In the production of polyspecific AHG, IgG and complement antibodies are absorbed with A1, B and O cells to remove heterospecific antibodies.
In 1945, Coombs, Mourаnt аnd Rаce described a technique for detecting аttаchment of Rh аntibodies in serum thаt did not produce аgglutinаtion. This test is known аs the аntiglobulin test (АHG) аnd uses аntibody to humаn globulin. In 1946, Coombs аnd аssociаtes described the use of АHG to detect in vivo sensitizаtion of the red cells of bаbies suffering from hemolytic diseаse of the new-born (HDN).
The аbsorption is used to remove heterospecific аntibodies аnd the dilution to аvoid prozone but the аntiglobulin serum still retаined sufficient аntibody аctivity to permit cross-linking of аdjаcent red cells coаted with IgG аntibodies.
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Some researchers explain Capgras syndrome as
A. a simple failure of visual recognition.
B. the result of a disconnection between a cognitive appraisal and a sense of familiarity.
C. a subtype of schizophrenia.
D. a failure of long-term memory, because patients cannot remember what their own close family members look like.
Capgras syndrome is basically the result of a disconnection between a cognitive appraisal and a sense of familiarity as explain by some researchers so the correct option is B.
This is due to the disposition between a cognitive appraisal and also the sense of familiarity. It isn't caused by a simple failure of visual recognition, nor is it a subtype of schizophrenia. Rather, it's believed to be caused by a failure of long- term memory, because cases can not flash back what their own close family members look like. When they're brazened with someone they're familiar with, they can not recall the person’s identity and thus it is believe that the person has been replaced. by someone other.
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Which event stimulated the rapid development of eukaryotes?
A) extinction of some organisms
B) addition of oxygen to the atmosphere
C) origin of multicellular organisms
D) colonization of land
The addition of oxygen to the Earth's atmosphere, often referred to as the Great Oxygenation Event or Oxygen Catastrophe, played a crucial role in the evolution and development of eukaryotes. Hence option B is correct.
Prior to this event, Earth's early atmosphere had very low oxygen levels. The rise of oxygen was primarily a result of oxygen-producing photosynthetic bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, which emerged and thrived in ancient oceans.
Through the process of photosynthesis, these organisms released oxygen as a byproduct, gradually increasing its concentration in the atmosphere over millions of years.
The availability of oxygen in the atmosphere created new ecological niches and selective pressures, leading to the development of more complex and energy-efficient cellular structures, such as mitochondria, which are essential components of eukaryotic cells.
The ability to generate energy more efficiently through aerobic respiration conferred a significant advantage to early eukaryotes, allowing them to thrive and diversify.
Therefore, option B, the addition of oxygen to the atmosphere is correct.
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Record your answer from lab exercise #1, step 1, question 1. What time in hours:minutes:seconds gmt did the p waves arrive?
The first P-wave will arrive at 1:22 p.m. based on the epicentre and the time of the first S-arrival. wave's
The P and S waves are described. The primary or P waves are the ones that are first observed at the epicenter and are also the first to arrive. The secondary or S waves, on the other hand, are those that do not pass through liquids and are the ones that arrive second. Therefore, the answer is that there is a four-minute difference between the arrival times of the two waves. There is a time difference between the P and S waves because the P waves move quickly and can penetrate solids and liquids at a faster rate than the S waves. They consequently influence the seismograph's arrival time. As a result, choice One is right.
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which is the best rapid test to differentiate plesiomonas shigelloides from a shigella species on selective enteric agar?
Oxidase test is the best rapid test to differentiate plesiomonas shigelloides from a shigella species on selective enteric agar.
By using the redox dye tetramethyl-p-phenylene-diamine and a cytochrome oxidase system that will catalyze the transfer of electrons between electron donors in the bacteria, the oxidase test can identify the existence of these components in bacteria. To a rich purple tint, the dye is lowered. Pseudomonas, Neisseria, Alcaligens, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, Vibrio, Brucella, and Pasteurella are all known to manufacture the cytochrome oxidase and are all detected using this test to help in their identification.
Shigella species on MacConkey agar will resemble P. shigelloides, a lactose nonfermenter. TSI Alk/Acid and urease are both negative for both. Shigella typically causes delayed indole synthesis, while Plesiomonas produces it. However, Shigella species are oxidase negative, whereas Plesiomonas is oxidase positive.
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what is the tragedy of the commons definition environmental science?
The tragedy of the commons is a concept in environmental science that refers to a situation where a shared resource, such as a common pasture or a fishery, is overused and depleted because individuals acting in their own self-interest do not have sufficient incentives to conserve the resource.
The reason for this is that each person acting in their own self-interest is motivated to utilize as much of the resource as they can without thinking about how their activities would affect the resource's long-term sustainability. Even if it is in everyone's best interest to save the resource for later use, as a result of abuse, it eventually runs out.
Numerous environmental problems, such as overfishing, deforestation, air and water pollution, and soil erosion, are affected by the tragedy of the commons. Each time, the resource is a shared one, therefore the users are not entirely responsible for the consequences of their activities. Despite the fact that it would be in society's best interests, this results in excessive use and resource loss.
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Is it possible for a male to have different color‑blindness phenotypes in each eye?A)yes, in an XYY male with a different active Y in each eye B)no, since XXY males lack X-chromosome inactivation C)no, since trisomy of the sex chromosomes is lethal D)yes, in an XXY male with a different active X in each eye
Yes, it is possible for a male to have different color-blindness phenotypes in each eye if the male is XXY with a different active X in each eye. Therefore, the correct option is D.
XXY males typically undergo X-chromosome inactivation, similar to XX females, where one of the X chromosomes in each cell is inactivated to achieve gene dosage compensation.
However, the process of X-chromosome inactivation can be incomplete or mosaic in XXY individuals.
If X-chromosome inactivation is mosaic in an XXY male, different X chromosomes can be inactivated in different cells, including those in the eyes. This means that each eye could have a different active X chromosome carrying different alleles for color vision genes, resulting in different color-blindness phenotypes.
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After composing an open-ended, debatable question, the next step to developing a well-supported, logical argument is to.
Option c is Correct. The following phase in creating a well-supported, logical argument comes after creating an open-ended, debatable question: locate numerous trustworthy sources with varying viewpoints on the subject.
One should comprehend all viewpoints on the argument subject in order to construct a compelling and logical argument. Understanding the competing viewpoints on the subject will enable one to provide a thorough and comprehensive examination of it.
Ideas are well presented. Because the subject has been well researched and all relevant factors have been taken into account, the audience will comprehend and accept the concept. After examining several viewpoints, a conclusion that presents a compelling, logical case for the topic can be formed.
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Correct Question:
After composing an open-ended, debatable question, the next step to developing a well-supported, logical argument is to
1. identify the main issues regarding the topic.
2. determine the main arguments for and against the topic.
3. find various reliable resources with different perspectives about the topic.
4. take a stand on the issue and determine the right and wrong sides of the topic.
which small blood vessels distribute blood throughout the body?
Vessels. Minuscule veins supply routes and veins that disseminate oxygen-rich blood to the body.
A grown-up's eventually more like 100,000 miles in length. There are three sorts of veins: supply routes, veins, and vessels. Every one of these assumes a quite certain part in the dissemination cycle. Supply routes divert oxygenated blood from the heart.
The circulatory framework is comprised of veins that divert blood from and towards the heart. Supply routes divert blood from the heart and veins convey blood back to the heart. The circulatory framework conveys oxygen, supplements, and chemicals to cells, and eliminates side effects, similar to carbon dioxide.
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if the f2 flies mate randomly what are the expected phenotypic proportions of flies in f3
Mendelian genetics is a field of study in biology that deals with the inheritance of traits from parents to offspring. Gregor Mendel, an Austrian monk, first described the principles of inheritance in 1865 through his experiments with pea plants. In his experiments, Mendel studied seven traits in pea plants and showed that these traits are inherited in a predictable manner.
Explanation:
When two flies mate randomly, the offspring produced will have a combination of the genes of both parents. This combination of genes determines the phenotype of the offspring, which is the physical expression of the genes.
In the F2 (second filial) generation, we can expect different phenotypic proportions in the offspring based on the genes inherited from the parents. For example, if a fly with the dominant gene for a particular trait mates with a fly with the recessive gene for the same trait, the offspring will show a phenotype that reflects the dominant gene. In this case, the phenotype of the offspring will be the same as the phenotype of the dominant parent.
If we consider a trait that is controlled by a single gene with two alleles, one dominant (A) and one recessive (a), we can calculate the expected phenotypic proportions in the F3 generation by using a Punnett square. A Punnett square is a diagram that shows the possible combinations of alleles in the offspring from a cross between two parents.
In a Punnett square, we place the alleles of one parent along the top and the alleles of the other parent along the side. The boxes in the middle of the square represent the possible offspring.
For example, if two heterozygous flies (Aa) mate, the offspring will have a 50% chance of inheriting the dominant allele (A) and a 50% chance of inheriting the recessive allele (a). The Punnett square for this cross would look like this:
A a
A Aa
a Aa
So, in the F3 generation, we would expect 50% of the offspring to be homozygous dominant (AA), 25% to be heterozygous (Aa), and 25% to be homozygous recessive (aa). These proportions are the expected phenotypic proportions in the F3 generation if the flies mate randomly.
In conclusion, the expected phenotypic proportions in the F3 generation can be predicted by understanding the genes inherited from the parents and calculating the possible combinations of alleles in the offspring.
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genetic variations can be inherited quick check
Yes, genetic variations can be inherited from parents to their child.
How are genetic variations inherited?Gene variations can be acquired throughout a person's lifespan or passed down from parents:
Variants that are inherited (or hereditary) are present in almost all of a person's cells throughout their lifetime and are passed from parent to kid. Because the parent's egg or sperm cells, which are also known as germ cells, contain these variants, they are also referred to as germline variants. The fertilized egg cell that results from the union of an egg and a sperm cell includes DNA from both parents. Any variations in that DNA will also be found in the cells of the child who develops from the fertilized egg.
Non-inherited variations are present only in a small percentage of the body's cells and appear at some point during a person's lifetime.
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The article mentions that "Historically, there had been gene flow between Texas cougars and Florida panthers". This means that:
There were no more than 30 Florida Panthers left, and several of them had genetic problems brought on by inbreeding. In a last-ditch attempt, state officials sent in eight Texas cougars, a close relative of the panther, to procreate with the remaining males.
What gene flow in Texas cougars and Florida panther?Florida's state animal was under danger in 1995. There were no more than 30 Florida Panthers left, and several of them had genetic problems brought on by inbreeding.
In a last-ditch attempt, state officials sent in eight Texas cougars, a close relative of the panther, to procreate with the remaining males. Only 30 Florida Panthers remained, and several of them suffered from genetic issues brought on by inbreeding.
Therefore, the Texas cougar and the Florida panther have interbred with each other in the past.
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There were no more than 30 Florida Panthers left, and several of them had genetic problems brought on by inbreeding. In a last-ditch attempt, state officials sent in eight Texas cougars, a close relative of the panther, to procreate with the remaining males.
What gene flow in Texas cougars and Florida panther?Florida's state animal was under danger in 1995. There were no more than 30 Florida Panthers left, and several of them had genetic problems brought on by inbreeding.
In a last-ditch attempt, state officials sent in eight Texas cougars, a close relative of the panther, to procreate with the remaining males. Only 30 Florida Panthers remained, and several of them suffered from genetic issues brought on by inbreeding.
Therefore, the Texas cougar and the Florida panther have interbred with each other in the past.
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How Does hearing loss work
The hairs or nerve cells in the cochlea that transmit sound impulses to the brain may deteriorate with age and exposure to loud noise. Hearing loss results from the ineffective transmission of electrical impulses when these hairs or nerve cells are damaged or absent.
What is hearing loss?A hearing loss is a partial or complete loss of hearing. Birth defects or later acquisition of hearing loss are also possible. One or both ears can lose their ability to hear.
Aging and exposure to loud noises have been implicated in hearing loss.
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HELP- Write 1 paragraph of the Professions in psychology.
Answer: Psychologists study cognitive, emotional, and social processes and behavior by observing, interpreting, and recording how individuals relate to one another and to their environments.
Explanation: A degree in psychology opens up many opportunities to have a positive effect on someone's life. For example, as a practitioner in the field, you may help people overcome the effects of trauma, deal with a mental illness, face a mental health crisis or achieve personal goals.
starch, glycogen, and cellulose are all polymers of the monosaccharide. true or false
The statement "Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are all polymers of the monosaccharide" is true.
Polymers of glucose include both starch and glycogen, as well as cellulose. They are distinguished from one another by the form of glucose that is present as well as the links that join the glucose monomers together. Alpha-glucose is the starting point for the production of both starch and glycogen.
Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are the three types of polysaccharides that are found in the greatest abundance. After complete hydrolysis, each of these three substances only produces a single form of monosaccharide, which is known as glucose. Therefore, these substances are classified as homopolymers.
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Samantha is a basketball player who wonders whether different pairs of shoes will help her jump higher. She ran the same set of jumping drills in four different pairs of shoes and had a friend measure how high she could jump in each. Did Samantha use scientific inquiry?
No, because she did not have an investigation about the natural world.
Yes, because she asked a question about the natural world and investigated it.
No, because she is not a scientist.
Yes, because she asked a question.
She ran the same set of jumping drills in four different pairs of shoes and had a friend measure how high she could jump in each which means that she used scientific inquiry because she asked a question about the natural world and investigated it which is denoted as option B.
What is Scientific inquiry?This is referred to as a form of problem-solving and questioning that helps people come to a greater understanding of observable phenomena.
In this scenario, the question asked was which was suitable for jumping higher and she performed experiments by using all the shoes to test in which different height measurement were taken which indicates a scientific inquiry.
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which carbon contains the extra oxygen in the rna molecule
The additional oxygen inside the RNA molecule is found on carbon 2. The sugar ribose, that contains an additional oxygen element not present with in deoxyribose sugar of DNA, is contained in the RNA backbone.
What does RNA do, and why is it important?Ribonucleic acid (RNA), a vital biological complex molecule, is a component of all biologic cells. By serving as a communication for DNA, which would in exchange conveys the genetic information, it is crucial in the production of proteins.
What is the main function of an RNA?The primary method by which RNA produces proteins is translations. Genetic information is transmitted by RNA and decoded by ribosomes into a range of proteins needed for biological processes. mRNA, rRNA, as well as tRNA are the three main RNA subtypes that participate in the production of proteins.
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Researcher Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed a wild type female fruit fly heterozygous for the traits cinnabar eyes and vestigial wings with a male fruit fly displaying both traits.
The number of offspring produced was 965 with wild type wings and eyes, 185 with wild-type eyes and vestigial wings, 206 with cinnabar eyes and wild type wings, and 944 with cinnabar eyes and vestigial wings.
This trait could best be described as
a. simple dominance and linked genes
b. incomplete dominance
c. sex-linked genes
d. simple dominance
It is known as linkage because the genes on chromosomes have a propensity to inherit collectively and maintain the parental combination through successive generations. Genes that are related and simple to dominate
Describe chromosomes in plain English.Proteins and DNA are arranged into genes on a chromosome. There are typically 23 pairs or chromosomes in each cell.
What are chromosomes and what do they do?The thread-like chromosomes that convey the genomic data from to cell are formed of protein or a single DNA molecule. Chromosomes are found in a cell's nucleus in both plants and animals, including humans.
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which of these organisms has the best potential to survive in extreme environments? a. fungi b.trophozoite form of protozoa c. helminth d.yeast. protozoa.
Option C, Helminths The organism with the best potential to survive in extreme environments would depend on the specific extreme environment. However, fungi are known to be able to withstand harsh conditions.
High salt concentrations, and low pH levels, making them a strong contender for organism survival in extreme environments. Trophozoite forms of protozoa are typically not well suited for survival in extreme environments as they are typically found in aqueous environments with relatively stable temperatures and pH levels. Helminths, being parasitic, rely on a host organism for survival and therefore may not be able to survive in extreme environments without a host. Yeast are a type of fungus and also have the potential to survive in extreme environments, however they are better adapted to environments with more moderate conditions.
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How do each of the three eggs placed in solution compare to the control egg? 3. For each beaker, identify whether the solution inside was hypotonic, hypertonic, or isotonic in comparison to the control beaker. 4. What was the direction of osmosis in the beaker labeled "100% distilled water"? did the egg in this beaker burst? 5. Was there a volume in the "control" beaker after 24-48 hours? if so, why do you think this is? if not, why do you think this is? 6. Which solution contained a dehydrated cell? think about someone having a high sugar diet. Hypothesize how their cells might be affected by osmosis? 7. Osmosis is how excess salts that accumulate in cells are transferred to the blood stream so they can be removed from the body. Explain how this process works in terms of tonicity?
When compared to a control solution, an isotonic solution diffuses water while maintaining a constant concentration of the solute and the cell.
Only when the solution enters the cell and increases its weight, ultimately leading to cell bursting if present, can the solution be said to be hypotonic in comparison to the control solution. This will result in a lower concentration of solutes outside the cell than inside. When conditions in a solution are exactly opposite those in a control solution, a solution is said to be hypertonic. In this case, water from the cell or another solute leaks into the solution, causing the cell to shrink if it is there. In this case, the concentration of solutes outside the cell is consistently higher than the concentration inside the cell.
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Why does glycolysis occur inside the cell?
Glycolysis occurs inside the cell because it is the first step in the breakdown of glucose molecules to produce energy in the form of ATP.
The enzymes involved in glycolysis are located within the cell's cytoplasm, so it must occur inside the cell for the process to take place.
What is ATP?
ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) is a molecule that serves as the primary energy currency for most cells. It is composed of adenosine, a ribose sugar, and three phosphate groups. ATP is used to store and transfer energy within cells, and is essential for cellular metabolism and other biological processes.
Therefore, Glycolysis occurs inside the cell because it is the first step in the breakdown of glucose molecules to produce energy in the form of ATP.
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when a peptide bond is formed, two amino acids are linked between the group of one amino acid and the group of the other. True or false?
True, when a peptide bond is formed, two amino acids are linked between the group of one amino acid and the group of the other.
The amino acid acids are joined together by peptide bond to form short polymer chain called Peptide or long polymer chain called Protein. The peptide bond is formed between the amino group of one amino acid with carboxylic acid group of another amino group by eliminating water molecules.
Amino acids are the basic units of proteins. They are tiny organic compounds with an alpha (central) carbon atom coupled to an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom, and a variable component known as a side chain (see below). Peptide bonds, which connect several amino acids, help proteins create lengthy chains of amino acids. The biological process that links the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of a nearby amino acid results in the extraction of a water molecule, forming peptide bonds. A protein's main structure is thought to be the orderly arrangement of its amino acids.
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What do plant, animal and bacteria cells have in common?
A
cell walls, cytoplasm and endoplasmic reticulum
B
DNA, chloroplasts and cytoplasm
C
cell membranes, DNA and lysosomes
D
DNA, cytoplasm and cell membranes
Answer:
Both the cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
Explanation:
the Plant, bacteria and animal cells, three have ribosomes that contain RNA and proteins. The Ribosomes primarily translate the nucleic acids into amino acids to form proteins. The Proteins then form enzymes and play a role in every function within cells
Hope its right
Question 1
How did Demetri's results match your predictions?
Question 2
Use the results of Demetri's experiment to explain why the color changed on some test strips but not others.
Question 3
Use Demetri's results to explain how temperature affects enzymes.
Question 4
People who are lactose intolerant lack the lactase enzyme. They often experience digestive problems when they eat dairy products. Do the results of Demetri's experiment support this scenario? Explain your response.
Question 5
How do Demetri's results show that digestive enzymes are crucial to maintaining homeostasis inside the body?
Demetri's results show that enzymes are important for breaking down complex molecules into simpler molecules that can be absorbed by the body.
How did Demetri's results match your predictions?The results demonstrate that temperature has an effect on the activity of enzymes, as the enzymes are less active at lower temperatures and more active at higher temperatures.This indicates that enzymes help to regulate the body's temperature and maintain homeostasis within the body. In the case of lactose intolerance, digestive enzymes are crucial to breaking down the lactose molecule into simpler molecules that can be absorbed by the body.Without the lactase enzyme, the lactose molecule cannot be broken down and will remain in the body, leading to digestive issues.Demetri's experiment demonstrated that digestive enzymes are essential for maintaining homeostasis inside the body. The results of the experiment showed that when the temperature increased, the color changed on some of the test strips but not others, depending on the presence of the enzyme. This indicates that enzymes are sensitive to temperature and are needed to catalyze the breakdown of food into its component molecules.To learn more about lactose intolerance refer to:
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Please someone help. Also don’t pay attention to the questions.
DNA sequence of
[tex]5^'[/tex] CAGGAATTGCTGAT [tex]3^'[/tex] will be
[tex]3^'[/tex]GTCCTTAACGAGCTA [tex]5^'[/tex]
What is DNA sequence?DNA sequencing is defined as the process of determining the nucleic acid sequence - the order of nucleotides in DNA which includes any method or technique that is used to determine the order of the four bases: adenine A, guanine G, cytosine C and thymine T. For complimentary strand of DNA during DNA replication, A binds with T and C binds with G.
For above given information,
DNA [tex]5^'[/tex] CAGGAATTGCTGAT [tex]3^'[/tex]
[tex]3^'[/tex]GTCCTTAACGAGCTA [tex]5^'[/tex]
mRNA [tex]5^'[/tex] CAG GAA UUG CUC GAU [tex]3^'[/tex] (These are Codons)
tRNA GUC CUU AAC GAG CUA (These are Anti-codons)
For Amino acids,
The codon CAG represents the amino acid glutamine
The codon GAA represents the amino acid glutamine
The codon UUG represents the amino acid leucine
The codon CUC represents the amino acid leucine
The codon GAU represents the amino acid aspartic acid.
Thus, DNA sequence of
[tex]5^'[/tex] CAGGAATTGCTGAT [tex]3^'[/tex] will be
[tex]3^'[/tex]GTCCTTAACGAGCTA [tex]5^'[/tex]
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Abiotic factors in an ecosystem might include one or more of the following:
Question 2 options:
Slug, ants, coyote,, birds, and armadillo
Air, water, soil, rocks, and fish
Air, water, soil, and rocks
Slug, ants, coyote, birds, armadillo, trees, grass, flowers and moss
Abiotic factors in an ecosystem might include one or more of the following: C: "Air, water, soil, and rocks".
Abiotic factors are non-living components in an ecosystem that influence and interact with living organisms. Some examples of abiotic factors include air, water, soil, rocks, and temperature.
Air provides oxygen and carbon dioxide for living organisms to breathe and photosynthesize. Water is a critical component for many organisms, as it is essential for hydration, metabolic processes, and transportation of nutrients. Soil provides a habitat and source of nutrients for plants and microorganisms. Rocks can provide physical support and minerals for plants and animals.
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Which of the following best describes the most likely impact on an individua produced from fertilization between one of the daughter cells shown and norma gamete? Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase all gametes will be normal and the resulting individual will be phenotypically normal Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase [ all gametes will have an abnorma chromosome number and the Individual will Iikely exhibit phenotypic evidence of the nondisjunction event Because nondisjunction ccurred in anaphase IL all gametes will be normal and the esulting individual will be phenotypically normal: Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase IL all gametes will have an abnormal chromosome number and the individual will Iikely exhibit phenotypic evidence of the nondisjunction event
The correct option is "Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase I, all gametes will have an abnormal chromosome number and the individual will likely exhibit phenotypic evidence of the nondisjunction event."
Nondisjunction event during meiosis I means that the daughter cells produced will have either an extra or a missing chromosome, leading to gametes with an abnormal chromosome number. When fertilized by a normal gamete, the resulting individual will have a different chromosome number than normal and this may lead to various phenotypic effects. All gametes will have an aberrant chromosomal number since nondisjunction happened in anaphase I, and the person will probably show phenotypic signs of the nondisjunction event occurrence.
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what kind of bond holds the two pieces of a dna strand together?
Hydrogen bonds holds the two pieces of a DNA strand together.
The DNA helix is stabilised by the covalent bonds that are weak. DNA has four different kinds of nitrogenous bases: guanine, cytosine, adenine, and thymine. Hydrogen bonds bind the complementary base pairs of guanine with cytosine and adenine with thymine. The two strands of the DNA helix are held together by hydrogen bonds formed by complimentary nucleotides.
DNA is a double-stranded molecule with a spiral staircase-like structure. The railings of the staircase are the nucleotides, and the stairs are the nucleotides. Between the two strands of DNA, hydrogen bonds form a base that connects them. Although each of these hydrogen bonds is weak, they work together to form strong bonds.
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Page 142 5.6 The Eukaryotic Cell
Order the movement of a transmembrane protein from synthesis to expression in the cell
membrane. Material in the endomembrane system moves consistently from the nucleus of
eukaryotic cells. Place the events in order from left to right.
Start by clicking the first item in the sequence or dragging it here
Drag the items below into the box above in the correct order, starting with the first item in the sequence.
Golgi complex
secretory vesicles
endoplasmic reticulum
lysosome
not sure
Explanation:
a slice of pizza contains 27 g of carbohydrate, 12 g of protein and 13 of fat. how many kcal of energy does the slice of pizza contain? report the answer to 2 significant figures. (the accepted caloric values for foods are 4.0 kcal/g for carbohydrate, 4.0 kcal/g for protein, and 9.0 kcal/g for fat.) write your numerical answer without unit inside the box. the answer should be in two significant figures and in standard not scientific notation.
If the slice of pizza contains 27 g of carbohydrates, 12 g of protein and 13 of fat, the energy of the slice of pizza is 273 kcal.
Based on the given information,
A slice of pizza contains 27 g of carbohydrates, 12 g of protein and 13 of fatThus,
Total calories of carbohydrates = 27 × 4 kcal (1 g of carb contain 4 kcal of energy) = 108 kcal.Total calories of protein = 12 × 4 kcal (1 g of protein contains 4 kcal of energy) = 48 kcal.Total calories of fat = 13 × 9 kcal (1 g of protein contains 9 kcal of energy) = 117 kcal.The total energy from a slice of pizza:
= 108 + 48 + 117
= 273 kcal
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A a reponible citizen of india what in your opinion hould be done to keep the water and air free of pollution in 500 word
As capable residents of India, it is our obligation to make moves to keep the air and water liberated from contamination.
The air and water are the two most significant regular assets that are fundamental for our endurance and prosperity. In any case, because of the quick industrialization and urbanization, these assets are being contaminated at a disturbing rate.
The following are a couple of steps that can be taken to lessen contamination:
Lessen the utilization of individual vehicles: Support the utilization of public transportation, cycling, or strolling to decrease air contamination brought about by vehicle outflows.Advanced clean energy: The utilization of clean energy sources like sun-based, wind, and hydropower can assist with lessening air contamination brought about by the consumption of petroleum products.Legitimate waste administration: Guarantee that the waste created is discarded appropriately and not unloaded in streams or other water bodies.Urge enterprises to embrace green innovation: Businesses ought to be urged to take on cleaner creation strategies and use innovation that lessens the outflow of poisons.Spread mindfulness: Spread mindfulness about the effect of contamination on well-being and the climate through missions and studios.Support natural regulations: Backing ecological regulations and guidelines that expect to lessen contamination and safeguard the climate.Diminish plastic use: The utilization of single-utilized plastic ought to be decreased as it requires many years to corrupt and is a significant supporter of water contamination.Plant trees: Trees retain carbon dioxide and assist with decreasing air contamination. Establishing more trees can assist with further developing air quality.Support tidy-up drives: Backing drives to tidy up streams, lakes, and seashores to lessen water contamination.All in all, the endeavors to diminish contamination ought to be an aggregate exertion including the public authority, businesses, and people. By taking on these means, we can assist with saving our air and water for people in the future and guarantee a cleaner and better climate for all.
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