HELPP PLSPLSPSLPLSPLSPLS

Answer:

180 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

Just mulitply 60 by 3 to get 180 seconds in 3 minutes.

Answer:

180 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. The square root of 100

2.c=27.11

d=13.96

e=12.6

Step by step explanation:

1. 2×50=100 the geometric mean is the square root of 100

2. The diagram is made up of three right angled triangles the big outer one and two triangles inside the big one thus we can use the pythagorean theorem to come up with expressions which will help us in solving the unknown parts as below.

c²=30²-d²

c²=e²+24²

d²=e²+6²

both the following add up to c² meaning they are equal:

c²=30²-d²

c²=e²+24²

thus

30²-d²=e²+24²

I want to remain with d² only thus;

30²-24²-e²=d²

900-576=324 (squareroot of 324=18) so

d²=18²-e² and d²=e²+6²

both the above add up to d² meaning they are equal thus;

18²-e²=e²+6²

18²-6²=e²+e²

324-36=2e²

318=2e²

159=e²

e=12.61

Thus d²=e²+6²

d²=12.61²+6²

d²=159+36

d²=195

d=13.96

c²=e²+24²

c²=12.61²+24²

c²=159+576

c²=735

c=27.11

I hope this helps

Answer:

10/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Ez..........................................................

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

The perpendicular bisector theorem wouldn't really work with it not being a clear right angle or perpendicular. But with HG being congruent with GJ, it would be easy to find the answer

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 45 total marbles. The probability of drawing a yellow marble on the first draw is 3/4. Given replacement, the probability on the second draw is the same as on the first draw, so the probability of black marble on the second draw is 6/14. The probability of drawing first a yellow marble then a black marble is 3/14 * 6/14 = 18/196.

Answer:

Jaylin spent $119.49

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:119.49 US$

Step-by-step explanation:

its really just adding i did 49 plus 69 and added the 99 cents and got that

answer:

true

false

true

good luck :)

hopefully, this helps

have a great day !!

**please let me know if this was wrong**

The triangle VXW should look like that in the attachment.

sine of W = opposite side/hypotenuse

=> sine of W = 77/85

Other formulae:

Answer:

parallel

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A parallelogram is a quadrilateral

Her why:

whose opposite sides are parallel. The opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal. The opposite sides of a parallelogram are equal.

Answer:

,J

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

chubby blubby tubby

Step-by-step explanation:

tubby blubby shubby

Answer:

UH HOLD ON RIGHT QUICK CAN YOU TELL ME THE QUESTION  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\angle b + \angle c + \angle e = 120^\circ[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\angle d = 150[/tex]

See attachment for illustration

Required

Find [tex]\angle b + \angle c + \angle e =[/tex]

The sum [tex]of\ angles\ at[/tex] a point is [tex]360^\circ[/tex]

So:

[tex]\angle a + \angle b + \angle c + \angle d + \angle e = 360^\circ[/tex]

Angle a is at right angled.

So:

[tex]90 + \angle b + \angle c + 150 + \angle e = 360^\circ[/tex]

Collect like terms

[tex]\angle b + \angle c + \angle e = 360^\circ -150^\circ - 90^\circ[/tex]

[tex]\angle b + \angle c + \angle e = 120^\circ[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]x = 9[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume EFGH and JKLM are rectangles

JKLM appears to be the smaller of both.

So:

[tex]EF = n * JK[/tex] and [tex]GH = n * LM[/tex]

Where n is the scale of dilation

The area of EFGH is:

[tex]Area = EF * GH[/tex] ----- (1)

Substitute [tex]EF = n * JK[/tex] and [tex]GH = n * LM[/tex]

[tex]Area = n*JK * n*LM[/tex]

[tex]Area = n^2*JK * LM[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]Area = EF * GH[/tex] and [tex]Area = n^2*JK * LM[/tex]

[tex]EF * GH = 2x + 9[/tex] --- Given

[tex]JK * LM = 2x - 6[/tex] --- Given

So:

[tex]Area = EF * GH[/tex] and [tex]Area = n^2*JK * LM[/tex]

[tex]Area = 2x + 9[/tex] and [tex]Area = n^2 * (2x - 6)[/tex]

Equate bot areas

[tex]2x + 9 = n^2*(2x - 6)[/tex]

Make n^2 the subject

[tex]n^2 = \frac{2x + 9}{2x - 6}[/tex]

The perimeter (P) of EFGH is:

[tex]P = 2*(EF + GH)[/tex] ----- (1)

Substitute [tex]EF = n * JK[/tex] and [tex]GH = n * LM[/tex]

[tex]P = 2*(n*JK + n*LM)[/tex]

[tex]P = 2n*(JK + LM)[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]P = 2*(EF + GH)[/tex] and [tex]P = 2n*(JK + LM)[/tex]

[tex]2*(EF + GH) = x + 3[/tex] --- Given

[tex]2*(JK + LM) = x - 1[/tex] --- Given

So:

[tex]P = 2*(EF + GH)[/tex] and [tex]P = 2n*(JK + LM)[/tex]

[tex]P =x + 3[/tex] and [tex]P = n *(x - 1)[/tex]

Equate bot perimeters

[tex]x + 3 = n(x - 1)[/tex]

Make n the subject

[tex]n =\frac{x + 3}{x - 1}[/tex]

Square both sides

[tex]n^2 =\frac{(x + 3)^2}{(x - 1)^2}[/tex]

Recall that: [tex]n^2 = \frac{2x + 9}{2x - 6}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]\frac{(x + 3)^2}{(x - 1)^2} = \frac{2x + 9}{2x - 6}[/tex]

Evaluate all squares

[tex]\frac{x^2 + 6x +9}{x^2 - 2x + 1} = \frac{2x + 9}{2x - 6}[/tex]

Cross multiply

[tex](x^2 + 6x +9)(2x - 6) = (x^2 - 2x + 1)(2x + 9)[/tex]

Open brackets

[tex]2x^3 +12x^2 + 18x - 6x^2 -36x -54 = 2x^3 - 4x^2 + 2x + 9x^2 - 18x +9[/tex]

Subtract 2x^3 from both sides

[tex]12x^2 + 18x - 6x^2 -36x -54 = - 4x^2 + 2x + 9x^2 - 18x +9[/tex]

Collect like terms

[tex]12x^2 - 6x^2 + 18x -36x -54 = - 4x^2 + 9x^2+ 2x - 18x +9[/tex]

[tex]6x^2 - 18x -54 = 5x^2- 16x +9[/tex]

Collect like terms

[tex]6x^2 -5x^2 - 18x +16x -54 -9= 0[/tex]

[tex]x^2 -2x -63= 0[/tex]

Expand

[tex]x^2 +7x - 9x - 63 = 0[/tex]

Factorize

[tex]x(x +7) - 9(x + 7) = 0[/tex]

[tex](x -9) (x + 7) = 0[/tex]

[tex]x = 9\ or\ -7[/tex]

x can not be negative.

So: [tex]x = 9[/tex]

Answer:

circumference = pi (3.14 or 22/7, whatever your teacher wants or whatever the problem asks) x the diameter

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

To calculate the circumference of a circle, multiply the diameter of the circle with π (pi). The circumference can also be calculated by multiplying 2×radius with pi (π=3.14).

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope the images help!!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

She will hire EZ Excavation.

Step-by-step explanation:

For a company EZ Excavation,

Per cubic yards cost of the dirt = [tex]\frac{\text{Total cost}}{\text{Volume of the dirt}}[/tex]

                                                   = [tex]\frac{196}{8}[/tex]

                                                   = $24.5

Total cost of 40 cubic yards of the dirt = 40 × 24.5

                                                                   = $980

For second company Happy Hauling service,

Per cubic yard cost of the dirt = [tex]\frac{25}{1}[/tex]

                                                  = $25

Cost of 40 cubic yards of the dirt = 40 × 25

                                                       = $1000

Budget of the contractor = $1000

Cost of dirt offered by EZ Excavation is in her budget and she is saving $20.

Therefore, she will hire EZ Excavation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the shared amount be 2x and 3x Then

2x + 3x = £ 250

5x = £ 250

x =£250/ 5

x = £ 50

Now

2x = 2 *£ 50 = £ 100

3x = 3 * £50 = £150

Hope it will help :)❤

Answer:

[tex]A=600\: u^{2}[/tex]

The correct answer is letter c.

Step-by-step explanation:

The area equation of a triangle is given by:

[tex]A=\frac{bh}{2}[/tex]  (1)

Where:

b is the base

h is the height

Let's find first the angle MJK (α), using the tangent definition.

[tex]tan(\alpha)=\frac{24}{32}[/tex]

[tex]\alpha=tan^{-1}(\frac{24}{32})[/tex]

[tex]\alpha=36.9^{\circ}[/tex]

Now, if α = 37° then β (angle JLK) must be:

[tex]37^{\circ} + \beta + 90^{\circ}=180^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]\beta=53^{\circ}[/tex]

Now, we can find the distance ML using again the tangent definition:

[tex]tan(\beta)=\frac{24}{ML}[/tex]

[tex]ML=\frac{24}{tan(53)}[/tex]

[tex]ML=18[/tex]

The base of the triangle LKJ will be:

[tex]b=32+ML=32+18=50[/tex]

Therefore, using equation (1) the area of △LKJ will be:

[tex]A=\frac{50*24}{2}[/tex]

[tex]A=600\: u^{2}[/tex]

The correct answer is c.

I hope it helps you!

Answer: True.

If two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, then the alternate interior angles formed are congruent . When two lines are cut by a transversal, the pairs of angles on either side of the transversal and outside the two lines are called the alternate exterior angles .

Answer:

65

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

65

Step-by-step explanation:

=23+42

=65

Answer:

x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Jeez this diagram is horribly drawn.

16/32 = 26/(32 + 4x)

16(32 + 4x) = 32(26)

32 + 4x = 2(26)

4x = 20

x = 5

Wow, my incorrect answer happened to also be the actual right one, wooh!

Answer:

4 feet and 3 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of ladder in feet is 4.15.

Given that, a ladder is 51 inches tall.

Metric Conversion refers to the conversion of the given units to desired units for any quantity to be measured.

We know that, 1 feet = 12 inches

So, in inches = 51/12

= 4.25 feet

Therefore, the measure of ladder in feet is 4.15.

To learn more about the metric conversion visit:

brainly.com/question/21244256.

#SPJ6

Answer:

She isn't correct because after you find the common denominator, the numerator needs to be changed as well, so when she multiplied the denominator of 2/3 by 4 to get 12, she also had to multiply the 2 by 4, to get 8/12, and then subtracted, because otherwise, the new fraction isn't equivalent to the original fraction.