A locus's gene variability and total number of alleles are both zero if its nucleotide variability is zero percent. c. Gene variability is 0%, with 1 allele per gene.
What happens when a locus' nucleotide variability is 0%?By comparing that nucleotide sequence of people who belong to the same population and have the same allele, one can determine that gene variability is the same when nucleotide variation is zero.
How is the variation in genes measured?Measurement.The percentage of polymorphism gene loci or the proportion of heterozygous people at a given gene locus are two typical ways to quantify genetic diversity within a population.The findings can be very helpful in understanding how each person in the population adapts to their surroundings.
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this hormone plays a vital role in the erection process and is necessary for the act of reproduction. called by _____
The hormone which plays a vital role in the erection process and is necessary for the act of reproduction is called by Testosterone. Testosterone is a male sex hormone produced by the testes.
It is essential for the development of male reproductive organs, and plays a vital role in the maintenance of sperm production, sex drive, and bone density. It also contributes to muscle growth and bone mass, and helps regulate the levels of red blood cells and fat in the body. Deficiency of testosterone can lead to several health problems, including decreased libido, problems in erection, and osteoporosis. Too much testosterone can lead to a variety of health problems, including acne, baldness, and an enlarged prostate. It can also cause mood swings, aggression, and decreased fertility. If left untreated, it can increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and liver damage.
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which of the following techniques were most helpful to watson and crick in determining the structure of dna?
X-ray crystallography, Electron microscopy, Molecular modeling, Chargaff's rule are most helpful to watson and crick in determining the structure of dna.
What is dna?Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule that contains the genetic instructions used in the development and functioning of all living organisms. It is made up of two long strands of nucleotides that are twisted together in a double helix. Each strand is made up of four different nucleotides, adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C) and guanine (G). The sequence of these nucleotides determines the type of information stored in the DNA, such as the instructions for the development of a particular organism. DNA is found in the nucleus of every cell and is passed on from one generation to the next. It is responsible for the physical characteristics of an organism, such as its size and shape, as well as its behaviors and traits.
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Given the original and mutated DNA strands below, identify the mutation.
ORIGINAL = A-T-T-C-G-G-A-A-C-T-G-A
MUTATED = A-T-T-C-G-G-G-A-A-C-T-G-A
It is an example of insertion mutation because there is an addition of a guanine nitrogenous base in the mutated DNA.
What is mutation?any alteration to a cell's DNA sequence. Mistakes in cell division can result in mutations, as can exposure to environmental DNA-damaging substances. Base substitutions, deletions, and insertions are the three different forms of DNA mutations.
Depending on the situation or location, the impacts of mutation might be advantageous, detrimental, or neutral.
Guanine is added to the mutated DNA. Therefore, it is an insertion mutation.
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List three other factors (other than concentration gradient) that will affect diffusion rate.
Someone help me with this
Three other factors other than concentration gradient that will affect diffusion rate are:
temperaturepressuremembrane permeabilityWhat factors affect diffusion rate?Diffusion is the movement of the molecules of a substance from a region where they are highly concentrated to a region where there is less concentration until equilibrium is achieved. Diffusion occurs as long as there is a difference in a substance's concentrations on each side of a barrier.
The factors that affect the rate of diffusion of substances are:
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During photosynthesis, water is broken down in a process called?
Answer: Photolysis of water.
Explanation: In photosynthesis, the light energy absorbed by the chlorophyll breaks down water molecules that release oxygen.
The original cell, x, contains n number of chromosomes. How many chromosomes does cell y contain?.
Which neutral atom will have a greater number of electrons than a neutral atom of oxygen (o)?.
Oxygen is an electrically neutral atom that will have an electron configuration of 1 s 22 s 22 p 4.
The distribution of electrons in an element's atomic orbitals is described by the element's electron configuration. Atomic electron configurations adhere to a standard nomenclature in which all atomic subshells that contain electrons are arranged in a sequence with the number of electrons they each hold expressed in superscript.
One orbital can house a maximum of two electrons, and there are four different types of orbitals (s, p, d, and f). More electrons can be held in the p, d, and f orbitals since they contain various sub-levels. According to its location on the periodic table, each element's electron configuration is distinct.
The arrangement of electrons within an atom's orbitals is known as its electronic configuration. Each neutral atom contains an equal number of electrons, which is a fixed number.
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how are neurotransmitters removed from the synaptic cleft
Neurotransmitters are eliminated through a variety of processes, but they are always either degraded by transmitter-specific enzymes, reabsorbed into nearby glial cells or nerve terminals, or a combination of these processes.
Diffusion: The neurotransmitter leaves the synaptic cleft, where it is no longer able to act on a receptor, and drifts elsewhere. Enzymatic degradation (deactivation): This process involves altering the structure of the neurotransmitter so that the receptor cannot recognize it.
Neurotransmitter activity can be stopped in two different ways: by reuptake pumps or by enzymatic breakdown. A neurotransmitter diffuses across the synapse after being released from the presynaptic neuron and binds to receptors on the post-synaptic cell.
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Updated 7/13/2017
1
4. How does an environmental change (ex. Hurricane, drought, etc. ) affect the organisms that are
adapted to the environment before the change?
5. The color and pattern of the viceroy butterfly's wings mimics the monarch butterfly's appearance
except for a black horizontal stripe that crosses the bottom of the back wings. Predators of the
monarch butterfly quickly discover an important difference between these two; the monarch butterfly
4. When the conditions of the environment change, some organisms may find it difficult to survive and may become extinct.
5. The monarch butterfly is toxic and the viceroy butterfly is not.
How organisms are affected by environment?Environmental changes such as hurricanes, droughts, and other natural disasters can have a significant impact on organisms that are adapted to the environment before the change. When environmental conditions change, some organisms may struggle to survive and may become extinct. On the other hand, some organisms may be able to adapt and survive the changes.
The ability of an organism to survive an environmental change depends on several factors, including the genetic variability within the population, the ability of the organism to access resources and move to a more suitable environment, and the rate of environmental change compared to the organism's rate of adaptation.
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Which male hormone provides negative feedback for the secretion of FSH?
ICSH
inhibin
GnRH
ACTH
Option C: Inhibin is the male hormone that provides negative feedback for the secretion of FSH.
Rising testosterone levels cause the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus to stop releasing GnRH, FSH, and LH, creating a negative feedback mechanism in males. When the sperm count is excessively high, the hormone inhibin, which is produced by the Sertoli cells, is released into the blood. Spermatogenesis will be slowed down as a result of this since it prevents the release of GnRH and FSH. Option C is, therefore, the correct answer.
The pituitary gland employs the hormone FSH to instruct the spermatogenic cells in the testicles to produce sperm. Even if the testicular sperm production "equipment" is in normal condition, decreased sperm production may occur if the FSH is low because the testicles may not get the appropriate signal from the pituitary gland.
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what would happen to the sa node if a chemical blocker was used to reduce transport of na into the pacemaker cells?
The SA node would depolarize at a slower rate, lowering the heart rate. The pacemaker potential is caused by the progressive depolarization of the cell membrane caused by Na+ diffusion into the pacemaker cell.
In a normal heart, if the sinoatrial node fails, the atrioventricular node (AV node) should take over the pacemaker role. However, the atrioventricular node has a lower spontaneous rate than the sinoatrial node. As a result, the heart rate will be decreased.
The SA (sinoatrial) node sends an electrical signal to the upper heart chambers (atria), causing them to contract. The signal then travels to the lower heart chambers (ventricles) through the AV (atrioventricular) node, causing them to contract or pump. The SA node is known as the heart's pacemaker.
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proteins, such as receptors and enzymes, are synthesized in the cytoplasm of the soma in a process called
Protein synthesis is the process by which cells generate new proteins, either to replace those that have been damaged or to provide new functional proteins.
The process occurs in the cytoplasm of the soma (cell body) and involves the translation of genetic information stored in DNA into the corresponding amino acid sequence of a protein molecule.
The first step of protein synthesis is transcription, where the DNA code is copied into messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules. The mRNA molecules then move out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm, where they are translated into a protein molecule.
Translation involves the ribosomes, which read the mRNA code and use it to assemble a chain of amino acids. The ribosomes move along the mRNA molecule, adding one amino acid at a time, until the protein is complete.
The type of protein that is synthesized depends on the specific sequence of amino acids and the way they are arranged. Proteins like receptors and enzymes are synthesized in this process, as well as many other important cellular components.
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1 Figure 1.15 is not in anatomical position. List all of the deviations from anatomical position. FIGURE 1.15 Figure not in anatomical position. 2 Locate the following wounds, and mark them on the body in Figure 1.16. a The wound is located in the left inferior, posterior lumbar region. It is 5 centimeters superior to the gluteal region and 3 centimeters lateral to the vertebral region. b The wound is located on the right anterior, medial crural region, 10 centimeters proximal to the tarsal region lnwhich of the following locations could you find simple cuboidal epthelal isue? A Outer surface of the skin (epidermis) B. Kidney tubules C. Stomach lining D. Lining of the trachea 10. Which of the following is an example of a unicellular gland? A. Macrophage B. Goblet cell C. Hormone-secreting cell D. Holocrine cell 11. which of the following tissues ts specialized for energy storage and thermal insulation? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Skeletal muscle C. Adipose 12. Decrease in the size of a tissue is known as A. hyperplasia B. metaplasia C. hypertrophy D. atrophy 13. Which of the following tissues are avascular? A. Epithelial tissue and cartilage B. Muscle tissue and cartilage C. Nervous tissue and muscle tissue D. Bone and cartilage 14. Which of the following proteins is most abundant in the human body? A. Elastin B. Collagen C. Keratin D. Reticulin ed in concentric circles around a central canal that 15. Which of the following tissues has a matrix arrang has blood vessels running through it? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Osseous tissue D. Nervous tissue 16. When you wiggle the tip of your nose with your fingers, the flexibility of the nose is due to the presence of which tissue? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage 17. Which of the following is a type of cartilage? A. Dense B. Areolar C. Spongy D. Elastic 18. Which of the following is not a connective tissue? A. Blood B. Skeletal muscle C. Cartilage 19. Sudden tissue necrosis resulting from an insufficient blood supply is called A. infarction B. apoptosis C. neoplasia lands that release their product to a surface via a duct are referred to asglands. A. exocrine B. holocrine C. apocrine D. endocrine
Figure 1.15 does not specify the deviations from anatomical position. The wound is 5 centimeters superior to the gluteal area and 3 centimeters lateral to the spinal region in the left inferior.
posterior lumbar region. b) The wound is 10 cm proximal to the tarsal area on the right anterior, medial crural region. On the skin's outer surface, simple cuboidal epithelial tissue can be observed (epidermis). A unicellular gland is an example of a Goblet cell. Adipose tissue is designed to store energy and provide thermal insulation. Atrophy is defined as a decrease in the size of a tissue. Avascular tissue includes epithelial tissue and cartilage. The most prevalent protein in the human body is collagen. A matrix is present in hyaline cartilage. Concentric rings form around a central canal with blood arteries going through it. Elastic cartilage is responsible for the nose's elasticity. A form of cartilage is elastic cartilage. Skeletal muscle does not belong to the connective tissue family. Infarction is defined as sudden tissue necrosis caused by a lack of blood flow. Exocrine glands are glands that secrete their product through a duct to the surface.
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The network of protein filaments that extend throughout the cytoplasm: a. cytomicrotubule b. cytoskeleton
c. cell membrane
d. cell wall
The network of protein filaments that extend throughout the cytoplasm is b. cytoskeleton that runs through every eukaryotic cell.
The network of cytoplasmic protein filaments made up of microtubules (MTs), actin filaments, and intermediate filaments is known as the cytoskeleton. It serves as an internal scaffold for shaping the cell. The association of the cytoskeleton isn't static but instead improves to empower different essential cell processes including chromosome isolation, cytokinesis, cell movement, cell extremity, cell attachment, neuron outgrowth, chemotaxis, muscle constriction, cytoplasmic streaming, velocity by flagella, subcellular organelle appropriation, and intracellular dealing. the cytoskeleton, which is a network of protein filaments that runs through every eukaryotic cell's cytoplasm.
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an effective antimicrobial drug will only destroy 30 of the host's cells T/F
False. An effective antimicrobial drug should target and destroy harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites.
while minimizing harm to the host's cells. This is because indiscriminate destruction of the host's cells can result in significant side effects and may increase the risk of developing resistance to the antimicrobial drug.
In an ideal microorganisms scenario, an effective antimicrobial drug would selectively target the pathogen without damaging the host's cells. However, this is not always possible, and some damage to host cells may occur. The goal of an antimicrobial drug is to strike a balance between eliminating the pathogen and minimizing harm to the host. A well-designed antimicrobial drug should cause minimal harm to the host's cells while effectively eliminating the pathogen, resulting in a quick resolution of the infection and reduced risk of long-term side effects.
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which method of measuring behavior is most effective at directly studying brain activity?
The most efficient approach of assessing behavior for directly examining brain activity is computed tomography (CT) scanning.
Which approach allows scientists to investigate brain anatomy the best?Over the past two decades, functional MRI (fMRI), a type of MRI, has become the most widely used neuroimaging technology. Blood flow and oxygen levels are monitored by fMRI to detect brain activity.
What two methods of brain research show brain activity?With the aid of cutting-edge noninvasive neuroimaging methods like EEG and fMRI, researchers may now watch brain activity while volunteers carry out different perceptual, motor, and/or cognitive tasks. The method used most frequently today to understand brain structure is fMRI. The fMRI produces images of the brain's anatomy and activity.
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PLEASE HELPPPP!!!!
The students must collect and record data during this experiment.
Biology students are investigating how the amount of food given to mice influences their daily activity level. The students place 5 mice in 5 different cages. They collect a variety of data over a one-month period. They observe and record data every day except Saturday and Sunday. The mice are fed each morning. In their individual cages, there are exercise wheels. The students record the amounts of food given to each mouse and then when and how long the mouse runs on the exercise wheel.
Help them decide which methods to use when.
Match each method to the type of data the students are collecting.
The correct match of each method to the type of data the students are collecting is as follows:
Journal entry: Students' daily impressions of the mice and their environmentBar graph: comparing the total weight lost or gained by each mouseData table: The daily weight gain of each mouse for a monthPie chart: The percentage of time during the month that is spent eating, sleeping, exercising or just sitting around. What are the methods of representing data?Data refers to recorded observations that are usually presented in a structured format.
According to this question, biology students are investigating how the amount of food given to mice influences their daily activity level. They make use of 5 different mice.
The methods of representing data are as follows:
Pie chart: A pictorial graph in the shape of a circle, with segments representing related proportions used to show percentages of a whole, and represents percentages at a set point in time.Data table: This is any display of information in tabular form, with rows and/or columns named. Bar graph: This is the form of boxes of different heights, with each box representing a different value or category of data, and the heights representing frequenciesThe method of data applicable to each type of data collected by the students is illustrated above in the main answer part.
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what is the probability that female i-3 is a heterozygous carrier of the allele for albinism?
On the off chance that the two guardians convey the quality, there's a 1 of every 4 opportunity that their youngster will have albinism and a 1 out of 2 possibilities that their kid will be a transporter.
For two heterozygote guardians (Aa), 1/4 of all posterity would be supposed to show the passive characteristic of albinism.
Albinism is an autosomal passive problem. An autosomal passive problem implies two duplicates of a strange quality should be available for the infection or characteristic to create. An ordinary individual will have genotype AA and a transporter of albinism will have genotype Aa.
Everything relies upon whether you AND your significant other convey an albinism quality. In the event that you two do, every kid has a 1 out of 4 possibility of having albinism. If by some stroke of good luck, one or neither of you is a transporter, then, at that point, every kid has very near no opportunity for albinism.
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Which of the following choices is a correct way to type the binomial name of a microorganism?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. staphylococcus Aureus
c. staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Staphylococcus Aureus
The right way to type a microorganism's binomial name is Staphylococcus aureus.
Staphylococcus bacteria can cause disease in humans and other creatures. Staphylococcus aureus is a common component of the body's microbiota and is a Gram-positive, spherically shaped bacterium that belongs to the Bacillota. Numerous clinical ailments are caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a gram-positive bacterium. The most common cause of skin and soft tissue infections such abscesses (boils), furuncles, and cellulitis is Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus or "staph"). Facts about Staphylococcus aureus, including how it spreads, typical symptoms, and complications. It is a non-moving, tiny, round-shaped or non-motile cocci that stains Gram positive. It grows in clusters that resemble grapes (staphylo-).
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TRUE/FALSE. an organ receiving innervation from postganglionic axons from both divisions of the autonomic system has innervation.
This statement is true. Organs innervated by postganglionic axons from both parts of the autonomic nervous system have dual innervation.
Postganglionic axons from these ganglia innervate the stomach, abdominal vessels, liver, gallbladder, parts of the pancreas, and the small intestine. The lesser visceral nerve originates from the T9-T11 spinal nerve and projects into the prevertebral superior mesenteric ganglion. Organs innervated by postganglionic axons from both parts of the autonomic nervous system have dual innervation. The heart is innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers from the autonomic branches of the peripheral nervous system. The plexuses that feed the heart are called cardiac plexuses.
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dna with a higher g and c content is more stable at high temperatures than dna with a high a and t content. why? g and c fit together better than a and t do. the two dna strands assume a parallel orientation when the a and t content is higher. each g-c pair forms three hydrogen bonds between antiparallel strands, whereas each a-t pair forms just two. the hydrophobic interactions between g and c are stronger than those between a and t. the negative charge on the phosphates in the backbone of dna strands is partially neutralized with a higher g and c content.
The stability of DNA at high temperatures depends on the hydrogen bonding and hydrophobic interactions between nitrogenous bases and the charges in the DNA backbone.
The main reason DNA with a higher G and C content is more stable at high temperatures than DNA with a high A and T content is that each G-C pair forms three hydrogen bonds between antiparallel strands, whereas each A-T pair forms just two. The additional hydrogen bond in G-C base pairs provides stronger and more stable interactions, making the DNA more resistant to denaturation at high temperatures.
Additionally, G and C have a higher melting temperature compared to A and T due to the stronger hydrophobic interactions between the two nitrogenous bases. This also contributes to the stability of DNA with a higher G and C content.
Moreover, the negative charge on the phosphates in the backbone of DNA strands is partially neutralized with a higher G and C content, adding to the stability of the DNA structure.
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Which of these belong to the five Core Concepts or five Core Principles in Biology? Select the five (5) that apply
1. structure of biological component determines its function
2.energy flows and is transformed within cells between organisms
3.info in DNA is used to make RNA which then is used to make protein. DNA is passed from parent to offspring
4.complexity of biology is based on multiple components interacting in systems resulting in new characteristics
4.ALL living organisms evolved from a common ancestor
structure of biological component determines its function, energy flows and is transformed within cells , DNA is used to make RNA is used to make protein, living organisms evolved from a common ancestor
The five Core Concepts or five Core Principles in Biology are fundamental to understanding the field of biology. The first concept states that the structure of a biological component determines its function. It follows that different components of a living organism have different protein functions, and the structure of each component is tailored to its function. The third concept is that the information in DNA is used to make RNA, which then is used to make protein. This process is crucial for transferring genetic information from parents to their offspring. The fourth concept states that the complexity of biology is based on multiple components interacting in systems resulting in new characteristics.
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high levels of cortisol would normally provide negative feedback to the _______.
High levels of cortisol would normally provide negative feedback to the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus.
Cortisol is a steroid hormone, in the glucocorticoid class of hormones. When used as a medication, it is known as hydrocortisone.
Numerous animals produce it, primarily the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex in the adrenal gland. Other tissues only create a small amount of it. It has a diurnal cycle and is more rItseadily released in reaction to stress and low blood glucose levels. consequences include the suppression of the immunological system, gluconeogenesis-induced blood sugar elevation, and encouragement of fat, protein, and carbohydrate breakdown. Furthermore, it inhibits bone development. In the cell, cortisol binds to glucocorticoid or mineralocorticoid receptors, which then bind to DNA to influence gene expression. Many of these tasks are carried out in this manner.
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In year 1, a population of rain forest plants has the following distribution: 50% have medium-tip leaves, 25% have wide-tip leaves, and 25% have drip-tip leaves. You will simulate three years of this population: year 1, year 5, and year 10. How will the trait distribution most likely change over this time?
Over the course of the three years, the trait distribution for the population of rainforest plants is likely to remain relatively stable.
This is because the traits are heritable and are passed down from generation to generation. However, due to the randomness of genetic inheritance, slight variations in the trait distribution may occur.
For example, the percentage of medium-tip leaves may increase or decrease, while the percentages of wide-tip and drip-tip leaves could remain the same or change slightly. In addition, mutations can also occur over time, leading to new variations in the trait distribution.
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when a scientific name is used more than once in the text, it is appropriate to write both the genus and species name the first time and then abbreviate the genus name every time a. true b. false
It is true when a scientific name appears more than once in the text, it is appropriate to write both the genus and species name the first time and then abbreviate the genus name every time after that.
Binominal nomenclature, also referred to as binary nomenclature or binomial nomenclature, is a formal system of naming species of living things by giving each a name composed of two parts, both of which use Latin grammatical forms, though they can be based on words from other languages. Binomial nomenclature is also known as the "two-term naming system" or "two-name naming system" and is used in taxonomy. A name of this type is known as a binomial name (which is also abbreviated to just "binomial"), a binomen, a binominal name, or a scientific name. It was also known as a Latin name unofficially at one point in time. The name's second component, the specific name or particular epithet, differentiates the species within the genus while the first component, the generic name, specifies the genus to which the species belongs.
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which of the following questions about genetic diversity could most appropriately be answered by analysis of the model in figure 1 ? responses does crossing-over generate more genetic diversity than the fusion of gametes does? does crossing-over generate more genetic diversity than the fusion of gametes does? does dna methylation prevent independent assortment during metaphase ii? does d n a methylation prevent independent assortment during metaphase 2 ? how does the independent assortment of the two sets of homologous chromosomes increase genetic diversity? how does the independent assortment of the two sets of homologous chromosomes increase genetic diversity? do daughter cells that are not genetically identical to parent cells produce viable zygotes?
The Correct option (2) How does the independent assortment of the two sets of homologous chromosomes increase genetic diversity?
Genetic diversity is the total number of genetic features in a species' genetic composition; it varies considerably from the number of species to variances within species and may be ascribed to a species' lifespan. It differs from genetic variability, which reflects the propensity of hereditary features to change.
Genetic variety allows populations to adapt to changing surroundings. More variety increases the likelihood that certain individuals in a group will have allele variants that are adapted to the environment.Those people are more likely to live and have children with that allele. The success of these individuals will ensure the survival of the population for future generations.
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Write (CER) to describe how at least 2 different organ systems work together as a subsystem in order to carry out a complex function such as running to 2nd base.
The (CER) or Claim-Evidence-Reasoning format can be used to describe the interaction between at least two different organ systems during a complex function such as running to second base.
The CER is given belowClaim: The musculoskeletal and cardiovascular systems work together as a subsystem during running to second base.
Evidence: When running, the muscles in the legs contract and relax to propel the body forward. The heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the muscles, providing the energy needed for movement. The respiratory system also plays a role by providing the body with oxygen and removing carbon dioxide.
Reasoning: The musculoskeletal system provides the movement necessary to run, while the cardiovascular system supplies the muscles with the energy they need to contract and the respiratory system provides the necessary oxygen. Together, these systems allow the body to perform the complex task of running to second base efficiently.
In summary, the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, and respiratory systems work together to allow the body to perform the complex task of running to second base.
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the parents of timothy and gina are carriers of the sickle cell gene. gina has sickle cell trait and timothy has sickle cell anemia. what can you say about the sickle cell genes the children inherited?
The sickle cell gene is a recessive gene, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the gene (one from each parent) to develop the disease.
According to the facts given, it may be assumed that both Timothy and Gina's parents are sickle cell gene carriers, which means they each have one gene for normal hemoglobin and one for sickle cell anemia. This indicates that they have a 50% risk of passing the sickle cell gene to their offspring.
Gina carries the sickle cell trait, which means she inherited both the sickle cell and the normal hemoglobin genes. She will not get the illness as a result, but she is a carrier and can carry the sickle cell gene to her offspring.
Due to the fact that Timothy has sickle cell anemia, he possesses two sickle cell genes—one from each father. This implies that he will grow to develop disease.
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what components of the rest nitrogen fraction are prevailing in blood under the condition of plasma nitrogen rise produced by tissue catabolism?
The components of the residual nitrogen fraction that are prevalent in blood under the condition of plasma nitrogen rise produced by tissue catabolism are mainly composed of urea, creatinine, and uric acid.
The residual nitrogen fraction, also known as non-protein nitrogen, refers to the nitrogen that is present in the blood but not in the form of proteins. Under the condition of plasma nitrogen rise produced by tissue catabolism, the residual nitrogen fraction increases, and the main components that contribute to this increase are urea, creatinine, and uric acid.
Urea is the end product of protein metabolism and is produced in the liver from the breakdown of excess amino acids. It is then excreted by the kidneys in the urine.
Creatinine is produced by the muscle metabolism and is a product of creatine phosphate. It is excreted by the kidneys in the urine, and elevated levels in the blood indicate a problem with kidney function.
Uric acid is the end product of purine metabolism and is excreted by the kidneys in the urine. Elevated levels of uric acid can lead to gout, a type of arthritis.
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HELP pls will mark you the brainliest
Answer:
Water absorbs carbon directly from the atmosphere by diffusion.
Explanation:
Note the sentences given in the prompt:
A vast amount of carbon is exchanged between the oceans and the atmosphere. Water absorbs carbon and it diffuses directly from the air into the water. As such, the oceans serve as a carbon sink, which is an area where carbon is stored.
Based on what the prompt suggests, carbon is relinquished from the air into water, and large bodies of water, including, in this case, oceans, mean that they are able to hold large amounts of carbon. Statistically, around 25% of all CO2 emissions are absorbed by oceans [carbonbrief].
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