How do I do this question?

Answer:

the y intercept is -4 (as a point it is (0,-4))

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there!

We are given a slope (m) of 3 and the point (-1,-7).

We need to find the y intercept of the line that has the slope of 3 and passes through (-1,-7)

One way to find the y intercept is to write the equation of the line in slope-intercept form (y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y intercept).

Since we are given the slope, we can immediately substitute it into the equation

Here it is so far:

y=3x+b

now we need to find b (the y intercept)

since the line passes through the point (-1,-7), we can use it to solve for b

substitute -1 as x and -7 as y into the equation

-7=3(-1)+b

multiply

-7=-3+b

add 3 to both sides

-4=b

so the y intercept is -4 . If you need it as a point, its (0,-4) as the y intercept is the point where the equation passes through the y axis, so the value of x is 0.

Hope this helps! :)

Answer:

correct me if im wrong but im assuming four just cause if you count what you have all ready not couting the 15 pies. You have at leat 12 and not couting the lemon pies. And from there you basically have to just thing and do the math and I got at least 3 to 5 pies that should be blueberry. srry for my spekling it ducks

We can expect that out of the next 15 pies sold, approximately 5 of them will be blueberry pies.

Relative frequency is a statistical measure that expresses the proportion or percentage of times an event occurs in relation to the total number of events.

We have,

To estimate how many of the next 15 pies sold should be blueberry pies, we can use the relative frequency of blueberry pies in the given data.

The relative frequency of a pie flavor is the ratio of the number of pies of that flavor to the total number of pies.

The total number of pies sold in this data is:

= 2 + 3 + 2 + 4 + 1

= 12

The number of blueberry pies sold is 4.

The relative frequency of blueberry pies.

= 4/12

= 1/3

This means that 1/3 of the pies sold were blueberry pies.

To estimate the number of blueberry pies out of the next 15 pies sold, we can multiply 15 by the relative frequency of blueberry pies.

= 15 x (1/3)

= 5

Therefore,

We can expect that out of the next 15 pies sold, approximately 5 of them will be blueberry pies.

Learn more about relative frequency here:

https://brainly.com/question/29739263

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Answer:

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Answer:

46

Step-by-step explanation:

Diagonals of square are equal, Therefore,

KM=161

JL=4x-23

4x-23=161

4x=161+23

4x=184

x=184/4

x=46

Answer:

18/38 or 9/19

Step-by-step explanation:

18 squares are red

18 squares are black

2 squares have 0 or 00

Answer:

A trinomial is a perfect trinomial if the first and last terms are positive, perfect squares and the middle term is twice the product of their square roots.

Therefore, if you mean perfect as in positive, the answer is True.

Answer:

The exponent is 6.

Basically, the term 5x^6 is asking you to raise 'x' to the 6th power (the exponent) and then multiply it by 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  4.5765%

Step-by-step explanation:

Apparently, you have to figure out how long it would take to accumulate a balance of $10,457.65 with interest compounded, then use that time period to compute the equivalent simple interest rate. The relevant formulas are ...

  A = P(1 +r/n)^(nt) . . . . amount of P at rate r compounded n times per year for t years

  A = P(1 +rt) . . . . amount of P at rate r simple interest for t years

We need to use the first formula to find t, then use the second formula to find r. In both cases A=10457.65 and P=10000. Quarterly compounding means n=4. The interest rate is r=0.045 for the first formula.

Looking for t:

  A/P = (1 +r/n)^(nt) . . . . . . . . . . divide by P

  log(A/P) = nt·log(1 +r/n) . . . . . take logs

  t = log(A/P)/(n·log(1 +r/n)) . . . divide by the coefficient of t

Filling in the given values, we find t to be ...

  t = log(10457.65/10000)/(4·log(1 +0.045/4)) = 0.999998 ≈ 1.0

The compound interest is applied for 1 year (t=1), so now we can find r using the second formula.

  A = P(1 +rt)

  A/P -1 = rt

Filling in the known values, we have ...

  1.045765 -1 = r = 0.045765 = 4.5765%

The equivalent simple interest rate on the deposit is 4.5765%.

Answer: Prime numbers are divisible by themselves ONLY. 11 is a prime number but 8 isn't because it can be divided by both 2 and 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

11 + 2 + 4 + 6 = 23

23 is prime number every time...

I hope you understand...

Step-by-step explanation:

(2a–3b+4c)²=

4a²+9b²+16c²-12ab-24bc+8ac

Answer:

NOT BOTH BLACK = 1-2/25 = 23/25

Step-by-step explanation:

Bag 1 : 8 non-black out of 10

P(1) = 8/10

Bag 2: 3 non-black out of 10

P(2)=3/5

Probability of both independent events happening can be calculated using the multiplication rule

P(1) and P(2) = P(1)*P(2) = 8/10 * 3/5 = 24/50 = 12/25 (both are not black, or none is black)

Interpretating not both black meaning at most one black, then

we calculate the probability of both are black,

P(1) = 2/10

P(2) = 2/5

Probability that both balls are black can be calculated using the multiplication rule

P(1) and P(2) = 2/10 * 2/5 = 2/25

Probability that NOT BOTH BLACK = 1-2/25 = 23/25, i.e. at most one black

Answer:

n + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

⅕(m + m + 1 + m + 2 + m + 3 + m + 4) = n

Required

⅑(m + 2 + m + 3 +.......+ m + 10)

We have:

⅕(m + m + 1 + m + 2 + m + 3 + m + 4) = n

Multiply both sides by 5

m + m + 1 + m + 2 + m + 3 + m + 4 = 5n

Collect like terms

m + m + m + m + m = 5n - 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

5m = 5n - 10

Divide both sides by 5

m = n - 2

So, we have:

⅑(m + 2 + m + 3 + m + 4 + m + 5 + m + 6 + m + 7 + m + 8 + m + 9 + m + 10)

Collect like terms

= ⅑(m+m+m+m+m+m+m+m+m+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9+10)

= ⅑(9m + 54)

= m + 6

Substitute n - 2 for m

= n - 2 + 6

= n + 4

Answer:

amount financed: 47800

monthly payment: 454.97

FC: 6796.40

558390.76

198390.76

Step-by-step explanation:

1.)

the amount financed is the cost- amount paid today

61800-14000=47800

effective rate: .027/12=

assuming it's an annuity immediate...

x=payment

[tex]47800=x\frac{1-(1+.00225)^{-(10*12)}}{.00225}\\47800=105.0617517x\\x=454.97[/tex]

going to assume that the last part is asking for the interest

to find the interest do financed amount-total paid

454.97*10*12-47800=6796.4

2.)

Find the effective rate

.056/4=.014

assuming annuity immediate

[tex]6000\frac{(1+.014)^{15*4}-1}{.014}=558390.7595[/tex]

interest earned:

558390.7595-6000*60=198390.76

Answer:

The first equation, sorry can’t explain.

Answer:

g(x)=3f(2x)

I think

Answer:

x = 9

y = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

Let :

Kenyan French roast coffee = x

Cost per x = $8

Sumatran Coffee = y

Cost per y = $10

x + y = 18 - - - - (1)

8x + 10y = 9 * 18 ;

8x + 10y = 162 - - - - (2)

From (1):

x = 18 - y

Put x = 18 - y in (2)

8(18 - y) + 10y = 162

144 - 8y + 10y = 162

2y = 162 - 144

2y = 18

y = 9

x = 18 - y

x = 18 - 9

x = 9

The equation and graph show the cost to rent movies from two different companies. The cost is a function of the number of movies rented.The description best compares the two functions?

here the pic and pls brainly me hege

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

Circunference:

The circunference of a circle with diameter d is given by:

[tex]C = d\pi[/tex]

The diameter of a £1 coin is 22.5 mm.

Each mm has 0.1 cm, so the diameter, in cm, is of d = 2.25. Then

[tex]C = 2.25\pi = 7[/tex]

The circunference is of 7 centimeters.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  y +2 = -3/4(x -4)

Step-by-step explanation:

A line parallel to ...

  ax +by = c

through point (h, k) can have the equation ...

  a(x -h) +b(y -k) = 0

It is pretty simple to put this into point-slope form:

  b(y -k) = -a(x -h) . . . . . subtract the x-term

  y -k = (-a/b)(x -h) . . . . divide by b

__

We have ...

  a = -3, b = -4, (h, k) = (4, -2)

so the point-slope form equation is ...

  y -(-2) = (-(-3)/(-4))(x -4)

  y +2 = -3/4(x -4)

Answer:

(5/3)d cents    exact

1.67d cents     decimal approximation

Step-by-step explanation:

Average weight

5pounds/3pineapples = (5/3) pounds/pineapple

Cost of 1 pineapple

(5/3) pounds * dcents/pound

(5/3)d cents    exact

1.67d cents     decimal approximation

Answer:

The initial population size is of 58.

The population size of the specie after t years is given by:

[tex]P(t) = \frac{520}{1 + 8e^{-0.3t}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Population size of the specie:

The population size of the specie after t years is given by:

[tex]P(t) = \frac{520}{1 + 8e^{-0.3t}[/tex]

Initial population size

This is P when [tex]t = 0[/tex], that is, [tex]P(0)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(0) = \frac{520}{1 + 8e^{-0.3*0} = \frac{520}{1+8} = \frac{520}{9} = 57.7[/tex]

Rounding to the nearest number, 58

The initial population size is of 58.

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

Since it's on a line, we add up all of the numbers. So 1 + 2 + 4 = 7.

Answer:

7, 1, 5, and 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you have to consider all possibilities, you will have multiple different-looking number lines. Using the ratios given in the problem, just by playing around with the letters' placements on the number line you can easily find the length of AD.

Answer:

here is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

here is your answer

Answer:

The correlation is 0.373 . There is a moderate positive linear association between Dollars and Satisfaction.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data:

Dollars Satisfaction

70.99 32

76.01 34

67.24 27

69.33 17

67.59 23

74.06 29

76.04 25

72.63 31

68.01 26

67.98 31

Using technology, the Pearson correlation Coefficient calculator ; we can obtain the Pearson correlation Coefficient is 0.3729

Interpretating this value, a correlation Coefficient value of 0.3729 is positive, this means a positive linear relationship exists between the values. Also 0.3729 is closer to 0 than 1 ; this mean that the strength of their relationship is moderate to weak .

Hence, a correlation Coefficient value of 0.3729 means that a weak positive relationship exists between dollar and satisfaction

Answer:

A. GF

Step-by-step explanation:

The shortest side in a triangle is opposite the smallest angle

<d = 180 -52 -61 =67

The smallest angle is 52 so the smallest side is DG

<f = 180 - 48-85 =50

The smallest angle is 48 so the smallest side is FG

The smallest angle is 48 so the smallest side overall is FG (GF)

Answer:

a) Independent

b) Dependent

Step-by-step explanation:

a) is independent as the first marble does not affect the chance of getting the second marble as you are putting the marble you picked out back in the bag.

b) is dependent as it affects the chance of picking out other cards as you have removed one card from the list of possibilities.

Step-by-step explanation:

the shehejjene

brbnrb grutbdbd

This isn't really a question so I'll just go through all of it.

1200 dollars will take about 17 months to pay off with installments of 70 dollars.

900 dollars will take 22.5 months to pay off with 40 dollar installments.

Tiffany will pay off her debt first.

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Work Shown:

area = base*height

area = 8*10

area = 80 square cm

The slanted sides aren't used. We only use the horizontal base 8 and vertical height 10. The base and height are always perpendicular to one another.

Answer:

8+6=14

So , we can multiply 14 to 45 =630 in ratio 6:30