how do you distinguish false labor from real contractions

Answers

Answer 1

False labor, or Braxton Hicks contractions, can be distinguished from real contractions in several ways.

False labor is usually not regular or rhythmic, while real contractions typically occur at regular intervals. False labor usually occurs sporadically and tends to fade away, while real labor will continue and become stronger over time. Another way to distinguish false labor from real labor is to pay attention to the strength of the contractions. Real labor contractions become increasingly intense and closer together over time, while false labor usually stays relatively mild and doesn't progress. Finally, false labor contractions don't typically cause any cervical changes, while real labor contractions can help the cervix to thin and dilate.

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Related Questions

Create a Chart Comparing Careers in Health-and-Safety
Assignment
In this assignment, you will use the health-and-safety career information from this lesson to create a table comparing three career options: a health-and-safety engineer, an occupational health-and-safety specialist, and an occupational health-and-safety technician. Your table will list the job responsibilities, educational requirements, certification options, work environment, desirable personality traits, salary, and job outlook for each option. In your table, you will also list the job responsibilities, educational requirements, certification options, work environment, personality traits, salary, and job outlook that best describe you. You will then use the table to choose the career in health-and-safety that is the best fit for you. Finally, you will write a 500-word essay explaining your decision.

To complete this assignment, you will:
Create a table comparing the three career options discussed in this lesson, and your own career expectations.
Choose the career in health-and-safety that is the best match for your needs and wants.
Write a 500-word essay explaining your decision

Answers

Health and Safety Career Comparison Chart. Alternatives for a career Job Duties Education Needs Certifications Work Environment Desired Personality Attributes Median Yearly Salary Job Outlook

What are the six primary categories for careers?You can choose from the traditional, network, lateral, or dual career pathways. From one particular job to the next, an employee moves vertically up the corporation. a career pathing approach that includes both a horizontal array of prospects and a vertical hierarchy of employment.Work settings can be categorised into six categories: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, entrepreneurial, and conventional.According to our research of hundreds of time diaries from the Bureau of Labor Statistics' American Time Usage Survey, the three major industry categories of agriculture, logging, and forestry have the highest levels of self-reported happiness — and the lowest levels of self-reported stress.

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At the end of your summer barbecue, you are feeling very full due to the activity of your. answer choices. cerebellum. hypothalamus. hippocampus.

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Answer:

hypothalamus ...............

Protein Function Protein kinases phosphorylate target enzymes and as a result enzymes become activated or inactivated. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE? A. phosphorylated enzymes may behave like competitive inhibitors. B. Rthe presence of a phosphate group may act as a non-competitive inhibitor/activator. No change in Km but significant change in VmaxC. the presence of a phosphate group may induce a conformational change that modifies the affinity and catalytic ability of a target enzyme. D. the presence of a phosphate group tags the enzyme allowing interactions with other enzymes

Answers

The statement that is NOT TRUE is phosphorylated enzymes may behave like competitive inhibitors. So the correct answer is option A.

Competitive inhibitors are molecules that bind to the active site of an enzyme and compete with the substrate for binding. Phosphorylation, on the other hand, involves the addition of a phosphate group to a specific amino acid residue on the enzyme, which can induce a conformational change that modifies the affinity and catalytic ability of the enzyme. Phosphorylation can also tag the enzyme and allow interactions with other proteins, leading to the activation or inhibition of the enzyme's activity. The presence of a phosphate group can act as a non-competitive inhibitor/activator, meaning that it can affect the enzyme's activity without changing the Km value but with a significant change in Vmax.

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Which statement by a patient receiving high-dose melphalan indicates an understanding of the teaching?a "I will suck on ice while the drug is being administered."b "I will put honey in my tea daily."c "It is important to take the tablet with food."d "Blood counts are not routinely monitored during therapy."

Answers

"I will suck on ice while the drug is being administered." is an indication of understanding of the teaching by a patient receiving high-dose melphalan. Thus, correct statement is a .

cancer that affects the bone marrow. It works by interfering with the growth of cancer cells, causing them to die out over time. Melphalan is an alkylating agent that is derived from nitrogen mustard, a type of chemical warfare agent. Its use is often accompanied by bone marrow suppression, making patients more susceptible to infection and other complications.

Sucking on ice chips while the medication is being administered may help to alleviate oral mucositis , A common side effect of high-dose melphalan therapy. This treatment has been shown to be effective in reducing the severity of this side effect, which can be debilitating and result in the patient being unable to eat or drink.

"I will suck on ice while the drug is being administered. "This statement is a positive response that indicates an understanding of the teaching. Hence , statement a. is correct .

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En el dispositivo Funke, el globo pequeño atado al tubito representa al diafragma. ¿V o F?

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This given statement "En el dispositivo Funke, el globo pequeño atado al tubito representa al diafragma" is true because the Funke device is designed to simulate the respiratory system, and the balloon attached to the tube is used to represent the diaphragm, which is a key muscle involved in breathing.

In the Funke device, the small balloon attached to the tube represents the diaphragm. The Funke device is a teaching tool used in medical education to demonstrate the functioning of the respiratory system. The balloon represents the diaphragm, which is an important muscle in breathing.

When the diaphragm contracts, it expands and moves downward, creating space in the lungs for air to enter. When the diaphragm relaxes, it moves upward, expelling air from the lungs. The balloon in the Funke device inflates and deflates to demonstrate this process, helping students better understand how breathing works and the role of the diaphragm in it.

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Finding ways to connect ideas in order to learn them better is calleda. Memorizationc. Applicationb. Definingd. Association

Answers

The Answer:  Association

what its called in positive psychology, this refers to an awareness of pleasure along with quite deliberate attempts to focus attention on the sensation at hand and delight in it.

Answers

This phenomenon is known as savoring in positive psychology. Savoring refers to consciously focusing one's attention and energy on the pleasure derived from an experience in the present moment.

It involves being aware of one's current environment and environment, appreciating the positive aspects, and being open to the feeling of pleasure and satisfaction. This can be done through mindfulness, gratitude, and positive emotions.
Savoring allows us to take full advantage of the moment and appreciate it. It is different from simply enjoying the experience and letting it pass us by; it involves a conscious choice to make the experience memorable. Savoring also allows us to recognize our blessings and be thankful for the joys in life, thus, adding to our overall well-being.
Savoring has also been linked to greater happiness, a heightened ability to recall positive memories, and improved overall health. Therefore, it is a beneficial skill to cultivate, as it can lead to a healthier and more fulfilling life.

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A good exercise session should include which of the following?


power lifting
power lifting

cool down
cool down

a TV show
a TV show

muscular endurance
muscular endurance

cardio-respiratory endurance
cardio-respiratory endurance

flexibility
flexibility

snack break
snack break

muscular strength
muscular strength

warm-up

Answers

Answer:

A,B,D,E,F,G,H,I

Explanation:

I do not know if this is correct, but please correct me if not. Power lifting, cool down, muscular endurance, cardio-respiratory endurance, flexibility, muscular strength, and warm-up

Men appear to report dieting for reasons different from those of women. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to men and dieting?A. Men are shape oriented rather than weight oriented.B. Men usually diet for a specific reason, such as sports performance.C. Men focus on the upper body rather than the lower body.D. Men hope to improve their appearance to advance in the workplace.

Answers

The following is NOT true regarding men and dieting is men hope to improve their appearance to advance in the workplace.

The correct answer is option D.

Men are more shape oriented than weight oriented, according to studies. Men are more likely to diet for a specific reason, such as sports performance, than women. When compared to the lower body, men concentrate on the upper body. They are more concerned with their muscles and abs than with their thighs and hips.

Men who are overweight or obese are more likely than women to believe that they will be treated differently at work. According to a study, 49% of men believe they must be physically attractive to succeed at work. The study also revealed that men who are obese or overweight earn an average of $8,000 less per year than those who are not. This is due to the fact that they are less likely to be offered promotions and are less likely to be employed in leadership roles.

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healthy people tend to be happier than unhealthy people. from this kind of information, which of the following (if any) can we conclude?

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Healthy people tend to be happier than unhealthy people. From this kind of information, we can conclude that there is a positive correlation between physical health and happiness.

Correlation is a statistical measure of how two variables are associated with each other. The correlation coefficient (r) ranges from -1 to +1, with -1 indicating a perfect negative relationship, +1 indicating a perfect positive relationship, and 0 indicating no relationship between two variables. It is used to determine the strength and direction of the relationship between two variables.

Physical health refers to the overall well-being of a person's physical body, including factors such as fitness level, nutrition, sleep quality, and general health. Physical health is a critical component of overall health and well-being, and maintaining a healthy body is essential for leading a happy, fulfilling life. Happiness is a subjective feeling of well-being and contentment, it is often associated with positive emotions such as joy, satisfaction, and gratitude. Happiness is an essential component of overall well-being and is linked to positive outcomes such as improved physical and mental health, increased productivity, and a better quality of life.

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The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classifies people according to personality types identified by:

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The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) categorizes people based on personality types identified by four dichotomies: extraversion (E) vs. introversion (I), sensing (S) vs. intuition (N), thinking (T) vs. feeling (F), and judging (J) vs. perceiving (P).

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is a personality assessment that categorizes individuals into one of sixteen personality types based on their preferences in four dichotomies: extraversion/introversion (E/I), sensing/intuition (S/N), thinking/feeling (T/F), and judging/perceiving (J/P). It is widely used in business, education, and personal development contexts to help individuals better understand their unique strengths and weaknesses, as well as how they can interact more effectively with others who may have different personality types.MBTI classifies people according to personality types identified by four dichotomies: extraversion/introversion (E/I), sensing/intuition (S/N), thinking/feeling (T/F), and judging/perceiving (J/P).Answer: Extraversion/introversion (E/I), sensing/intuition (S/N), thinking/feeling (T/F), and judging/perceiving (J/P).

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The psychometric approach to studying cognitive development analyzes intelligence using _____.
A. IQ tests and other measures
B. observation
C. narratives
D. physiological measures

Answers

The psychometric approach to studying cognitive development analyzes intelligence using IQ tests and other measures. These measure the cognitive development. Thus, the correct option is A.

What is psychometric approach?

The psychometric approach to measuring cognitive development involves the use of tests and measuring scales to quantify and compare cognitive abilities among individuals. The majority of these tools are based on the notion of general intelligence or "g."

IQ tests are commonly employed as part of the psychometric approach to measuring cognitive development. IQ, or Intelligence Quotient, is a numerical score that is obtained via various tests to determine a person's intellectual abilities or intelligence quotient.

The general approach is dependent on the testing of a person's cognitive skills, such as knowledge, memory, language use, creativity, and spatial reasoning, to establish a final IQ score.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

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The study of the nonphysical aspects of the aging process.
Life Structure
Unintegrated Personalities
Gerontology
Integrated Personalities
Social Gerontoloogy

Answers

Answer: Gerontology

Explanation:

Gerontology is the study of the nonphysical aspects of the aging process. Life Structure refers to the pattern of an individual's life, including work, relationships, and leisure activities. Unintegrated Personalities refer to individuals who have not developed a consistent sense of self and may struggle with identity issues. Integrated Personalities refer to individuals who have developed a consistent sense of self and a coherent worldview. Social Gerontology is the study of the social aspects of aging, including social policies and programs that affect older adults.

Which area of health you plan to promote and what community you will target for your promotion. Think back over the health topics you have studied and think of three that seem the most relevant to you. Then decide which community you want to target in your promotional materials. For example, do you want to motivate your five-block neighborhood to improve its recycling program, or do you want to improve the nutritional quality of your school lunches? If so, then the neighborhood or the school would be your community

Answers

There is widespread agreement that a variety of non-health factors, such as socioeconomic conditions, patterns of communication and food consumption, and demographic trends, influence people's health and sense of wellbeing. Therefore, health can be promoted in community of work places, schools as well as residential areas to reach masses.

The absence of all diseases or injuries is the official definition of health. Recent academics and medical professionals, however, have broadened this definition and replaced it with the capacity to adapt to social, mental, and physical challenges.

Changes in lifestyle can lower the risk of diseases and improve a person's overall health as part of health promotion activities. For instance, increasing exercise or following a healthy diet can enhance one's general level of energy and lower risk of cardiovascular diseases, among other health benefits. The main goal of health promotion activities is to improve people's long-term health, which can then improve the health of the entire community.

The settings-based designs, which take into account the complex health determinants like behaviors, cultural beliefs, practices, etc. that operate in the places where people live and work, can be implemented in schools, workplaces, markets, residential areas, etc. to address priority health problems. Additionally, settings-based design facilitates the incorporation of health promotion initiatives into social activities while taking into account local conditions.

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What age do impulse control disorders, phobias, and separation disorders start?

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Impulse control disorders, phobias, and separation disorders can begin to manifest in children as young as 2 or 3 years old. However, the age when symptoms become diagnosable is often between 8 and 12 years of age.

Impulse control disorders usually start around early childhood or adolescence. Phobias are known to develop at any age, although they most commonly begin in childhood or adolescence. Separation anxiety disorder (SAD) typically begins in childhood, although it may also appear in adolescence or adulthood.

Impulse control disorders (ICDs) are a class of psychiatric disorders characterized by failure to resist impulses, urges, or desires that may result in harm to oneself or others. A substance-related and addictive disorder, behavioral addiction, and mood disorders are all part of this category of disorders.

Phobias are a kind of anxiety disorder characterized by intense, unwarranted fears of everyday situations or items. Many people have phobias that don't cause significant harm in their daily lives, but others have phobias that cause significant distress and limit their ability to live a normal life.

Separation anxiety disorder (SAD) is a form of anxiety disorder that occurs when an individual experiences anxiety or distress as a result of being separated from an important person or place. The anxiety and distress typically worsen over time and can affect the individual's ability to function in daily life.

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A school nurse has requested the school board remove a piece of playground equipment due to a documented increase in injuries that can be linked back to it. The nurse's actions are an example of which of the following?

Answers

Advocacy, Justification: It is the duty of nurses to uphold the legal and moral rights of patients and deliver high-caliber nursing care.

Supporting or pursuing a particular course of action on behalf of and for the benefit of a person, group, or community is referred to as advocacy. In order to help the school's students, this request was made on their behalf. An illustration of advocacy is this.

This is an important part of a school nurse's role, as they are responsible for promoting health and safety within the school environment. The nurse's actions demonstrate her commitment to fulfilling this responsibility and ensuring that the students are able to play and learn in a safe environment.

During the identity versus role confusion or puberty stage, a nurse should assist hospitalized adolescents in dealing with illness by assisting them in making their own treatment decisions.

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Full Question ;

A school nurse has requested the school board remove a piece of playground equipment due to a documented increase in injuries that can be linked back to it.

how to make your stomach stop growling while in class

Answers

How to stop stomach growling
Drink water. Share on Pinterest Drinking water may help to stop stomach growling. ...
Eat something. ...
Chew slowly. ...
Limit sugar, alcohol, and acidic foods. ...
Avoid food and drink that cause gas. ...
Discover food intolerances. ...
Practice portion control. ...
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if having your license suspended for driving too fast makes you less likely to speed when you get it back, then the suspension is an example of

Answers

If having your license suspended for driving too fast makes you less likely to speed when you get it back, then the suspension is an example of a punishment that aims to deter future behavior.

Deterrence refers to measures taken by law enforcement to prevent individuals from committing crimes. The goal of deterrence is to decrease the incidence of crimes in society by making potential criminals believe that the negative outcomes associated with a criminal act outweigh the benefits of committing the crime.

There are two kinds of deterrence, and they are:

General deterrence: This form of deterrence aims to keep members of the public from committing crimes. The idea behind this is that the punishment of one criminal will dissuade others from engaging in criminal behavior.

Specific deterrence: This approach is focused on deterring recidivism by imposing harsh penalties on individuals who have committed crimes before. The idea behind this is that if people who have previously committed crimes are punished severely, they will be less likely to re-offend in the future.

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Which represents a win-win solution between Alexei, who wants a pay raise, and his boss Marla?

Marla grants him a raise, and Alexei in turn is motivated to work harder for her.
Marla does not grant him a raise, but Alexei is motivated to work harder for her to change her mind.
Marla does not grant him a raise, and Alexei feels dejected and unmotivated to work for her.
Marla grants him a raise, but Alexei stops working as hard for her now that he got what he wanted.

Answers

Answer:

Marla grants him a raise, and Alexei in turn is motivated to work harder for her.

Explanation:

Alexei gets the pay raise he wanted and Marla gets a motivated employee.

what are the two bony structures that form the nasal septum

Answers

The nasal septum is made up of two bony structures: the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. The vomer is a thin, bony, triangular plate which forms the posterior and inferior part of the septum. It articulates with the maxillae and sphenoid bones.

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone is a thin, flat, and square plate that forms the superior and anterior portion of the septum. It articulates with the frontal and sphenoid bones. The nasal septum provides support to the nose, helps to regulate airflow, and allows the structures of the nose to remain symmetrical.



The nasal septum also helps to protect the delicate tissues of the nose from trauma. Its two bony structures provide stability, ensuring that the nose does not collapse under the pressure of air and fluid. The nasal septum also helps to humidify and warm the air entering the nasal cavity, which helps to protect the delicate nasal tissues from dry air and cold air.

Lastly, the nasal septum helps to equalize pressure between the two sides of the nose, which helps to maintain the health of the sinuses and ears.

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The nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with an adolescent client who has chronic kidney failure and peripheral edema. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching?

Answers

The nurse include in teaching are- "I will eat more oranges and other foods with vitamin C."

Citrus fruits are more rich in potassium and should be stayed away from, since kidney find it difficult to remove the more potassium. Examples of foods that are more rich in potassium they are dried fruits, avocado, tomato, potatoes, and bananas.

In kidney failure, the person stands a more chance for hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, and hyperphosphatemia.

Potassium, is found in high amounts in citrus fruits and dried fruits, and  need to take these fruits with caution.

Phosphorus is lack due to the important balance of potassium electrolyte with calcium. Protein is inhibited as the failure to remove uric acid, which is produced during protein metabolism . Sodium must obtained in foods, is also restrained to avoid fluid overload and edema.

question was incomplete

The options are:

"I will eat more oranges and other foods with vitamin C."

"I should increase dairy products in my diet."

"I should add protein powder to my fruit smoothies."

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according to the dietary guidelines, americans should consume less than ______ of calories per day from added sugars.

Answers

I have you your answer give me one

An integrated understanding of pain control in terms of mental distraction, the release of endorphins, and the presence of empathic caregivers is most clearly provided by..?a. parapsychology.
b. opponent-process theory.
c. a biopsychosocial approach.
d. the volley principle.

Answers

An integrated understanding of pain control in terms of mental distraction, the release of endorphins, and the presence of empathic caregivers is most clearly provided by a biopsychosocial approach. The correct answer is C.

The biopsychosocial model is a term used to describe a way of understanding health problems that take into account not only the physical aspect of a person's illness but also the psychological and social elements involved. The biopsychosocial model of illness is a theory that suggests that a person's health and well-being are influenced by biological, psychological, and social factors. As a result, it aims to take into account these three aspects of a person's health when evaluating their well-being.

Mental distraction, the release of endorphins, and the presence of empathic caregivers are all elements that could be explored in this biopsychosocial approach. Pain control is an aspect that could benefit from a holistic perspective since psychological, social, and physical factors are all involved. Therefore, the answer is option c. a biopsychosocial approach.

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after a plane crash, sherrod wakes up in the hospital and can remember everything about his life. the doctor comes in, introduces himself, and explains the course of treatment. the next day, sherrod believes he has never met the doctor and asks him to explain the proposed treatment. the doctor is likely to diagnose sherrod with after a plane crash, sherrod wakes up in the hospital and can remember everything about his life. the doctor comes in, introduces himself, and explains the course of treatment. the next day, sherrod believes he has never met the doctor and asks him to explain the proposed treatment. the doctor is likely to diagnose sherrod with o anterograde amnesia. o absentmindedness. o retrograde amnesia. o a concussion.

Answers

I would say anterograde amnesia, because anterograde amnesia is a type of memory loss that occurs when you can't form new memories. In the most extreme cases, this means you permanently lose the ability to learn or retain any new information. On its own, this type of memory loss is rare. Anterograde amnesia is often temporary

how long does it usually take for a single concussion to fully heal?

Answers

14 to 21 days !!!!!!!

What is the most important thing to remember when lifting weights?
a. write down how much you are using
b. lift with a partner
c. put the weights back where you got them
d. proper form and technique

Answers

Answer:

Apply proper form

Go through the whole range of motion in your joints when lifting weights. The better your form, the better your outcomes will be, and you will be less likely to injure yourself. If you can't keep proper form, reduce the weight or the number of repetitions.

Explanation:

brainliest pls

Your answer would be D: Proper Form and Technique

When you are lifting weights, moving with full range of motion in your joints. The better technique you have, you have a better chance of not hurting yourself.

If Fred holds a letter he is reading very close to his nose, and Charlie holds a letter at arm's length when he reads it, Fred will experience _____ erica

Answers

Answer:More convergence than

Explanation:

What is the medical term for not breathing?

Answers

Answer:

Apnea

Explanation:

how long does it take for nicotine to leave your system after quitting smoking

Answers

Answer:

It takes (around) 3 days for the nicotine to leave your system after quitting smoking.

After you stop smoking, nicotine takes about 3–4 days to leave your system. Your body can retain nicotine for up to 20 days.

Your body can retain nicotine for up to 20 days. Nicotine distributes to the brain and other body tissues once it enters the bloodstream. The body takes two hours to break down half of the nicotine, which is known as the half-life of nicotine. This suggests that it will take 3 to 4 days for nicotine to completely leave your body. It's critical to remember that some circumstances may impact how quickly nicotine is metabolised in the body.

People who eat a good, balanced diet with lots of fruits and vegetables metabolise nicotine more quickly than those who eat a bad diet with lots of saturated and trans fats. Nicotine metabolism in the body is controlled by the liver. Your body may take longer to break down nicotine if your liver isn't working properly. Several variables can affect how long it takes for nicotine to exit your system after you stop smoking.

The average time it takes for nicotine to leave your body is 72 hours (3 days). However, nicotine takes around 3–4 days to completely leave your system after you stop smoking.

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on the body's motor homunculus, which of the following has the largest spatial representation in the brain?

Answers

The body part that has the largest spatial representation in the brain's motor homunculus is the hands.

It's essential to understand that the motor homunculus is a topographical and an anatomical representation of body parts on the precentral gyrus. Furthermore, it is a neurological map that indicates the amount of motor cortex dedicated to specific body regions.

The face occupies the most significant amount of space in the homunculus, followed by the hands and fingers, and finally the legs and feet. The diagram indicates that the size of each body region represents the quantity of the motor cortex devoted to it. When an area of the body that is represented on the homunculus is stimulated or utilized, the corresponding area of the homunculus is activated.

The more nerve endings a body part has, the more substantial the representation is in the motor cortex. The hand has the most nerve endings, followed by the face, foot, and finally the trunk.

Therefore,  The motor homunculus is a topographical representation of the human body's anatomy, specifically the cortical regions that are responsible for motor function.

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