner. This will offer a thorough record of the client's condition and assist other members of the healthcare team in providing appropriate care.
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The peripheral nerves that supply the urinary bladder arise from which region of the spinal cord?
A. the thoracic and lumbar regions
B. the lumbar and sacral regions
C. the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions
D. the brain stem and sacral region
HELP IS NEEDED ASAP AND PLEASE PROVIDE AN EXPLANATION. THANK U SO MUCH :)
The peripheral nerves that supply the urinary bladder arise from the lumbar and sacral regions of the spinal cord. So, the correct option is (B).
What is Urinary bladder?The urinary bladder is defined as the hollow organ in humans and other vertebrates that stores urine from the kidneys prior to disposal by urination. The bladder in humans is an elongated organ located on the pelvic floor where urine enters the bladder through the ureters and exits through the urethra.
The urinary bladder is a temporary storage reservoir for urine which is located in the pelvic cavity, posterior to the symphysis pubis, and below the parietal peritoneum. Pelvic parasympathetic nerves that originate at the sacral level of the spinal cord stimulate the bladder, and relax the urethra.
Thus, the peripheral nerves that supply the urinary bladder arise from the lumbar and sacral regions of the spinal cord. So, the correct option is (B).
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a nurse is reviewing the immune system with a group of nursing students. one student asks about the difference between cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. what should the nurse reply?
a. "Humoral immunity does not involve helper T cells in the immune response."
b. "Humoral immunity does not have a role in hypersensitivity reactions."
c. "Humoral immunity requires cytolytic T cells that attack antigens directly."
d. "Humoral immunity uses cells produced by B lymphocytes in the immune response."
The nurse responds Humoral immunity uses cells produced by B lymphocytes in the immune response.
The main difference between humoral and cell-mediated immunity is that humoral immunity produces antigen-specific antibodies whereas cell-mediated immunity does not. T lymphocytes, on the other hand, kill infected cells by inducing apoptosis. Cellular immunity destroys intracellular pathogens, and humoral immunity destroys extracellular pathogens. B cells are called humoral immunity because they originate from the bone marrow (called the humerus in birds). Cell-mediated immunity is so named because cells are directly involved in killing or destroying infected cells and no other component is involved.
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Paul i excited hi 12-month old i peaking a few word, and at a company picnic, he trie to how off hi child’ kill, encouraging the child to peak for one of hi co-worker. The child doen’t peak, and intead, duck into Paul’ houlder. What i the child diplaying?
Paul's 12-month old child who is able to speak a few words, but unwilling to speak to Paul's co-worker at a company picnic shows that the child is displaying shyness.
Shyness is a common and normal part of child development, particularly in new social situations. Children at this age are still figuring out how to navigate social interactions, and may feel overwhelmed by new people or new environments.
By ducking into Paul's shoulder, the child is seeking comfort and security. Paul's co-worker should not take the child's shyness personally, but instead offer a gentle, supportive approach. Children will naturally become more confident as they grow and have more experiences, but as a parent, Paul can help by exposing the child to new people and environments in a supportive and encouraging way.
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Your question seems incomplete, but I suppose the question was:
"Paul is excited his 12-month old is speaking a few words, and at a company picnic, he tries to show off his child’s skill, encouraging the child to speak for one of his co-worker. The child doesn’t speak, and instead, duck into Paul’s shoulder. What is the child displaying?"
Classify the following statements as belonging to either sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation of the heart:
Answer:
PLEASE MAKE IT CLEAR AND COMPLETE UR QUESTION
Explanation:
an rbc traveling though the right subclavian artery is destined for the hand. which ""exit"" should our rbc take to reach her destination?
The RBC should take the radial artery as its exit from the right subclavian artery to reach the hand.
The human body is made up of a network of blood vessels that transport blood to different parts of the body. An RBC traveling through the right subclavian artery is destined for the hand.
The right subclavian artery branches off into smaller arteries that go to different parts of the arm and hand. The radial artery is one of these branches and is the main blood vessel that supplies blood to the hand. By taking the radial artery, the RBC will reach its destination in the hand.
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what helps nausea during pregnancy first trimester?
During the first trimester of pregnancy helps reduce nausea is to get enough rest (fatigue can make nausea worse) and avoiding foods or smells that make you feel nauseous.
Nausea in the first month of pregnancy is caused by increased production of the hormone estrogen which triggers an increase in stomach acidity. If the frequency of nausea and vomiting is more frequent in the morning, it's because the distance between dinner and breakfast is quite long.
Bland foods like bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast may be an option because they are easy to digest. Salty foods sometimes help, as well as foods containing ginger, such as ginger candies will help reduce nausea in pregnant women.
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The nurse is providing care for a client who has recently been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When educating the client about exacerbations, the nurse should prioritize which topic? A. Identifying specific causes of exacerbations B. Prompt administration of corticosteroids during exacerbations C. The importance of prone positioning during exacerbations D. The relationship between activity level and exacerbations
The nurse should prioritize the importance of identifying specific causes of exacerbations. (A)
When educating a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about exacerbations, it is important for the nurse to prioritize identifying specific causes of exacerbations.
Exacerbations of COPD are defined as an increase in the severity of symptoms and can be triggered by various factors, including infections, environmental irritants, and lifestyle factors.
By identifying specific causes, the client can take steps to avoid or minimize the triggers and reduce the frequency and severity of exacerbations.While prompt administration of corticosteroids during exacerbations is important, it is not as crucial as identifying the causes since it only treats the symptoms and does not address the root cause.
Similarly, prone positioning during exacerbations can be helpful, but it is not as crucial as identifying the causes since it only helps to improve breathing and does not address the underlying trigger. The relationship between activity level and exacerbations is also important to discuss, but it is secondary to identifying the specific causes of exacerbations.
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A person who has a court-appointed legal guardian or who has been determined by a court to be legally incompetent can sign an informed consent form.
Yes, it is true that a person who has a court-appointed legal guardian or who has been determined by a court to be legally incompetent can sign an informed consent form.
What is the informed consent process?The process of obtaining a patient's informed consent includes educating them of the advantages, disadvantages, and possible alternatives to a certain procedure or intervention.
In order to voluntarily decide whether to undergo the operation or intervention, the patient must be competent.
A person who is legally incompetent or has a court-appointed legal guardian can sign an informed consent form. Hence, it is true.
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Neurons encode and communicate information by __________.
a) variations in the size of the action potential
b) the pattern of neural activation and inhibition
c) re-synthesizing various neurotransmitters
d) long-term potentiation
Neurons encode and communicate information by (b) the pattern of neural activation and inhibition.
Neurons are also called the nerve cells. These are the cells of the body which are involved in the transmission of signals to and from the brain. These are also the longest cells of the body. The structure of neurons is composed of a cell body surrounded by various dendrites and a long axon emerging out ending at axon terminal.
Neural activation or the activation of neuron is activated by the surrounding neurons. The activated neuron in return activates other neurons connected to it. It begins when a certain impulse is achieved.
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A set of erythrocytes is placed in a beaker of 0.9% NaCl. Nothing appears to happen to the cells. Why is that?
a. 0.9% NaCl is hypertonic to the cells
b. Sodium blocks the movement of water
c. 0.9% NaCl is hypotonic to the cells
d. 0.9% NaCl is isotonic to the cells
e. Water has not moved at all
When one set of erythrocytes is placed in a beaker containing 0.9% NaCl, nothing happens to the cells because 0.9% NaCl is isotonic to the cells.
In biology, a solution outside the cell is called hypotonic if it has a lower solute concentration relative to the cytosol. Due to osmotic pressure, air diffuses into the cell, and the cell often appears turgid, or bloated.
Animal cells are put into a hypertonic solution then the animal cells will experience creation. Crenation is a condition in which cells shrink or break down. Meanwhile, if an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell will experience lysis, namely the condition of the cell breaking.
Isotonic has the same concentration of NaCl solution and blood cells, so nothing happens.
So, the correct answer is D.
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butter is composed of at least which percentage of butterfat?
Answer: all products sold as "butter" must contain a minimum of 80% butterfat by weight; most American butters contain only slightly more than that, averaging around 81%. European-style butters generally have a higher ratio of up to 85% butterfat.
mercy hospital is a participant in the medicare program; as such, the federal government controls the rate at which mercy is reimbursed for services. what kind of regulation is this an example of?
Mercy Hospital is a participant in the Medicare program, which means that the federal government controls the rate at which we are reimbursed for services.
Mercy Hospital is one of many hospitals that participated in this COVID-19 response; therefore, most regulations did not apply to our hospital because we were a participant in the program. However, some regulations did apply to our hospital and were triggered by the fact that Mercy is a participant in the Medicare program.
The first type of regulation would be a CMS rule published April 22nd, 2019 (https://www.medicare.gov/coverage-letter/updated-guidance), which states “From 1st day of August 2019 onward all existing professional and equivalent credentials may no longer be transferred to another provider after 30 days” , and states further
“This rule will not impact any organizations who wish to transition their certification back into Medicare — provided they have documentation of activities requiring certification activity during the time period for which approval was lost” . This rule prevents anyone from transferring their license back into Medicare after 30 days as specified by CMS
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Which therapy takes the longest time?
a. Massage
b. Education and training for patient self-management
c. Ultrasound
d. Electrical stimulation
Massage treatment takes the most time out of all. Option A is correct.
During massage treatment, a competent, certified medical professional (massage therapist) manipulates your body's soft tissues, muscles, connective tissue, tendons, ligaments, and skin. A number of pressure and movement methods are used by the massage therapist. Massage is commonly associated with integrative medicine. Medical center's are increasingly providing it as a therapy in addition to normal care.
It has the potential to treat a wide range of medical conditions. The process of stroking and kneading the body with one's hands is known as massage. A qualified massage therapist will apply mild or vigorous pressure to the muscles & joints of the body during a massage to relieve pain and stress.
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TRUE/FALSE. if the tachycardia is persistent and causing hemodynamic instability, synchronized is the treatment of choice.
TRUE. Synchronized is the preferred therapy if the tachycardia is chronic and producing hemodynamic instability.
Synchronized cardioversion is the preferred treatment when tachycardic rhythms do not respond to pharmaceutical treatment or appear as unstable symptoms or worsen into them.
Intravenous adenosine is the preferred medication for individuals with supraventricular tachycardia who are hemodynamically unstable.
Taking measures to stop the heart from beating too quickly is part of the therapy for tachycardia. This can entail taking medicine, getting implants, or having additional operations or procedures. Medications. For the majority of tachycardia patients, medications to regulate heart rate and reestablish a normal cardiac rhythm are routinely administered. Every time a patient has a dysrhythmia and hemodynamic impairment, ventricular tachycardia is unstable.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding review outcomes in full committee review versus designated review of animal protocols?
A. The "withhold approval" option is available in full committee review, but not designated review.
B. The option of requiring modifications before approval is available in full committee review but not in designated review.
C. The option of requiring modifications before approval is available in designated review but not in full committee review.
D. The "approval" option is available in full committee review, but not designated review.
The statement which is true regarding review outcomes in full committee review versus a designated review of animal protocols is the option of requiring modifications before approval is available in full committee review but not in designated review.
In the full committee review of animal research protocols, all aspects of the proposed study are evaluated by a group of experts and a range of options are available to the committee, including approval of the study, requiring modifications before approval, or withholding approval. In designated review, a single individual or a smaller group of individuals evaluates the study, and the options available are typically limited to approval or require modifications before approval. The "withhold approval" option is not typically available in designated reviews.
Option B is the proper response, thus.
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The nurse observes excessive postpartum bleeding in a client. However, the nurse finds that the client's bloodpressure is normal. What action does the nurse take?
Answer: Massage the client's fundus.
Explanation: Tachycardia and a boggy fundus in the postpartum woman indicate excessive blood loss. The nurse would massage the fundus to promote uterine involution. It is not a priority to notify the healthcare provider, assess blood pressure, or change the peri-pad at this time.