GIVE AN EXPLANATION PLEASE! 20 POINTS!! AND A BRAINLEEST IF TWO OR MORE PEOPLE HAVE ANSWERED IT. (FIRST COME FORST SERVE BASES + ANSWER HAS TO BE CORRECT)

Lily bought a pair of gloves and a shirt.
The gloves cost £4
She sold the gloves and the shirt for a total of £48
She made 100% profit on the cost of the gloves.
20% profit on the total cost.
Work out her percentage profit on the cost of the skirt.
Answer 1 decimal place.

Answer:

I know that the Perimeter is 4000. So, 4000=L+2w because we are not using on of the lengths.

What I did is inputed 4000-2x in for L, but I got 0. What do I do?

Step-by-step explanation:

it just is I think it should be

Answer:

a. -2

c. -1

Step-by-step explanation:

these are the only values for x, where the 2 equations deliver the same y value.

in case of a. y = -2×-2 - 1 = 4 - 1 = 3

and y = 3¹ = 3

c. y = -2×-1 - 1 = 2 - 1 = 1

y = 3⁰ = 1

Answer:

I've attached a picture of a unit circle with the quadrant labeled.

Calculate the degree of 5п 8 radians:

[tex]\frac{5\pi }{8} =\frac{5*180}{8} =\frac{900}{8} =112.5[/tex]

Locate the general location of 112.5° on the unit circle:

It's between 120°([tex]\frac{2\pi }{3}[/tex]) and 90°([tex]\frac{\pi }{2}[/tex]).

Find the quadrant it lies in:

Quadrant II

Answer:

The probability of a person getting their own hat is 1/5 or 20%.

Step-by-step explanation:

If each person has one hat the chances (the probability) of them getting their own hat would be 20%. The chances (the probability) of them getting a hat that belongs to one of the other four students would be 80%. Due to there being 5 hats each person owns 1 hat so there would be a 1 out of 5 chance of them getting their own hat.

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

(3/6) 2 + 7 × 4 - 5

0.5 × 2 + 7 × 4 - 5

1 + 7 × 4 - 5

1 + 28 - 5

29 - 5

24

Answer:

A. 96.0 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the area of a triangle when we know the side length of two sides and the measure of an included angle of a triangle is given as:

A = ½*a*b*Sin C

Where,

a = 13

b = 15

C = 80°

Plug in the values into the formula

A = ½*13*15*Sin 80

A = 96.0187559

A = 96.0 square units (nearest tenth)

Answer:A

Step-by-step explanation: I took the test

10x - 5y = 40

-5y = -10x + 40 || : (-5)

y = 2x - 8

Answer: C= 1,090 and the W= 5.

Answer:

V = 20 cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a prism is

V = l*w*h

V = 6*5*2/3

V = 20 cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps you.........

Answer:

The Himalayas are still rising by more than 1 cm per year as India continues to move northwards into Asia, which explains the occurrence of shallow focus earthquakes in the region today. However the forces of weathering and erosion are lowering the Himalayas at about the same rate.

Step-by-step explanation:

we can tell that the himalayas are still rising because of the movement of india northwards into asia,so the more india moves to the north the more the himalayas rise by more than 1cm.

Answer:

v=1/2(13.1+25.4)(17)(15)

v=1/2(38.5)(255)

v=4,908.7 ft³

OAmalOHopeO

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

The definition of the function is a relation with exactly one x for each y. x is the domain, and y is the range, so all functions have a domain and a range.

Answer:

-6

(3*2)-12

6-12

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]f(2) = -6[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x) = 3x - 12[/tex]

[tex]f(2) = 3(2) - 12[/tex]

[tex]f(2) = 6 - 12[/tex]

[tex]f(2) = -6[/tex]

Answer:

PQ = 34.4

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we know that the angles in a triangle add up to 180 degrees. Therefore, angle M = 48 and angle R = 74

Next, because there is a corresponding angle in each triangle, they are similar. This means that the ratios between corresponding sides are the same. For example, the side opposite angle O (MN) over the side opposite angle R (PQ) is equal to the side opposite angle N (OM) over the side opposite angle Q (RP)

This can be written as MN/PQ = OM/RP. Note that both the numerators are on the same triangle, and MN and PQ correspond, as well as OM and RP.

We are given MN, NO, and QR. Because NO is opposite a 48 degree angle (angle M) as well as QR (angle P), we can say that NO/QR = another ratio of a pair of corresponding sides. Because we want to find PQ, and both PQ and MN are opposite 74 degree angles, we can say that

NO/QR = MN/PQ

Thus,

11/27 = 14/PQ

multiply both sides by PQ to remove a denominator

PQ * 11/27 = 14

multiply both sides by 27 to remove the other denominator

PQ * 11 = 14 * 27

divide both sides by 11 to isolate the PQ

PQ = 14 * 27 /11

PQ = 34.4

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

Which value is 10,000 times larger than 1,300?

answer= 1300×10000

= 13,000,000

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

A

Answer:

44

Step-by-step explanation:

* means multiply

put 8 where the x is

6 * 8 - 4

48 - 4

44

Answer : I think it is 10899

Step-by-step explanation:We have to graph the function g(x) which is given as:

g(x)=  x when x<2

and -3 when x ≥2.

Clearly after looking at the function we see that the function is not continuous since we find the continuity at x=2 as follows.

Left hand limitat 2:

g(2-h)=lim h→0 2-h

       =2-0=2

Also right hand limit at x=2 is:

g(2+h)=lim h→0 (2+h)

         = 2+0=2

Also g(2)= -3.

As:

Left hand limit= Right hand limit but is not equal to function's value at that point.

Hence, the function is discontinuous at x=2.

so for x<2 we will get a graph of a line y=x.

and for x≥2 we will get a straight line y=-3 parallel to the domain.

Answer:

358

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

2(5) -3

10-3

7

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{\tan\theta}{\sec\theta - \cos\theta} = \frac{1}{\sin\theta} = \csc\theta[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the expression:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{\tan\theta}{\sec\theta - \cos\theta}[/tex]

And we want to write the expression in terms of sine and cosine and simplify.

Thus, let tanθ = sinθ / cosθ and secθ = 1 / cosθ. Substitute:

[tex]=\displaystyle \frac{\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}}{\dfrac{1}{\cos\theta}-\cos\theta}[/tex]

Multiply both layers by cosθ:

[tex]=\displaystyle \frac{\left(\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}\right)\cdot \cos\theta}{\left(\dfrac{1}{\cos\theta}-\cos\theta\right)\cdot \cos\theta}[/tex]

Distribute:

[tex]\displaystyle =\frac{\sin\theta}{1-\cos^2\theta}[/tex]

Recall from the Pythagorean Theorem that sin²θ + cos²θ = 1. Hence, 1 - cos²θ = sin²θ. Substitute and simplify:

[tex]\displaystyle =\frac{\sin\theta}{\sin^2\theta} \\ \\ =\frac{1}{\sin\theta}[/tex]

We can convert this to cosecant if we wish.

Answer:

wow man that is crazy

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

As per the given diagram, the following facts are evident.

(BR) = (CR), Both sides have two small orange lines on them. This shows that these sides are congruent.

(<B) = (<C), this is shown by the box around both angles, indicating that both angles have a measure of (90) degrees.

(AB) = (AC), Both sides have one small orange line on them. This indicates that these sides are congruent to each other.

Therefore, the sides are congruent by the theorem (SAS); side-angle-side, congruence.

Answer:

The 3rd:

f(x) = (x - 1)(x - 1)(x – 6)

Step-by-step explanation:

Its roots are the x-values for which f(x)=0, that are:

x1=1

x2=1

x3=6

Answer:

0.003 miles per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

Well since 5280 feet gives 1 mile den convert 17.6 feet per sec to miles per hr