!!!!I NEED HELP ASAP!!!!
-8= x+11
-------
-2
!!!!I NEED HELP ASAP!!!!​

Answer:

-73

please keeps as Brainly list

Answer:

≈ 2.2 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the distance d using the distance formula

d = [tex]\sqrt{(x_{2}-x_{1})^2+(y_{2}-y_{1})^2 }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 6, 2) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (- 7, 4)

d = [tex]\sqrt{(-7+6)^2+(4-2)^2}[/tex]

   = [tex]\sqrt{(-1)^2+2^2}[/tex]

   = [tex]\sqrt{1+4}[/tex]

    = [tex]\sqrt{5}[/tex] ≈ 2.2 ( to the nearest tenth )

The other factor of the polynomial [tex]\rm 3x^2-10x+8[/tex] is ( x - 2 )

It is given that the polynomial [tex]\rm 3x^2-10x+8[/tex] has a factor of  [tex]\rm (3x-4)[/tex].

It is required to find the other factor.

Polynomial is the combination of variables and constants in a systematic manner with "n" number of power in ascending or descending order.

We have polynomial:

[tex]\rm = 3x^2-10x+8[/tex]

Now by using the factorization method:

[tex]\rm = 3x^2-10x+8\\\rm = 3x^2-6x-4x+8\\\rm =3x(x-2)-4(x-2)\\\rm = (x-2)(3x-4)[/tex]

Thus, the other factor of a given polynomial is ( x-2 )

Learn more about Polynomial here:

https://brainly.com/question/17822016

Answer:

(1.)2.423

(2.) 1.423

Step-by-step explanation:

Check the graph

Here

So the answers are

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail x\to + \infty,f(x)\to 0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail x\to -\infty,f(x)\to +\infty[/tex]

Option B and D are correct

Answer:

78.54 (rounded to 2 d.p)

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the volume of cylinder is πr(squared)h

Radius is half of the diameter so 5/2 = 2.5

The height is 4

Therefore,

π x 2.5 x 4 = 78.53982

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

0.20*165=33

Answer:

With the definition of percentage. 20% of something means multiplying it by 20 and then dividing the result by 100. In our case, [tex]165.00 \times 20 \div 100 = 33.00[/tex]

Alternatively, convert it into a fraction. 20 is 1/5 of 100 (alternatively, you need to pick 20 five times to get 100), and then you just multiply

[tex]165.00 \times \frac15 = 33.00[/tex]

Answer:

6/4 or 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m = 5

p = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A

The dashes on the lines mean that the lines are equal in length.

Therefore, IJ = IH and HK = KJ

So as IJ = IH

⇒ 10 = 2m

⇒ m = 10 ÷ 2

⇒ m = 5

Part B

The line IK is the bisector of angle I since IJ = IH and HK = KJ

Therefore, 2p - 5 = p + 5

subtract p from both sides:

⇒ 2p - 5 - p = p + 5 - p

⇒ p - 5 = 5

Add 5 to both sides:

⇒ p - 5 + 5 = 5 + 5

⇒ p = 10

Answer:

49 men will be required to weave 189 baskets in 3 days.

Answer:

49 men required

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Just did the test. Wish you luck!!

The equation of line is y = ( 3/2 )x - 7 , where the slope is m = 3/2

The equation of a line is expressed as y = mx + b where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept

And y - y₁ = m ( x - x₁ )

y = y-coordinate of second point

y₁ = y-coordinate of point one

m = slope

x = x-coordinate of second point

x₁ = x-coordinate of point one

The slope m = ( y₂ - y₁ ) / ( x₂ - x₁ )

Given data ,

Let the equation of line be represented as A

Now , the value of A is

Now , the slope of the line is m = ( y₂ - y₁ ) / ( x₂ - x₁ )

Substituting the values in the equation , we get

Slope m = 3/2

The y-intercept is b = -7

And , equation of a line is expressed as y = mx + b where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept

So , y = ( 3/2 )x - 7

Hence , the equation of line is y = ( 3/2 )x - 7

To learn more about equation of line click :

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Answer:

16 times

Step-by-step explanation:

We first have to find the total amount of crayons:

[tex]3+7+4+8+2+1=25[/tex]

That means that the box contains a total of 25 crayons. Of those 25 crayons, 7 are blue and 1 is orange. That means every time one crayon is chosen from the box, there is an 8 in 25 chance it will be blue or orange. We can represent that chance as a fraction: [tex]\frac{8}{25}[/tex]

That [tex]\frac{8}{25}[/tex] chance occurs each time ONE crayon is chosen, so if we want to know how many times blue or orange will be chosen after 50 times, we can multiply that chance by 50.

[tex]\frac{8}{25}*50=400/25[/tex]

Then you simplify the fraction:

[tex]\frac{400}{25}=16[/tex]

That means that if you pull crayons from the box 50 times, a blue or orange crayon will be likely drawn around 16 times.

Answer: 19/40 Step by step

Step 1 of 2: Convert decimal to fraction.

Convert decimal to fraction

0.475 = 475 over 1000

475

1000

Step 2 of 2: Simplify.

Simplify

475 over 1000

475

1000

= 19 over 40

19

40

Step 2 of 2: Simplify, sub-step a: Reduce fraction to lowest terms.

Reduce fraction to lowest terms

475 over 1000

475

1000

= ( 475 ÷ 25 ) over ( 1000 ÷ 25 )

475 ÷ 25

1000 ÷ 25

= 19 over 40

19

40

25 is the greatest common divisor of 475 and 1000. Reduce by dividing both numerator and denominator by 25.

Answer:

(1,-4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

435

Step-by-step explanation:

Transformations are used to change the orientation of a function to a new function. The graph of [tex]f(x) = x^2[/tex] will have its parabola widened when it changes to [tex]g(x) = 3x^2[/tex]

Given that

[tex]f(x) = x^2[/tex]

If the new function is:

[tex]g(x) = 3x^2[/tex]

It means that f(x) has been vertically translated by a scale factor of 3.

The graph will be affected such that the parabola of [tex]f(x) = x^2[/tex] will become widen when the coefficient changes to 3 i.e. [tex]g(x) = 3x^2[/tex].

See attachment for the graph of f(x) and g(x)

Read more about function transformation at:

https://brainly.com/question/12865301

Answer:

26

Step-by-step explanation:

AB to B is 16 units, so it's reasonable to assume that A to AB is 16 units as well.

Answer:

1/24

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to create a sample space to list the possible outcomes.

S = {1HH, 1HT, 1TH, 1TT, 2HH, 2HT, 2TH, 2TT, 3HH, 3HT, 3TH, 3TT, 4HH, 4HT, 4TH, 4TT, 5HH, 5HT, 5TH, 5TT, 6HH, 6HT, 6TH, 6TT}

Solution :-

1/24

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

correct-

Answer:

It's wrong the first answer is correct

Answer:

75 is the l.c.m of 15 and 25

explanation:

multiples:

15 - 15, 30, 45, 60, 75

25 - 25, 50, 75

Therefore, 75 is the l.c.m of 15 and 25 which is divisible by both numbers.

Answer:

75

Step-by-step explanation:

Prime factorization

15 = 5 x 3

25 = 5²

LCM (15, 25) = 5² x 3

= 25 x 3

= 75

Note:-

Graph must not be drawn to scale so taken imaginary coordinates most near to accurate

So the cordinates are

Mark the change between x and y

So

the relationship is

Option C

Answer:

C.  [tex]y=x+200[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Line of best fit (trendline) : a line through a scatter plot of data points that best expresses the relationship between those points.

All the given options for the line of best fit are linear equations.

Therefore, we can add the line of best fit to the graph (see attached), remembering to have roughly the same number of points above as below the line.

Linear equation:  [tex]y=mx+b[/tex]

(where [tex]m[/tex] is the slope and [tex]b[/tex] is the y-intercept)

From inspection of the line of best fit, we can see that the y-intercept (where x = 0) is approximately 200.  So this suggests that either option C or option D is the solution.

We can also see that slope (gradient) is approximately 1, as for every +100 increase in x, y increases by +100.

[tex]\textsf{slope = rate of change}=\sf\dfrac{change \ in \ y}{change \ in \ x}=\dfrac{100}{100}=1[/tex]

Therefore, this suggests that C is the solution and that the closest approximation to the line of best fit is [tex]y=x+200[/tex]

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. Something along they will cheetah (kind of like they will cheat)

2. Because it was a boxer

Answer:

1. They might be cheetahs!

2.Becasue it was a boxer!

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

Brainliest is appreciated!

Have a great day!

~Mitsuna

Answer:40

Step-by-step explanation:

10 devided by .25  = 40

Answer:

3 plus 2 is 5

Step-by-step explanation:

the f tear is known to you

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the coordinate (5,9) into the equation

9=3(5)-6

9=15-6

9=9

Answer:

a) The differential equation for the velocity is given by

(dv/dt) = k(250 - v)

b) v(t) = 250 - e⁽⁵•⁵² ⁻ ᵏᵗ⁾

With units of km/h

Step-by-step explanation:

Acceleration, a ∝ (250 - v)

But acceleration is widely given as dv/dt

(dv/dt) ∝ (250 - v)

(dv/dt) = k(250 - v)

where k = constant of proportionality

(dv/dt) = k(250 - v)

b) (dv/dt) = k(250 - v)

dv/(250 - v) = k dt

∫ dv/(250 - v) = ∫ k dt

- In (250 - v) = kt + c (where c is the constant of integration)

v(0) = 0; meaning, at t = 0, v = 0

- In 250 = 0 + C

c = - In 250 = - 5.52

- In (250 - v) = kt - 5.52

In (250 - v) = 5.52 - kt

250 - v = e⁽⁵•⁵² ⁻ ᵏᵗ⁾

v = 250 - e⁽⁵•⁵² ⁻ ᵏᵗ⁾

With units of km/h

i hope this work for you

and sory if im wrang

Answer:

x=33

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-18+4x=180

6x-18=180 combine like terms

   +18   +18 add on both sides

6x= 198  divide

x= 33