if the product of 11 positive integers is odd, how many of these integers must be odd

Answer:

b. 424

Step-by-step explanation:

it gives the equation N=41b+137

N=41(7)+137

N=424

Answer:

graph moves down 6 units​

Step-by-step explanation:

Y intercept of a line is point on y axis where the line crosses the y-axis.

Since the line is of the slope intercept form y = mx+ c

where m is slope of line and c is y intercept

_________________________________________________

Equation of old line : y = 4x + 3

then for equation y = 4x + 3

m: 4 and c = 3

Thus y intercept is +3 unit above the X axis

_________________________________________________

Equation of new line : y = 4x - 3

Similarly based on above explanation

m: 4 and c = -3

Thus y intercept is +3 unit below the X axis.

Thus we can see that y intercept has moved downward

Lets calculate no. of units it moved downward

Distance between them is 3 - (-3) = 6 unit

Thus graph moved 6 units downwards.

Steepness of graph depends on slope of line. The slope is 4 for both the lines and hence there is no change in steepness.

Thus correct answer is graph moves down 6 units​

We're in the screening room of an exotic little San Francisco Bay area production company called Pixar Animation Studios, watching the dailies of a major work-in-progress, director John Lasseter presiding. And not to get too hyperbolic here, but we're witnessing history being made before our very eyes. You've heard of Debbie Does Dallas? Call this Disney Does Digital.

Two years ago, less than a half-dozen feature films employed the use of computer graphics; this year maybe a half-dozen won't use any sort of digital enhancements. If Hollywood has suddenly embraced the computer as a significant (and cost-effective) illusion-making tool, then Disney's Toy Story is arguably the most ambitious computer-generated undertaking yet.

hope this helps!

Answer:

We're in the screening room of an exotic little San Francisco Bay area production company called Pixar Animation Studios, watching the dailies of a major work-in-progress, director John Lasseter presiding. And not to get too hyperbolic here, but we're witnessing history being made before our very eyes. You've heard of Debbie Does Dallas? Call this Disney Does Digital.

Two years ago, less than a half-dozen feature films employed the use of computer graphics; this year maybe a half-dozen won't use any sort of digital enhancements. If Hollywood has suddenly embraced the computer as a significant (and cost-effective) illusion-making tool, then Disney's Toy Story is arguably the most ambitious computer-generated undertaking yet.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The average can be found by dividing the number of pieces (or trucks in this case) by the total, so 3204/8=400.5 pounds, or D as our answer

Question:

The angle [tex] \theta_1[/tex] is located in Quadrant III, and [tex] sin(\theta_1) = - \sqrt{\frac{3}{2}} [/tex].

What is the value of [tex] cos(\theta_1)[/tex] ?

Express your answer exactly. [tex] cos(\theta1) = [/tex] ________

Answer:

[tex] cos(\theta_1) = - \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

[tex] sin(\theta_1) = - \sqrt{\frac{3}{2}} [/tex]

Since the angle [tex] \theta_1[/tex] is located in Quadrant III, we have:

[tex] sin(\theta_1) = sin(\pi + \frac{\pi}{3}) [/tex]

[tex] \theta_1 = \pi + \frac{\pi}{3}[/tex]

[tex] \theta_1 = \frac{4 \pi}{3}[/tex]

Thus, [tex] cos(\theta_1) [/tex] =

[tex] cos(\theta_1) = cos(\pi + \frac{\pi}{3}) [/tex]

[tex] cos(\theta_1) = -cos(\frac{\pi}{3}) [/tex]

[tex] cos(\theta_1) = - \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

Answer:

  signs of the constants in the binomial factors are negative

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the first term (a) is positive, the fact that c is negative means the constants in the binomial factors have the same sign. The negative b means that sign is negative.

  2x^2 -7x +6 = (x -2)(2x -3)

__

Further comment

c is the product of the constants in the binomial factors so will be positive when both those constants have the same sign.

b is the sum of the constants in the binomial factors. If both factors have the same sign (c > 0), then those constants have the same sign as b.

In this analysis, "a" is assumed to be positive. If it is not, then the same analysis can be done after reversing all of the signs.

Answer:

When all side faces are same

surface area = lw + 1/2 × perimeter × slant height.

When the side faces are different

surface area = base area + lateral area

Step-by-step explanation:

The question you ask is the formula one can use to calculate the surface area of a rectangular pyramid.

The  base of a rectangular pyramid is rectangular. The picture below shows how a rectangular pyramid looks like .

The surface area of the rectangular pyramid includes the area of the base and areas of all the triangular faces. This simply implies the area of the rectangular base and the area of each triangular faces. Mathematically, it can be represented below.

The base area(rectangle) = length × width = lw

Area of a triangle = 1/2 × base × height = 1/2bh

Therefore, if all the faces of the triangle are the same(regular pyramid) the total surface area will be

surface area = lw + 1/2 × perimeter × slant height.

Note the triangular faces are 4 in numbers.  

If all the sides of the triangle are different the surface are will be

surface area = base area + lateral area

We have to add the triangular faces individually for an irregular pyramid.

Answer:

  B.  If ΔKLM ≅ ΔPQR and ΔPQR ≅ ΔSTU, then ΔKLM ≅ ΔSTU

Step-by-step explanation:

The transitive property in general says ...

  if a=b and b=c, then a=c

The transitive property of congruence replaces the equal sign with a congruence symbol, and replaces a, b, c with any geometric figure. Here, the geometric figures used are triangles KLM, PQR, and STU.

  If ΔKLM ≅ ΔPQR and ΔPQR ≅ ΔSTU, then ΔKLM ≅ ΔSTU

Answer:

the value of x = 35 ( NOT - 40 )

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to calculate the value of x in the  following parallelogram:  2x - 10  

2x + 50, we would have to calculate the following formula:

m<QPS+m<PQR=180°

According to the given data we have the following:

m<QPS=2x - 10  

m<PQR=2x + 50

Therefore, 2x - 10+2x + 50=180

4x+40=180

x=140/4

x=35

The value of x is 35 because in a parallelogram sum of the two adjacent angles is equal to 180 degree

In two-dimensional geometry, it is a plane shape having four sides, in which two pairs of sides are parallel to each other and equal in length. The sum of all angles in a parallelogram is 360°.

The question is incomplete.

The complete question is in the picture, please refer to the attached picture.

As we know,

In a parallelogram sum of the two adjacent angles is equal to 180 degree

2x - 10 + 2x + 50 = 180

4x + 40 = 180

4x = 140

x = 35

Thus, the value of x is 35 because in a parallelogram sum of the two adjacent angles is equal to 180 degree

Learn more about the parallelogram here:

brainly.com/question/1563728

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Answer:

(a) The probability of the company becoming a successfully approved supplier to Ford Motor Company is 0.2048.

(b) The probability of the company becoming a successfully approved supplier to General Motors Company is 0.2448.

Step-by-step explanation:

A local startup company working on a smart dashboard camera system is bidding to be a supplier for both Ford Motor company and General Motors.

Both the companies have a two-tier system where suppliers are approved in two separate phases.

It is provided that a company can move on to Phase II if they have passed the Phase I phase.

(a)

The chances of landing with a supplier contract with Ford Motor Company is 32% in Phase I while it is 64% in Phase II.

That is:

P (Phase I) = 0.32

P (Phase II | Phase I) = 0.64

Consider the tree diagram below.

Compute the probability of the company becoming a successfully approved supplier to Ford Motor Company as follows:

P (Supplier to Ford Motor Company) = P (Phase II | Phase I) × P (Phase I)

                                                             [tex]=0.64\times 0.32\\=0.2048[/tex]

Thus, the probability of the company becoming a successfully approved supplier to Ford Motor Company is 0.2048.

(b)

The chances of landing with a supplier contract with General Motors is 68% for Phase I and 36% for Phase II.

That is:

P (Phase I) = 0.68

P (Phase II | Phase I) = 0.36

Consider the tree diagram below.

Compute the probability of the company becoming a successfully approved supplier to General Motors as follows:

P (Supplier to General Motors Company) = P (Phase II | Phase I) × P (Phase I)

                                                                    [tex]=0.36\times 0.68\\=0.2448[/tex]

Thus, the probability of the company becoming a successfully approved supplier to General Motors Company is 0.2448.

Answer:

[tex]P(4)=7\,,\,P(-9)=-5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:  P(x) has a remainder 1 when divided by  [tex]x-9[/tex], P(x) has a remainder 7 when divided by [tex]x-4[/tex], P(x) has a remainder 0 when divided by  [tex]x+4[/tex] and P(x) has a remainder -5 when divided by [tex]x+9[/tex]

To find: [tex]P(4),P(-9)[/tex]

Solution:

According to remainder theorem, when a polynomial [tex]P(x)[/tex] is divided by a polynomial [tex]x-a[/tex], the remainder obtained is equal to [tex]P(a)[/tex].

As P(x) has a remainder 7 when divided by [tex]x-4[/tex],

[tex]P(4)=7[/tex]

As P(x) has a remainder -5 when divided by [tex]x+9[/tex],

[tex]P(-9)=-5[/tex]

Answer:

That may or may not be true, depending one the ship size.

Step-by-step explanation:

'Can't really give a proper answer, to somethings that's not a q. *shrug*

Answer:

The equation of the least square regression line for predicting selling price from appraised value is:

[tex]\text{Selling Price}=227.0989 + 0.8991\ \text{Appraised Value}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The general form of the  least square regression line is:

[tex]y=a+bx[/tex]

Here,

y = dependent variable

x = independent variable

a = y-intercept

b = slope

The Minitab output for regressing selling price on appraised value is:

Predictor          Coef       SE Coef       T

Constant      227.0989    95.044    2.389

Appraisal          0.8991       0.133     6.76

S = 88.7959

R-Sq = 76.5%

R-Sq (adj) = 74.9%

The constant term in the regression output represents the y-intercept and the Appraisal coefficient the slope of the regression line.

Then the equation of the least square regression line for predicting selling price from appraised value is:

[tex]\text{Selling Price}=227.0989 + 0.8991\ \text{Appraised Value}[/tex]

Answer:

We conclude that there is no difference in the mean household income for credit cardholders of Visa Gold and of MasterCard Gold.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a random survey of 10 Visa Gold cardholders resulted in a mean household income of $50,930 with a standard deviation of $9500.

A random survey of 66 MasterCard Gold cardholders resulted in a mean household income of $45,720 with a standard deviation of $9800.

Let [tex]\mu_1[/tex] = true mean household income for Visa Gold cardholders.

[tex]\mu_2[/tex] = true mean household income for MasterCard Gold cardholders.

So, Null Hypothesis, [tex]H_0[/tex] : [tex]\mu_1=\mu_2[/tex]     {means that there is no difference in the mean household income for credit cardholders of Visa Gold and of MasterCard Gold}

Alternate Hypothesis, [tex]H_A[/tex] : [tex]\mu_1\neq \mu_2[/tex]     {means that there is a difference in the mean household income for credit cardholders of Visa Gold and of MasterCard Gold}

The test statistics that would be used here Two-sample t test statistics as we don't know about the population standard deviations;

                         T.S. =  [tex]\frac{(\bar X_1-\bar X_2)-(\mu_1-\mu_2)}{s_p\sqrt{\frac{1}{n_1} +\frac{1}{n_2} } }[/tex]  ~ [tex]t__n__1-_n__2-2[/tex]

where, [tex]\bar X_1[/tex] = sample mean household income for Visa Gold cardholders = $50,930

[tex]\bar X_2[/tex] = sample mean household income for MasterCard Gold cardholders = $45,720

[tex]s_1[/tex] = sample standard deviation for Visa Gold cardholders = $9,500

[tex]s_2[/tex] = sample standard deviation for MasterCard Gold cardholders = $9,800

[tex]n_1[/tex] = sample of Visa Gold cardholders = 10

[tex]n_2[/tex] = sample of MasterCard Gold cardholders = 6

Also, [tex]s_p=\sqrt{\frac{(n_1-1)s_1^{2} +(n_2-1)s_2^{2} }{n_1+n_2-2} }[/tex]  = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{(10-1)\times 9,500^{2} +(6-1)\times 9.800^{2} }{10+6-2} }[/tex] = 9,608.22

So, the test statistics  =  [tex]\frac{(50,930-45,720)-(0)}{9,608.22 \times \sqrt{\frac{1}{10} +\frac{1}{6} } }[/tex]  ~ [tex]t_1_4[/tex]

                                    =  1.05

The value of t test statistics is 1.05.

Now, at 0.01 significance level the t table gives critical values of -2.977 and 2.977 at 14 degree of freedom for two-tailed test.

Since our test statistic lies within the range of critical values of t, so we have insufficient evidence to reject our null hypothesis as it will not fall in the rejection region due to which we fail to reject our null hypothesis.

Therefore, we conclude that there is no difference in the mean household income for credit cardholders of Visa Gold and of MasterCard Gold.

Answer:

I can't really see the whole question, but for a cone the volume formula is πr2h

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\dfrac{13+11}{13-11}=\dfrac{24}{2}=12[/tex]

Hope this helps!

Answer:

a = 3

b = 12

c = 13

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{ {2}^{5}. {8}^{4} }{16} = \frac{ {2}^{5}. { ({2}^{a}) }^{4} }{ {2}^{4} } = \frac{ {2}^{5}. { {2}^{b} } }{ {2}^{4} } = {2}^{c} \\ \\ \frac{ {2}^{5}. {8}^{4} }{16} = \frac{ {2}^{5}. { ({2}^{a}) }^{4} }{ {2}^{4} } \\ \\ \frac{ {2}^{5}. {( {2}^{3}) }^{4} }{ {2}^{4} } = \frac{ {2}^{5}. { ({2}^{a}) }^{4} }{ {2}^{4} } \\ {( {2}^{3}) }^{4} = { ({2}^{a}) }^{4} \\ {2}^{3} = {2}^{a} \\ \huge \red{ \boxed{a = 3}} \\ \\ \frac{ {2}^{5}. {8}^{4} }{16} = \frac{ {2}^{5}. { {2}^{b} } }{ {2}^{4} } \\ \frac{ {2}^{5}. { ({2}^{3} )}^{4} }{ {2}^{4} } = \frac{ {2}^{5}. { {2}^{b} } }{ {2}^{4} } \\ { ({2}^{3} )}^{4} = { {2}^{b} } \\ {2}^{12} = { {2}^{b} } \\ \huge \purple{ \boxed{b = 12}} \\ \\ \frac{ {2}^{5}. {8}^{4} }{16} = {2}^{c} \\ \frac{ 16 \times 2. {( {2}^{3}) }^{4} }{16} = {2}^{c} \\ 2 \times {2}^{12} = {2}^{c} \\ {2}^{13} = {2}^{c} \\\huge \orange{ \boxed{ c = 13}}[/tex]

Answer:

6x - 18

Step-by-step explanation:

(2x - 6) + 4(x - 3) =

= (2x - 6) + 4x - 12 =

= 2x - 6 + 4x - 12 =

= 2x + 4 - 6 - 12 =

= (2x + 4x) + (-6 - 12) =

= 6x - 18

Answer:

5x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 3x - 2

g(x) = 2x + 1

(3x - 2) + (2x + 1)

3x + 2x = 5x

-2 + 1 = -1

Answer: 5x - 1

Answer:

a) Range =10

b) inter quartile range = 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:-

Given minimum =5

             Median=8

 upper quartile  (Q3) =11.5

Lower quartile range= 7

                Maximum=15

a)  Range = maximum value -minimum value

           = 15 -5

          = 10

b) Interquartile Range = median of upper half - median of lower half

                               =   Q₃- Q₁

                               =   11.5 - 7

                               =   4.5    

Answer:

130

Step-by-step explanation:

60° + 70° = x

In an equation our aim is to find the value of what we are looking for as well as keeping the equation balanced. For example if we took away 60 only from one side then the equation would change so it's an important rule to keep in mind when solving equations, that you need to keep both sides of the equation the same.

60 + 70 = x

→ Simplify

130 = x

x = 130°

Answer:

1/36

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting green is 1/6

and the probability of getting red is 1/6.

Now,we want to know the probability of getting red and green. In probability,the word 'and' means times.

So it would be;

1/6 times 1/6

= 1/36

Answer:

C = 10 units²

Step-by-step explanation:

AB is 4 units long AC is 5 units long(by distance formula)

call AB and AC the base and height respectively. Multiply them, divide by 2: 4x5=20

20/2 = 10

Answer:

48 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

What we must do is calculate the car's performance, that is, the number of miles per gallon of gas, like this:

208/13 = 16

which means that for each gallon of gas you can travel a total of 16 miles.

They tell us they have 3 gallons of gasoline left so they can go:

16 * 3 = 48

If your goal is 42 miles away, that means you can make it and you still have 6 more miles to go.

Answer: y=15x+5

Step-by-step explanation:

Looking at what we are given, we can tell that the y-intercept is 5. To ge tthe slope, you use [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2} -x_{1} }[/tex]. With the slope , you get 15.

The amount of NO can be decreased by decreasing the concentration of N2(g).

The term equilibrium refers to the point at which the rate of the forward reaction and the rate of the reverse reaction are the same.

We have the reaction; N2(g) + O2(g) + energy ------>2 NO(g), in order to drive this reaction in the reverse direction, the concentration of N2(g) can be decreased.

Learn more about equilibrium: https://brainly.com/question/14227610

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

First Question

Option A is correct

Second  Question

Option C is correct

Third   Question

     [tex]D = A^{-1} * B^{-1} * C^{-1}[/tex]

Fourth   Question

  So substituting for D in  (ABC) D =  I

                 [tex](ABC) * A^{-1} * B^{-1} * C^{-1} = I[/tex]

                 [tex]I = I[/tex]

This proof that  ABC is invertible

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

   A , B and  C are invertible which means that [tex]A^{-1} , B^{-1}, C^{-1}[/tex] exist

Now

 From the question

          (ABC) D =  I

Where I is an identity matrix

   Now when we multiply both sides by  [tex]A^{-1}[/tex]  we have

          [tex]A^{-1} A BCD = A^{-1} * I[/tex]

          [tex]IBCD = A^{-1}[/tex]

Now when we multiply both sides by  [tex]B^{-1}[/tex]  we have  

         [tex]B^{-1 } *I BCD = A^{-1} * B^{-1}[/tex]

         [tex]I CD = A^{-1} * B^{-1}[/tex]

Now when we multiply both sides by  [tex]C^{-1}[/tex]  we have  

          [tex]C^{-1} * I CD = A^{-1} * B^{-1} * C^{-1}[/tex]

              [tex]I D = A^{-1} * B^{-1} * C^{-1}[/tex]

                 [tex]D = A^{-1} * B^{-1} * C^{-1}[/tex]

So substituting for D in the above equation

                 [tex](ABC) * A^{-1} * B^{-1} * C^{-1} = I[/tex]

                 [tex]I = I[/tex]

This proof that  ABC is invertible

Answer:

a

The probability that the selected joint was judged to be defective by neither of the two inspectors is   [tex]P(A' n B' ) = 0.8855[/tex]

b

The probability that the selected joint was judged to be defective by inspector B but not by inspector A  is  [tex]P(A' n B) =0.0403[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The sample size is [tex]n_s = 10000[/tex]

    The number of outcome for inspector A is  [tex]n__{A}} = 742[/tex]

    The number of outcome for inspector B is  [tex]n__{B}} = 745[/tex]

     The number of joints judged defective by both inspector is [tex]n(A u B) = 1145[/tex]

The the probability that the selected joint was judged to be defective by neither of the two inspectors is mathematically represented as

      [tex]P(A' n B' ) = 1 - P(A u B)[/tex]

Now

       [tex]P(A\ u \ B) = \frac{n(Au B)}{n_s }[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]P(A\ u \ B) = \frac{1145}{ 10 000 }[/tex]

So  

      [tex]P(A' n B' ) = 1 - \frac{1145}{10 000}[/tex]

     [tex]P(A' n B' ) = 0.8855[/tex]

the probability that the selected joint was judged to be defective by inspector B but not by inspector A  is mathematically represented as

     [tex]P(A' n B) = P(A \ u \ B) -P(A)[/tex]

Now

        [tex]P(A) = \frac{n__{A}}{n_s}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]P(A) = \frac{742}{10 000}[/tex]

So

     [tex]P(A' n B) = \frac{1145}{10 000} - \frac{742}{10 000}[/tex]

    [tex]P(A' n B) =0.0403[/tex]