Client Feedback-Informed Therapy (CFIT) is an evidence-based practice that monitors client change and identifies modifications needed to enhance the therapeutic endeavor.
It includes consistently obtaining feedback from clients regarding the therapeutic relationship and their clinical progress, which is then used to tailor therapy to their unique needs. Client Feedback-Informed Therapy (CFIT), also known as Feedback-Informed Treatment (FIT) or Feedback-Informed Care (FIC), is an approach that emphasizes the importance of client feedback in the therapeutic process. It involves routinely collecting feedback from clients through various measures, such as questionnaires or scales, to assess their perception of the therapeutic relationship and their progress towards therapeutic goals.
By regularly obtaining feedback, therapists can gather valuable information about the effectiveness of their interventions and the impact of the therapeutic relationship on the client's well-being. This feedback helps in identifying areas that require modification or adjustment in the therapeutic approach to better meet the client's needs.
CFIT enhances client engagement and collaboration, promotes shared decision-making, and increases the likelihood of positive therapeutic outcomes. It recognizes the importance of individual differences and tailors therapy to the specific needs and preferences of each client. By incorporating client feedback into the therapeutic process, CFIT aims to improve client outcomes and overall treatment effectiveness.
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The employer/employee relationship works both ways brainstorm some responsibilities the chapter did not list for both employer to employee and employee to the employer
The employer has a duty to provide a good working environment in addition to timely payments, and the employee has a duty to comply with the employer's recommendations.
What is the concept of employee and employer?The difference between employee and employer is mainly described as per the legal aspects of the law. While the employee is the one who provides the service, the employer is the company, which assumes the economic and hiring responsibility.
With this information, we can conclude that The relationship between employee and employer must have mutual respect, respect for the dignity of the employee, as well as the employee must have a posture of a true leader, having this authority and knowing how to impose his authority without being authoritarian.
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a nurse is caring for a laboring client who experienced a precipitous birth. which of the following actions should the nurse take
Postpartum hemorrhage actions should the nurse take to caring for a laboring client who experienced a precipitous birth.
What is postpartum hemorrhage?35 percent of maternal deaths are due to postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), the primary cause of maternal mortality worldwide. PPH is essentially caused by the placenta failing to fully separate from the uterine wall, most commonly due to uterine muscle contraction problems.Postpartum hemorrhage, or PPH, occurs when a woman experiences significant bleeding soon after delivering birth. It's a severe yet uncommon condition. It typically occurs within a day of giving birth, however it can sometimes occur up to 12 weeks later. PPH affects 1 to 5 out of every 100 new mothers (or 1 to 5 percent of them).Classically, there are four types of shock: distributive shock, cardiogenic shock, obstructive shock, and hypovolemic shock.Learn more about postpartum hemorrhage here:
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Question: A nurse is caring for a laboring client who experienced a precipitous birth. which of the following actions should the nurse take?
1. Retained placenta
2. Postpartum hemorrhage
3. Hemorrhoids
4. Uterine rupture
13) when neither anti-a serum nor anti-b serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________
When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum cause clumping (agglutination) of donor cells, the blood type specified is O.
What is agglutination?
Antibodies or agglutinins for the antigens A and B exsist in the plasma and these are termed anti-A and anti-B. Antigen antibody complexes are formed when the corresponding antigen and antibody are not present, thus effectively agglutinating the blood. in this, few blood drops are mixed with sera that contain anti -sera or antibodies. If the blood doesn't react to any of the anti-A or anti-B serum , then the blood type is O. The blood group O contains both antibodis A and B but contains neither A antigen nor B antigen. Therefore , blood type O is referred to as universal donor.
So, when neither anti-a serum nor anti-b serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type O.
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What is management in public health?
Answer:
Explanation:La gestión de la salud pública es un conjunto de procesos que, bajo la dirección y liderazgo de la autoridad sanitaria, buscan que todos los actores del Sistema de Salud logren resultados en salud, mediante el desarrollo e implementación efectiva y eficiente de las políticas, planes, programas
When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember
It is important to remember the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
How is the primary assessment done?
Start your clinical evaluation of the patient as you approach. To aid in your assessment and the creation of a treatment plan, keep an eye out for important clinical markers. A crucial aspect of this assessment is identifying the mechanism of injury (MOI) or the nature of the illness (NOI).
Take into account the following instances when determining the MOI for trauma patients:
Environmental circumstancesVehicle damage and speedType of firearm, surface, and height of fallTake into account the following instances when determining the NOI for medical patients:
The presence of prescription drug and alcohol bottlesData from onlookers, family, and caregivers' environmental factorsYou might be able to forecast injury and disease patterns and severity using each of these factors.
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A client has a warm, moist compress to the lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse recognize as a risk to client safety
The action a nurse recognize as a risk for client safety which have a warm, moist compress to lower extremity is avoiding what would increase the warmness or lower the temperature more
What is client's safety?Client's safety simply refers to ways to prevent and reduce risks, errors and harm that occur to patients during provision of health care.
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Describe why it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines.
It is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.
What is the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines?Outpatient coding is the detailed diagnosis report in which the patient is treated in one visit, while on the other hand, an inpatient coding is a system that is used to report a patient's diagnosis during his duration of stay. So understand the difference between inpatient is very necessary for the nursing staff in order to give the right treatment.
So we can conclude that it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.
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A nurse is providing community teaching regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Identify two (2) points the nurse will share with the client.
Nurse will share points such as:
Using latex condoms to stop the spread of the diseaseUsing prescription medication as directed to lower the chance of transmissionWhat are the causes of HIV and how can it be prevented?The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the primary cause of the chronic, potentially fatal illness known as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). HIV interferes with your body's capacity to fight disease and infection by weakening your immune system.
HIV is a sexually transmitted disease/infection (STI). Additionally, it can be transferred through sharing needles, injecting illegal substances, and coming into touch with infected blood. Additionally, it can be passed from mother to kid while she is pregnant, giving birth, or nursing. Without treatment, it can take years for HIV to progressively impair your immune system to the point where you develop AIDS.
HIV/AIDS has no known cure, however drugs help manage the infection and prevent the disease's progression.
Prevention of HIV are:
You can employ techniques like abstinence, never sharing needles, and consistently using condoms as directed. Additionally, you might be able to benefit from HIV preventive treatments including pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) and post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
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A woman expresses to you a desire to attempt to birth without pain medications. She likes the idea of a labor coach, but she is apprehensive about having anyone other than her husband and the doctor in the room at the time of delivery. What method of childbirth education would best suit this woman
Bradley's method of childbirth best suits this woman.
The process of childbirth is done with very careful planning and methods. Normal delivery is the most common method of childbirth. Apart from this various childbirth methods are also recommended by doctors for safe delivery of the baby. These methods are- C-section, vaginal delivery( normal), water delivery, Bradley method, etc.
Bradley's method refers to the safe delivery of the baby in a natural way coached by the husband. This method is also known as Husband coached natural childbirth. This method focuses on the relaxation and the sense of safety of a woman at the time of delivery without any medication.
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The nurse prepares to administer the inactivated polio vaccine to a 4 month old infant. Which assessment finding does the nurse delay administering the vaccine
The assessment finding which delays the nurse in administering the vaccine is allergy.
What is Allergy?This is referred to the abnormal manner the immune system of an individual reacts to a medication.
The allergies of polio vaccine, although rare include weakness, pain etc which is why allergy test must be done.
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An important skill for a physical activity specialist, __________, or allied health rehabilitative specialist is to be able to choose the relevant mechanical principles that apply to the movement of interest or to a phenomenon occurring inside the body.
An important skill for a physical activity specialist, Biomechanist, or allied health rehabilitative specialist is to be able to choose the relevant mechanical principles that apply to the movement of interest or to a phenomenon occurring inside the body.
Rehabilitation is a recovery process in the health care sector that provides recovery to the patient physically, psychology, and socially. The rehabilitation services are provided by health care professionals like physiotherapists, optometrists, psychologists, dieticians, audiologists, etc., Biomechanists study the proper movement of the body after physical therapy. It recovers the patient quickly from the injury and increases performance.
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which response would the nurse provide to the client admitted with severe preeclampsia who anxiously asks the nurse will my baby be all right
The correct response of the nurse to the client would be "We'll be constantly monitoring your baby's condition. I'll let you listen to the baby's heartbeat."
What is preeclampsia?Preeclampsia is defined as a critical pregnancy situation that is characterized by hight blood pressure which usually occurs from 20 weeks of gestation.
The signs and symptoms of Preeclampsia include the following:
Excess protein in urine (proteinuria) or other signs of kidney problems.Decreased levels of platelets in blood (thrombocytopenia)Increased liver enzymes that indicate liver problems.Severe headaches.As a professional nurse and a competent nurse, it is their duty to reassure their patients which is a way to calm down any situation that may cause psychological stress.
It is the work of the Nurse to reassure her client and that anything is being done to monitor the fetus.
You can further prove this by offering to allow the client listen to the heart beat of her baby.
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To prevent coding errors, always use both the Alphabetic Index (to identify a code) and the ______ (to verify a code).
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment. What actions should the nurse take to treat this side effect
The actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are:
Avoiding smellsAvoid anything that triggers nauseaTaking water in between mealsTaking appropriate medicationsWhat is nausea?Nausea is feeling or a sensation of illness or discomfort in the digestive system, usually characterized by a strong urge to vomit.
Vomiting means to regurgitate or eject the contents of the stomach through the mouth.
Anorexia is the loss of appetite, especially as a result of disease.
So therefore, the actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are avoiding smells, avoid anything that triggers nausea, taking water in between meals and taking appropriate medications.
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A nurse is assessing a newborn with the parents present. The nurse explains that which aspect of newborn behavior is an important indication of neurologic development and function
The presence and strength of a reflex is an important indication of neurologic development and function.
What is meant by neurological development?
The word "neurodevelopment" describes how the brain develops neural networks that affect behaviour or functioning (e.g., intellectual functioning, reading ability, social skills, memory, attention, or focus skills).
The rapid rate of brain development beginning before birth and continuing throughout early childhood is one of the key causes. Although the brain continues to grow and develop throughout adulthood, the first eight years of life can lay the groundwork for future success in learning, health, and living. The differentiation of neural progenitor cells, which starts in the third gestational week (GW), is the first step in the lengthy process of human brain development.
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The nurse conducts telephone screenings with several clients who are scheduled for CT scan of the abdomen with oral contrast. The nurse should notify the health care provider about which client before the CT scan is performed
The nurse should notify the health care provider about Client with a history of stroke who has dysphagia and is drooling.
Why is an oral contrast performed?Oral contrast increases the visibility and helps in detailed analysis of the Gastrointestinal (GI) structures on CT scan.Computed Tomography (CT) scan is a test that combines X-rays and computer scans.Oral contrast helps to opacify the bowel and helps to get better images of the abdomen for diagnosis. It makes specific organs to stand out (GI tract) thus for better detection of a disease or an injury.Commonly used contrast agents in CT imaging are based on barium and iodine.Therefore, the nurse should check first if a patient has iodine allergy.Also the nurse should check if any patient has difficulty in swallowing the contrast or his own drool (Dysphagia) as it can be the symptom of a stroke.Learn more about CT scan here:
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When performing a head-to-toe assessment, the nurse has difficulty hearing the client's heart sounds. What should the nurse do to better auscultate the S1 and S2 heart sounds
The patient should sit up for back auscultation and then lean forward to allow auscultation of aortic and pulmonary diastolic murmurs or pericardial rub.
What are the S1 and S2 heart sounds?They are divided into systolic and diastolic children. In most cases, only the first (S1) and second (S2) heart sounds are heard. They are children of high frequency and celebrate the mitral and triple characteristics.
With this information, we can conclude that s1 and s2 are the first (S1) and second (S2) heart sounds are heard
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A client is being treated with Casodex, an oral antiandrogen, for prostate cancer. How should the client be advised
An oral antiandrogen called Casodex is being used to treat prostate cancer in a client. Even if the client's sickness symptoms go better, they should still be reminded to take their medication.
A medication that prevents the body's response to androgens (male hormones) is called antiandrogen. The term "antiandrogens" refers to substances that prevent the production of testosterone, obstruct androgen receptors (androgen-receptor antagonists), or prevent the conversion of testosterone to its more active form, dihydrotestosterone. Casodex is an antiandrogen that is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. The patient should not stop its consumption till the doctor advises to do that even if the symptoms go better as it increases the chances of reoccurrence of cancer.
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Patients in an obstetrician’s office include both pregnant women and women with fertility problems. Why is it important to be sensitive to women who are struggling with infertility, as well as women who may have recently had a miscarriage?
The disorder known as infertility affects or limits one's capacity to become pregnant and give birth to a child.
What factors contribute most to infertility?Ovulation problems are frequently the root of infertility (the monthly release of an egg from the ovaries). While some problems prevent the release of an egg entirely, others only do so during certain cycles.
Injury or obstruction to the fallopian tube is commonly caused by inflammation of the tube (salpingitis). This could be the result of a sexually transmitted infection, endometriosis, adhesions, or pelvic inflammatory disease, which are the usual causes of these symptoms. Endometriosis, which happens when endometrial tissue expands outside of the uterus, may have an impact on the ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes.
Women in these situations should take the prescribed drugs as directed by their doctor.
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A blood-borne pathogen training class might
include.
A bloodborne pathogen training class might include Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and hepatitis C virus (HCV) they are the most common bloodborne pathogens from which health care workers are at risk
The medical term ____________________ describes a chronic condition that produces redness, tiny pimples, and broken blood vessels.
The medical term Rosacea describes a chronic condition that produces redness, tiny pimples, and broken blood vessels.
Skin disorders:
When any pathogen like bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc. invades the body it causes infection or disease. The infection can be of any part of the body. The infections that occur on the dermal surface of the body like on the skin are known as skin disorders or skin diseases. These may be painful, painless, temporary, or lethal. Some of the skin disorders are Acne, blisters, etc.,
Rosacea is a chronic skin disorder, caused by the intestinal bacteria Helicobacter pyroli. Rosacea are of four types-
Vascular Rosacea,Inflammatory Rosacea,Phymatous Rosacea,Ocular Rosacea.Learn more about Rosacea from here,
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A person consuming 2200 kcal/day who wants to meet AMDR recommendations should limit daily fat intake to:
For a person consuming 2200 kcal/day to meet the AMDR for fat intake, he/she must limit daily fat intake to 440-770 kcal/day (AMDR for fat intake is 20-35% of total kcal).
What is AMDR?The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) expresses dietary recommendations in the context of a complete diet.It recommends the range of intake of a macronutrient.This provides simple targets to people for consuming carbs, fat and protein in amounts that generally support good health while making meal planning easier for certain people. A diet with this distribution of protein, fat, and carbohydrates may be helpful for prevention of diseases like heart disease, type 2 diabetes, etc.AMDR for fat intake is 20-35% of total energy intake (kcal)For a person consuming 2200 kcal/day,
20% of 2200= 440 and 35% of 2200= 770;
i.e. 440- 770 kcal/day.
AMDR for carbohydrate intake is 45-65% of total energy intake (kcal)AMDR for proteins intake is 10-35% of total energy intake (kcal)Learn more about AMDR here:
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The nurse is assisting with a presentation on protecting clients' privacy and confidentiality. Which of the following incidents does the nurse recognize as a violation of client confidentiality
An oncology nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client in the emergency department who was the victim of a recent mass shooting event, The licensed practical nurse (LPN) leaves the client's report sheet in the cafeteria after lunch and The UAP tells a client that the hospital roommate will return to the room after receiving hemodialysis.
What is oncology?A physician who treats cancer and offers medical attention to someone who has been diagnosed with cancer is known as an oncologist. A cancer specialist is another name for an oncologist. Medical oncology, radiation oncology, and surgical oncology are the three main subfields that make up the oncology sector in terms of treatments.Cancer is studied in oncology. Confirming a patient's initial diagnosis is one of the many procedures that oncologists specialize in performing in order to manage and treat patients throughout the course of the disease.A malignancy must first be diagnosed by an oncologist, who typically uses a biopsy, endoscopy, X-ray, CT scan, MRI, PET scan, ultrasound, or other radiological techniques. Blood tests, tumor markers, and nuclear medicine can all be used to diagnose cancer.Question: The nurse is assisting with a presentation on protecting clients' privacy and confidentiality. Which of the following incidents does the nurse recognize as a violation of client confidentiality? Select all that apply.
1. A family member informs the registered nurse that the client has not been taking the prescribed metformin at home.
2. An oncology nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client in the emergency department who was the victim of a recent mass shooting event.
3. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) leaves the client's report sheet in the cafeteria after lunch.
4. The LPN tells the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is pregnant to not enter the room of a client with toxoplasmosis.
5. The UAP tells a client that the hospital roommate will return to the room after receiving hemodialysis.
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A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
The patient the nurse would identify as having an increased IOP suggesting glaucoma is patient D with an Increased IOP greater than 24 mmHg.
What is intraocular pressure?This is known as the fluid pressure of the eye. This is the amount of force the internal fluid is applying inside of the eye.
As pressure is a measure of force per area, IOP is a measurement involving the magnitude of the force exerted by the aqueous humour on the internal surface area of the anterior eye.
Hence, a high IOP greater than 24mmHg in a patient suggests glaucoma, therefore, the correct answer is option D.
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The complete question
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
Patient A: IOP 12 mm Hg
Patient B: IOP 15 mm Hg
Patient C: IOP 21 mm Hg
Patient D: IOP 24 mm Hg
Which patient would the nurse identify as having increased IOP suggesting glaucoma?
A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. The health care provider suspects the child has developed:
The health care provider suspects the child has developed: Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) shows symptoms like infection of the skin or throat and caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (GN) is a kidney disease that occurs after infection with certain strains of streptococcal bacteria. The kidneys are responsible for removing waste from the body, regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure, and stimulating the production of red blood cells. A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. So these are the symptoms of Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.
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A 6-year-old patient is seen in the office for acute otitis media, coded as H66.90. This is an example of what ICD-10-CM convention
A 6-year-old patient with acute otitis media is examined in the office; the diagnosis is H66.90. This is an example of the ICD-10-CM Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) convention.
Not Otherwise Specified (NOS)Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) is a subtype of diseases and disorders in medical classification schemes such as the ICD-9, ICD-10, or DSM-IV. When a particular diagnosis was not determined but the symptoms were enough to generate a broad diagnostic, it is usually used to highlight the presence of an ailment.
According to the DSM-IV, for instance, "an illness or disturbance that does not fit the criteria for the specific disorders already addressed is referred to as not otherwise specified (NOS)". The phrase was created as a result of the fact that "it is sometimes difficult for the practitioner doing the diagnostic evaluation to group all of the symptoms that a client is experiencing into one diagnostic category."
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Which finding(s) is a major criterion used to help the health care provider diagnose acute rheumatic fever in a child
Subcutaneous nodules and Pericarditis are considered major criteria used in the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever.
Rheumatic fever is an untreated throat streptococcal infection-related consequence that causes inflammation of the joints, heart, skin, and neurological system. While rheumatic fever can occur at any age, it tends to affect children and teenagers between the ages of 5 and 15.
Depending on which body organs become damaged, rheumatic fever symptoms might vary substantially. Rheumatic fever symptoms include joint discomfort, fever, and swelling. Heart inflammation (carditis)-related chest discomfort or palpitations as well as tiny nodules under the skin.
Some children with heart inflammation do not even exhibit any symptoms, and the inflammation is only identified until there is cardiac damage years later. Other children experience chest pain brought on by heart sac inflammation ( pericarditis). Children may experience both chest pain and a high fever.
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quizlet A nurse is taking an admission history from a client who reports Raynaud's disease. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a parenteral trigger for exacerbation of Raynaud's
A parenteral trigger for exacerbation of Raynaud's syndrome is exposure to cold.
What can cause Raynaud's syndrome?One of the main causes is exposure to cold. Thus, people who live in places with milder temperatures or who are exposed to colder temperatures (washing dishes with cold water or handling ice) may have Raynaud's syndrome.
What does Raynaud syndrome mean?Constriction of the small arteries in the fingers and toes starts quickly and is most often triggered by exposure to cold. The episode can last minutes or hours. The fingers and toes become pale (pallor) or bluish (cyanosis), usually in plaques.
With this information, we can conclude that To prevent attacks of Raynaud's syndrome, you must avoid cooling the body. Dress well in cold weather and spring-autumn seasons.
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A 4-year-old boy was seen two weeks ago by his pediatrician because his father was concerned about him being very clumsy lately. The boy also has a hard time running, climbing stairs and he walks on tiptoes. There is a strong family history of muscular dystrophy. They are here today to go over the results of a muscle biopsy and EMG results. A confirmed diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy was made. The pediatrician wrote a prescription for physical therapy, and leg braces.
The 2022 ICD-10-CM Diagnostic code for this type of disease involving the nervous system is G71.01.
What is ICD-10-CM code?This is known as morbidity classification which classifies diagnosis and reasons for visits to healthcare facilities.
The boy has muscular dystrophy as a result of defects in the nervous system with the diagnosis for such being G00-G99 thererby making G71.01 the most appropriate choice.
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How should agent Erin respond when consumer Mrs. Rose notices that the presented MA Plan has a Star Rating of 2 stars?
Erin must respond when consumer Mrs. Rose realizes that the presented Health Care Plan has a 2 star rating, that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
What is star scale in MA Plan?Plans are rated on a scale of one to five, with one star representing poor performance and five stars representing excellent performance. Star ratings are released annually and reflect the experiences of people enrolled in Medicare Advantage and Part D prescription drug plans. The Star Ratings system supports CMS' efforts to empower people to make the best health decisions for them.
With this information, we can conclude that that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
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