Hello!
i need help with question 67 & 68

Answer:

∠DFE

Step-by-step explanation:

Complementary angles are angles that have a sum of 90°. Since there is a box on angle ∠CFB, we can infer that ∠CFE is also 90°. This is because the two are supplementary (equal 180°). Therefore, ∠DFE is the other part of ∠CFD that would complete the 90° pair.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for arc length is

[tex]AL=\frac{\theta}{360}*2\pi r[/tex] where theta is the measure of the central angle and r is the radius. We have both of those pieces of info; filling in:

[tex]AL=\frac{30}{360}*2(3.14) (4)[/tex] and simplifying a bit:

[tex]AL=\frac{1}{12}(8)(3.14)[/tex] and a bit more:

[tex]AL=\frac{25.12}{12}[/tex] and finally, to

AL = 2.09 m

Answer:

39°

Step-by-step explanation:

A radius of a circle (segment CD) drawn to the point of tangency (D) intersects the tangent (line DE) at a 90-deg angle.

That makes m<D = 90.

m<D + m<C + m<E = 180

90 + 51 + m<E = 180

m<E = 39

Answer:

The answer is

[tex]y = 3[/tex]

[tex]y = - 4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We must find a solution where

[tex] \frac{6}{y + 1} + \frac{y}{y - 2} = \frac{6}{y + 1} \times \frac{y}{y - 2} [/tex]

Consider the Left Side:

First, to add fraction multiply each fraction on the left by it corresponding denomiator and we should get

[tex] \frac{6}{y + 1} \times \frac{y - 2}{y - 2} + \frac{y}{y - 2} \times \frac{y + 1}{y + 1} [/tex]

Which equals

[tex] \frac{6y - 12}{(y -2) (y + 1)} + \frac{ {y}^{2} + y }{(y - 2)(y + 1)} [/tex]

Add the fractions

[tex] \frac{y {}^{2} + 7y - 12 }{(y - 2)(y + 1)} = \frac{6}{y + 1} \times \frac{y}{y - 2} [/tex]

Simplify the right side by multiplying the fraction

[tex] \frac{6y}{(y + 1)(y + 2)} [/tex]

Set both fractions equal to each other

[tex] \frac{6y}{(y + 1)(y - 2)} = \frac{ {y}^{2} + 7y - 12}{(y + 1)(y - 2)} [/tex]

Since the denomiator are equal, we must set the numerator equal to each other

[tex]6y = {y}^{2} + 7y - 12[/tex]

[tex] = {y}^{2} + y - 12[/tex]

[tex](y + 4)(y - 3)[/tex]

[tex]y = - 4[/tex]

[tex]y = 3[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{6}{y+1}+\frac{y}{y-2}=\frac{6}{y+1} \times \frac{y}{y-2} \\multiply ~by~(y+1)(y-2)\\6(y-2)+y(y+1)=6y\\6y-12+y^2+y=6y\\y^2+y-12=0\\y^2+4y-3y-12=0\\y(y+4)-3(y+4)=0\\(y+4)(y-3)=0\\y=-4,3[/tex]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

   C.  y = 1/2x +2

Step-by-step explanation:

The magnitude of the slope is the measure of "steepness." The slope is the coefficient of x in these equations. Here those values are ...

  4, 3/4, 1/2, 10

Of these, 1/2 is the smallest (least steep). 1/2 is the slope in the equation ...

  y = 1/2x +2

Answer:

In descending order, 1, 4, 3

Given:

The function is:

[tex]f(x,y)=x^{10}-3xy^2[/tex]

To find:

The value of [tex]f_x[/tex].

Solution:

We need to find the value of [tex]f_x[/tex]. So, we have to find the first order partial derivative of the given function with respect to x.

We have,

[tex]f(x,y)=x^{10}-3xy^2[/tex]

Differentiate partially with respect to x.

[tex]f(x,y)=\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}x^{10}-3y^2\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}x[/tex]

[tex]f_x=10x^{10-1}-3y^2(1)[/tex]

[tex]f_x=10x^{9}-3y^2[/tex]

Therefore, the correct option is A.

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that [tex]n = 12[/tex]

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that [tex]p = 0.3[/tex]

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678[/tex]

Then

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528[/tex]

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since an interior angle is 150 degrees, its adjacent exterior angle is 30 degrees.  Exterior angles of any polygon always add up to 360 degrees.  With the polygon being regular, we can just divide 360 by 30 to get 12 sides.

Answer:

5796 people

Step-by-step explanation:

.28 percent of 5780 is 16.184 so added 5,780+16.184=5,796.184 but rounded to a whole person is 5,796!

Answer:

71 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

94×2=188

330-188=142

142÷2=71

Answer:

Si se suman 3 trabajadores la producción será 5250 plumas.

Step-by-step explanation:

Inicialmente tenemos 6 trabajadores, al añadir 3 trabajadores más tendríamos ahora 9 trabajadores:

[tex] 6 + 3 = 9 [/tex]

Entonces, la producción de plumas (P) sería ahora:

[tex] P = \frac{3500}{6}*9 = 5250 [/tex]

Por lo tanto, si se suman 3 trabajadores la producción será 5250 plumas.

Espero que te sea de utilidad!                          

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

There 2 ways to interpret this problem.

From the info given:

These two triangles are congruent by SSS and congruent triangles have congruent or equal side lengths so the answer have to be 1.

If the triangles are similar, the side lengths form a proportion of that

[tex] \frac{3}{3} = \frac{3}{3} [/tex]

So the ratio or scale factor is 1.

The scale factor in the figure is 1.

A scale factor in math is the ratio between corresponding measurements of an object and a representation of that object.

Given that two triangles, LMN and OPQ, we need to find the scale factor,

We can see triangles are congruent, and we know that

Two triangles are congruent, by the SSS congruence criterion, if they are similar and the scale factor happens to be 1,

Hence, the scale factor in the figure is 1.

Learn more about scale factors, click;

https://brainly.com/question/29464385

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Answer: hello the two normal probability curves are missing

answer:

a) equal to

b) greater than

c) equal to

Step-by-step explanation:

a) The mean of the shorter normal curve is equal to The mean of the taller normal curve is

b) The standard deviation of the shorter normal curve is greater than  the standard deviation of the taller normal curve

c) The area under the shorter normal curve is equal to  the area under the taller normal curve

Answer:

[tex]P = (\frac{1}{3}t^\frac{3}{2} + \sqrt 2 - \frac{1}{3})^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\frac{dP}{dt} = \sqrt{Pt[/tex]

[tex]P(1) = 2[/tex]

Required

The solution

We have:

[tex]\frac{dP}{dt} = \sqrt{Pt[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dP}{dt} = (Pt)^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Split

[tex]\frac{dP}{dt} = P^\frac{1}{2} * t^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Divide both sides by [tex]P^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dP}{ P^\frac{1}{2}*dt} = t^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Multiply both sides by dt

[tex]\frac{dP}{ P^\frac{1}{2}} = t^\frac{1}{2} \cdot dt[/tex]

Integrate

[tex]\int \frac{dP}{ P^\frac{1}{2}} = \int t^\frac{1}{2} \cdot dt[/tex]

Rewrite as:

[tex]\int dP \cdot P^\frac{-1}{2} = \int t^\frac{1}{2} \cdot dt[/tex]

Integrate the left hand side

[tex]\frac{P^{\frac{-1}{2}+1}}{\frac{-1}{2}+1} = \int t^\frac{1}{2} \cdot dt[/tex]

[tex]\frac{P^{\frac{-1}{2}+1}}{\frac{1}{2}} = \int t^\frac{1}{2} \cdot dt[/tex]

[tex]2P^{\frac{1}{2}} = \int t^\frac{1}{2} \cdot dt[/tex]

Integrate the right hand side

[tex]2P^{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{t^{\frac{1}{2} +1 }}{\frac{1}{2} +1 } + c[/tex]

[tex]2P^{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{t^{\frac{3}{2}}}{\frac{3}{2} } + c[/tex]

[tex]2P^{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{2}{3}t^\frac{3}{2} + c[/tex] ---- (1)

To solve for c, we first make c the subject

[tex]c = 2P^{\frac{1}{2}} - \frac{2}{3}t^\frac{3}{2}[/tex]

[tex]P(1) = 2[/tex] means

[tex]t = 1; P =2[/tex]

So:

[tex]c = 2*2^{\frac{1}{2}} - \frac{2}{3}*1^\frac{3}{2}[/tex]

[tex]c = 2*2^{\frac{1}{2}} - \frac{2}{3}*1[/tex]

[tex]c = 2\sqrt 2 - \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]2P^{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{2}{3}t^\frac{3}{2} + c[/tex]

[tex]2P^{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{2}{3}t^\frac{3}{2} + 2\sqrt 2 - \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Divide through by 2

[tex]P^{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{1}{3}t^\frac{3}{2} + \sqrt 2 - \frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Square both sides

[tex]P = (\frac{1}{3}t^\frac{3}{2} + \sqrt 2 - \frac{1}{3})^2[/tex]

Answer:

CI  95 %  =  (  28.92  ;  41.08 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Sample Information:

sample size    n  =  30

sample mean  =  35 %

sample standard deviation   s = 17

To construct a CI  95 %

significance level is    α  = 5 %   α = 0.05      α/2  =  0.025

z critical for α/2 from z- table is :   z (c) = 1.96

CI  95 %  =  (  x  ±  z(c) * s/√n )

CI  95 %  =  (  35 ± 1.96 * 17/√30 )

CI  95 %  =  (  35 ±  6.08 )

CI  95 %  =  (  28.92  ;  41.08 )

Answer:

-105, -104, -103

Step-by-step explanation:

lets the numbers be:

x

x+1

x+2

so:

x+(x+1)+(x+2)=-312

x+x+x+1+2=-312

3x+3=-312

3x=-312-3=-315

x=-315/3=-105

Answer:

y 9 5 473648

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

please mark me brainlist

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  see attached

Step-by-step explanation:

I find a graphing calculator to be the quickest way to create a graph of a system of equations. That result is attached.

__

If you want to graph the equations by hand, you need to know a couple of points on each line. When the equations are in slope-intercept form, the y-intercept is often a good place to start. Another point is usually easy to find based on the slope of the line, starting at the y-intercept.

__

Here, the equations are not in that form, but are in the form ax+by=c. In this form, it is often easy to find both the x- and y-intercepts and use those points to plot the line. Each intercept is found by setting the other variable to zero.

  x-intercept: c/a

  y-intercept: c/b

__

For the given lines, the first equation has intercepts (2, 0) and (0, 2). The line has a slope of -1 and makes an isosceles triangle with the axes in the first quadrant.

The second equation has intercepts (-1, 0) and (0, 2). This line has a slope of +2 and makes a triangle with the axes in the second quadrant.

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter of rectangle = 2( l+b)

Ie, P = 2( L+B )

In substituting,

322 = 2( L + 74)

Ie, 322 = 2L + 148

Re - arrange

Hence,

2L = 322 - 148

2L = 174

Thus, L = 174/2

L = 87M

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  2

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving the given equation for y, you have ...

  2x +4y = -64

  4y = -2x -64

  y = -1/2x -16

The coefficient of x is the slope of the given line: -1/2. The slope of the perpendicular line is the opposite reciprocal of this:

  -1/(-1/2) = 2

The slope of the perpendicular line is 2.

Answer:

A = 1/2 b × h

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps !!!!

Answer:

The formula for the area of a triangle is 1/2bh.  

Complete question is;

Components arriving at a distributor are checked for defects by two different inspectors (each component is checked by both inspectors). The first inspector detects 83% of all defectives that are present, and the second inspector does likewise. At least one inspector does not detect a defect on 34% of all defective components. What is the probability that the following occurs?

(a) A defective component will be detected only by the first inspector?

b) A defective component will be detected by exactly one of the two inspectors?

(c) All three defective components in a batch escape detection by both inspectors (assuming inspections of different components are independent of one another)?

Answer:

A) 0.17

B) 0.34

C) 0

Step-by-step explanation:

a) We are told that the first inspector(A) detects 83% of all defectives that are present, and the second inspector(B) also does the same.

This means that;

P(A) = P(B) = 83% = 0.83

We are also told that at least one inspector does not detect a defect on 34% of all defective components.

Thus;

P(A' ⋃ B') = 0.34

Also, we now that;

P(A ⋂ B) = 1 - P(A' ⋃ B')

P(A ⋂ B) = 1 - 0.34

P(A ⋂ B) = 0.66

Probability that A defective component will be detected only by the first inspector is;

P(A ⋂ B') = P(A) - P(A ⋂ B)

P(A ⋂ B') = 0.83 - 0.66

P(A ⋂ B') = 0.17

B) probability that a defective component will be detected by exactly one of the two inspectors is given as;

P(A ⋂ B') + P(A' ⋂ B) = P(A) + P(B) - 2P(A ⋂ B)

P(A) + P(B) - 2P(A ⋂ B) ; 0.83 + 0.83 - 2(0.66) = 0.34

C) Probability that All three defective components in a batch escape detection by both inspectors is written as;

P(A' ⋃ B') - (P(A ⋂ B') + P(A' ⋂ B))

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

0.34 - 0.34 = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

total number of students are :4x 3 = 12

Fraction that's boys are : 3÷12

Answer: x=-3/3=-1

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for x in terms of b, simply treat b as a number, and solve for x as usual: first of all, we expand the left hand side:

-2bx+10=16

Subtract 10 from both sides:

-2bx=6

Divide both sides by -2b:

x=6/-2b=-3/b

This means that in particular, if we set b=3 , we have

x=-3/3=-1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Even function has following property:

It is easy to show this works with the second choice only. All the others don't work:

This is not correct as x - 1 ≠ -x - 1 so as their squares, so g(x) ≠ g(-x)

The last two choices are not even similarly.

Answer:

B. g(x) = 2x2 + 1

Correct on edge

Answer:

21/8x

Step-by-step explanation:

10x -20 = -6x+22

+6x-20 = 22

16x-20 = 22

16x +20= +20

16x/16x = 42/16x

x = 21/8x

Answer:

25 ; 35

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

____________For __ Against __ No Opinion

21-40 years _________20 _______5

41-60 years ___20 ______________20

Over 60 years _55____ 15________ 5

Given that :

40% of 21-40 are against

Then :

40% = 20

To a obtain 100% of 21 - 40

40% = 20

100% = x

Cross multiply

0.4x = 20

x = 20/0.4

x = 50

100% of 21 - 40 = 50 people

For = 50 - (20 + 5)

= 50 - 25

= 25

2.)

Total who have no opinion :

(5 + 20 + 5) = 30

30 = 15%

Total number surveyed will be , x :

30 = 15%

x = 100%

Cross multiply :

0.15x = 30

x = 30/0.15

x = 200

Number of 41 - 60 against an increase, y:

(25 + 20 + 5 + 20 + y + 20 + 55 + 15 + 5) = 200

165 + y = 200

y = 200 - 165

y = 35