Answer:
The economists typically receive information premised upon the information gathered during controlled studies. A further explanation is provided below.
Explanation:
The investigators typically add particular manipulation throughout the observational investigation and analyze the consequences.The survey was performed here because the investigators simply would be required to examine the influence of fertilizer on the development of plants. Each assistance must be applied.ons
Question:
how high or low is the blood pressure
and does it change over time when
someone drinks coffee ?
Quantitative data:
blood pressure readings
me.
Qualitative data:
person's
5.
nswer?
Answer:
when people give you the answer plz check me
Answer:
How does caffeine affect blood pressure?
Caffeine may cause a short, but dramatic increase in your blood pressure, even if you don't have high blood pressure. It's unclear what causes this spike in blood pressure. The blood pressure response to caffeine differs from person to person.
Some researchers believe that caffeine could block a hormone that helps keep your arteries widened. Others think that caffeine causes your adrenal glands to release more adrenaline, which causes your blood pressure to increase.
Any muscle helping the main muscle accomplish its action
The continuity of life is based on heritable information in the form of DNA. Complete the explanation how mutations in protein-coding genes and regulatory DNA contribute to evolution. Match the terms in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right.
a. gene
b. silenced
c. reproduce
d. protein production
e. inherited
f. grows
g. body form
h. function
i. regulatory sequence
1. Mutations in protein-coding genes and regulatory DNA contribute to evolution if the organism carying them Survives and_____. Mutations in a____.
2. Mutations within a____may lead to major changes in______for example, ita Hox gene is attected. Moreover, if a transposable element inserts here, it may lead to a decreased or increased_____. This may impact the organism and if passed on to the offspring, become____. The result of these events may eventually lead to increased fitness and formation of new species.
Answer:
1. Mutations in protein-coding genes and regulatory DNA contribute to evolution if the organism carrying them survives and_c. reproduce. Mutations in a_a. gene lead to different effects. For example, a mutation may change the _h. function of the protein or the protein will no longer be produced.
2. Mutations within a_i. regulatory sequence may lead to major changes in_g. body form, for example, if a Hox gene is affected. Moreover, if a transposable element inserts here, it may lead to a decreased or increased_d. protein production. This may impact the organism and if passed on to the offspring, become_e. inherited. The result of these events may eventually lead to increased fitness and the formation of new species.
Explanation:
Mutations can be defined as genetic changes (nucleotide changes) in the genome sequence of an organism. Mutations can be beneficial, neutral or deleterious (depending on their effects on the adaptive fitness of the individual). Mutations that occur in the somatic (body cells) will not be inherited, whereas mutations in the germinal (gamete) cells can be passed on to the next generations. Moreover, Hox genes are major developmental regulators involved in a wide variety of aspects of animal development. In consequence, changes in the expression level of Hox genes caused, for example, through 1-mutations of their regulatory sequences, such as promoter sequences, or 2-the insertion of transposable elements, may lead to conspicuous phenotypic changes by affecting protein production. Eventually, these mutations may confer an adaptive advantage.
What are the best management practices for Maize grain crop, by adopting which we can boost yield, elaborate in details your expert opinion.
Answer:
Cultivate prime grain and with timely care
A plant of genotype C/C ; d/d is crossed to c/c ; D/D and an F1 testcrossed to c/c ; d/d. If the genes are linked, and 20 map units apart, what will be the percentage of c/c ; d/d recombinants
Answer:
10%
Explanation:
The parental crossings = Cd/Cd x cD /cD
The distance the genes C and D = 20 map units
Determine the percentage of cd / cd recombinants that will be formed
the distance shows that there is only 20% recombinant progeny
The recombinants are : CD/CD and cd/cd = 20%
i.e. each recombinant progeny = 20% / 2 = 10%
hence % of cd/cd recombinant = 10%
a scientist is is using a microscope to observe a type of bacteria
Answer:
If your question is: Which two structures would the scientist most likely see? Then:
A scientist is using a microscope to observe a type of bacteria. The scientist most likely see cell wall and vacuole.
explain budding in hydra
no copied answer
Answer:
Answer to the following question is as follows.
Explanation:
Budding is indeed an asexual reproduction method in which an individual emerges from a reproductive anatomical site of the parent organism. During budding, a genetically identical new creature develops connected to the parent Hydra's body before eventually separating. A bud emerges as an extension of recurrent cellular division at one specific location during the budding process.
The main structural unit of the cell membrane is the protein molecule
Answer:
The cell membrane consists of a double layer of lipid molecules covered by two layers of proteins. The lipid molecules are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the membrane.
define cell and atom
Answer:
Cell is made of molecules whereas atoms make up molecules. Cells are the smallest functioning unit in a living organism.
Atom is the smallest unit of matter. Usually, a cell is on the micrometer scale while an atom is in the angstrom scale .
OAmalOHopeO
You are a well-trained Cytogenetic Technologist. You work as a Genetic Counselor at a medical institution. You are meeting a nervous couple in your office, who recently found out that they are going to be first-time parents. They have come to you to discuss the chances of having a child with birth defect or genetic disorder. To ease their nerves, you greet them with a smile in your white coat, guide them to their seats, and slowly go through the options of prenatal tests available for them.
KARTOTYPE TEST METHODS
First you introduce to the parents the importance of karyotype test, by describing its domy to detect two broad categories of abnormalities in chromosomes, (1)_____and (2)_____. You provide a few examples of genetic disorders that can be caused by chromosomal abnormalities, such as (3)____and (4)____. Some parents would like to know what is the main cause of these genetic disorders. Without going into too much detail, you explain to them that chromosomal abnormalities are usually caused by (5)____in meiosis I and melosis II, when the homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate during meiotic cell division
After the parents have decided to conduct a fetal karyotype test, you collect a small sample of chorion cells through chorionic villi sampling (CVS). Chorion is a membrane around the embryo that eventually fuses with the amnion. The chorion cells are grown in culture because chromosomes are most visible at (6)___stage of cell division. You use a technique called banding to create distinguishable landmarks on the chromosomes. There are several types of staining techniques you can use for karyotyping, some advanced techniques like FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization) uses fluorescent probes to add colors onto different DNA sequences on the chromosome. You choose the most common type of staining techniques called G- banding to label the fetus chromosomes with Glemsa dye.
After taking photos of the chromosomes from a microscope, you sort the (7)____pairs of autosomes in the following order, from (8)____to (9)____, and keep the sex chromosomes last. The sorted photographed image of chromosomes is called (10)____. Now, you are ready to examine the karyotype of the fetus.
Answer:
1 monosomy
2 trisomy
3 Down syndrome
4 Turner syndrome
5 non-disjunction
6 metaphase
7 twenty-two
8 largest (chromosome 1)
9 smallest (chromosome 22)
10 karyotype
Explanation:
Non-disjunction during meiosis I or II occur when homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids refuse to separate. This makes the resulting gametes to have too many or too few chromosome numbers in their genomes.
A gamete with too few chromosome number that participates in fertilization with a normal gamete will result in a zygote with abnormally less chromosome number. This situation is referred to as monosomy. Whereas, the fusion of a gamete with too many chromosome number with a normal gamete will result in a zygote with too many chromosome, a situation known as trisomy.
The manifestation of monosomy and trisomy in humans results in Turner and Down syndromes respectively.
Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes out of which a pair determines maleness or femaleness - the sex chromosome. Other chromosomes are referred to as autosomes. Hence, there are 22 autosome pairs and 1 pair of sex chromosome.
Chromosomes are studied by karyotyping, a process that involves photographing chromosomes at the metaphase stage of the cell cycle, cutting them out, and then arranging them in decreasing order of size.
Provide details about Meiosis.
What are the functions of leaves? (Select all that apply.) PLEASE ANSWER ASAP AND GET 25 POINTS
release water vapor
absorb water and nutrients
store water and glucose
perform photosynthesis
The main function of a leaf is to produce food for the plant by photosynthesis. Chlorophyll, the substance that gives plants their characteristic green colour, absorbs light energy. The internal structure of the leaf is protected by the leaf epidermis, which is continuous with the stem epidermis.
Conifer Leaf.
Microphyll Leaf.
Megaphyll Leaf.
A leaf is an above-ground plant organ and it is green. Its main functions are photosynthesis and gas exchange. A leaf is often flat, so it absorbs the most light, and thin, so that the sunlight can get to the chloroplasts in the cells. Most leaves have stomata, which open and close.
The two main functions performed by the leaf are photosynthesis and transpiration. Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants make their food from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight.
~Answer~
~Absorb carbon dioxide~
~Perform Photosynthesis~
~Release oxygen~
~Yw~
~and Brainliest are welcome~
~Emmi~
the results Mendel obtained during his experiments. It showed that if you cross two plants that were true-breeding for different colors (purple and white), the offspring or first generation (F1) would be ______________ instead of true-breeds, and all were _____________ in color. Interestingly, when he crossed two of these F1 plants, their offspring did not all come out _____________. Instead he obtain a ratio of ______ purple-flowered plant for every ______ white-flowered plant. He concluded that the “heritable factor” for the ____________ trait (white flowers) was not destroyed in the F1 generation. Instead it had been _______________ by the “heritable factor” of the ________________ trait (purple flowers).
Answer:
1. Heterozygous
2. Purple
3. Purple
4. 3
5. 1
6. Recessive
7. Masked
8. Dominant
Please find the missing answers to the questions in BOLD.
Explanation:
As illustrated in this question, Gregor Mendel used the color trait of pea plant to discover his law of dominance.
The results Mendel obtained during his experiments. It showed that if you cross two plants that were true breeding for different colors (purple and white), the offspring or first generation (F1) would be HETEROZYGOUS (Pp) instead of true-breeds, and all were PURPLE in color.
Interestingly, when he crossed two of these F1 plants (Pp × Pp), their offspring did not all come out PURPLE, instead he obtain a ratio of 3 purple-flowered plant for every 1 white-flowered plant. He concluded that the “heritable factor” for the RECESSIVE trait (white flowers) was not destroyed in the F1 generation. Instead it had been MASKED by the “heritable factor” of the DOMINANT trait (purple flowers).
Which statement is true?
A.Peat is a fossil fuel because rewetting it takes only 3–5 years.
B.Peat is a fossil fuel because the total time for restoration is lengthy.
C.Peat is not a fossil fuel because it has biologic origins, making it a biofuel.
D.Peat is not a fossil fuel because humans can promote the replenishment of peat.
Peat is not a fossil fuel because humans can promote the replenishment of peat is a correct statement.
What do you mean by Fossil fuels?Fossil fuels may be defined as fuels that are derived from decomposed plants and animals. It includes coal, petroleum, oil, and natural gases.
Peat is considered forgotten fossil fuel because through the activity of humans it may be replenished into other forms for different use. It may maximum takes 3-5 years for rewetting.
Therefore, the true statement is Peat is not a fossil fuel because humans can promote the replenishment of peat.
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If an earthworm is 18 mm long and it is photographed and the picture is magnified 2.5x how long will it be in the picture?
Answer:
length of earthworm in picture will be 45 mm. Hope this helps you.
in order for polar compounds to enter into the hydrophobic space of phospholipid tails, it would need to break the many ___ bonds
Answer:
In order for polar compounds to enter into the hydrophobic space of phospholipid tails, it would need to break the many hydrogen bonds
Explanation:
In the presence of water, the hydrophobic tails tend to interact with each other, creating a hydrophobic space from which water is excluded and in which other hydrophobic molecules can be trapped, while the polar head interacts with water, and is solvated, preserving the hydrophobic part from all contact with water. For a hydrogen bridge to form, a molecule that has hydrogen attached to an atom of high electronegativity and another molecule that has another electronegative atom with high electron density (that is, a negative partial charge) is required. Water molecules in the bulk of the body of water maintain multiple interactions with other molecules through an extensive network of hydrogen bridges, so for polar compounds to enter, it would be necessary to break many of these bonds.
When a neuron is stimulated and sodium channels open, the process of has begun. Structures of the nervous system surrounding, but not part of the central nervous system are part of the . Two consecutive neurons communicate at a , where they physically come together. are a group of natural chemicals that reduce the perception of pain. Supporting cells of the nervous system are collectively called . When potassium channels have been open long enough to go below resting membrane potential, has occurred.
Answer:
- When a neuron is stimulated and sodium channels open, the process of depolarization has begun.
- Structures of the nervous system surrounding, but not part of the central nervous system are part of the peripheral nervous system
- Two consecutive neurons communicate at a synapse, where they physically come together.
- Endorphins are a group of natural chemicals that reduce the perception of pain.
- Supporting cells of the nervous system are collectively called neuroglia
- When potassium channels have been open long enough to go below resting membrane potential, hyperpolarization has occurred.
Explanation:
Neurons undergo depolarization in response to diverse stimuli (e.g., heat, light, electrical, chemical, etc). The depolarization occurs when sodium (Na+) ions pass through specific channels (i.e., open voltage-gated Na+ channels) into a neuron, which causes an increase in the positivity of membrane potential. On the other hand, hyperpolarization occurs when potassium (K+) channels remain open and Na+ channels reset, thereby producing an increase in negativity of membrane potential. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of the cranial nerves, spinal nerves, peripheral nerves, and neuromuscular junctions, which connect the Central nervous system (CNS) to the organs, limbs, and skin. Endorphins (e.g., serotonin) are polypeptides secreted by the pituitary gland and CNS to relieve stress and pain. Neuroglia refers to a class of neural cells that have ectodermal (e.g., astroglia, peripheral glial cells) or mesodermal (e.g., microglia) origins. Neuroglia cells are involved in diverse roles, including, among others, the formation of the blood-brain barrier, homeostatic support, provision of nutrients for neurons, structural support to nerve cells, etc.
Which best illustrates a result of natural selection
Answer:
A. because the bat was born without a webbed wing it is most likely to die which is a result of natural selection
What makes up the mantle
In female gamete development in humans and other vertebrates, the net result of meiosis is the production of one large egg and three small cells with very little cytoplasm. These three small cells?
Innate talents or gifts enhanced through study and practice are:
A-drawbacks.
B-Holland's occupational types.
C-priorities.
D-abilities.
Innate talents or gifts enhanced through study and practice are abilities. The correct option is D.
What are innate talents?Innate talents are those talents that are present in the organism from birth, They are not learned or observed from outside. These abilities are only enhanced as we grow up. They are already present in the body.
They are the natural, talents that with we grow up. Innate talents are also called natural skills. They are genetically present in our bodies. Some people are born with natural potential and skills. But without hard work and practice, these skills would not work.
Abilities are the things that are used by the organism to perform activities. Every organism has some abilities.
Thus, the correct option is D. abilities.
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Select all the correct answers.
The Alps mountain range lies near the boundary of the Eurasian Plate and the African Plate. These mountains are thought to
be the result of two continental plates colliding. Which of these statements would provide evidence for this theory?
Answer:
it would reason that the first sentence is the most evidentiary, since it is fact based verses the second sentence which is theory.
Answer: The mountains are continuously increasing in size. and Periodic earthquakes occur in the region.
Explanation: i literally got my question wrong because i listened to that other guy and he was completely wrong. dont make my mistake and listen to silly people.
Absolute zero temperature is not the zero energy temperature.explain
The absolute zero is the temperature at which molecular motion ceases i.e translational kinetic of molecules become zero, but the molecules possess the potential energy, according to the Kinetic theory of gases. Thus, the absolute zero is not the zero energy temperature.
Which phrase best describes a savana biome
Answer:
A biome that is dry most of the time long tall dried out grass. The savanna is home to many large land mammals, including elephants, giraffes, zebras, rhinoceroses, buffalo, lions, leopards, and cheetahs. Other animals include baboons, crocodiles, antelopes, meerkats, ants, termites, kangaroos, ostriches, and snakes.
Explanation:
Hope this helps ! <33
One of the livers main functions is to detoxify potentially toxic substances. Which organelle would you expect liver cells to have in abundance?
liver contain abundance of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Which of these molecules are used for short term energy by
organisms?
Select one:
a. Proteins
b. Nucleic Acids
O c. Carbohydrates
d. Lipids
Elizabeth was a "granola mom"it was only natural and organic foods and therapies for her
family. She belonged to a food co-op and ordered special foods and home remedies through
the group
Elizabeth was well read and conscientious, and she had a remedy for everything
Little white pills that dissolved under the tongue treated everything from teething to bruising.
When her 8-year-old daughter Samantha had a sore throat, Elizabeth had her gargle with
colloidal silver remedy used before all the new and "dangerous" antibiotics. Samantha did
get over her sore throat, but three weeks later, she broke out in a rash, complained that her
points hurt, and had swollen glands. This worried Elizabeth, and so she consulted a
conventional medical doctor.
Samantha was diagnosed with rheumatic fever, and the doctor prescribed antibiotic treatment.
Elizabeth had read that antibiotics could damage the immune system, and was reluctant to
give them to her daughter
How can you as a nurse, encourage compliance with long-term antibiotie treatment without
abenating Elizabeth? To what extent does a parent have the night to refuse medical advice for
a child? When are alternative therapies helpful?
Answer and Explanation:
1. As nurses, we can inform you that the use of antibiotics according to medical advice is not dangerous, because the doctor is able to prescribe a correct dose, which must be taken at the correct time intervals, to fight the disease without damaging the immune system . In that case, if the girl takes the medicine exactly as the doctor prescribed, she will have no problems and her body will recover completely.
2. Parents only have the right to refuse medical advice, when such advice is clearly abusive, puts the child at proven risk, or presents experimental treatments without scientific evidence, as it may endanger the child.
3. Alternative therapies are beneficial when they are accompanied by traditional medical treatment, or when they seek to promote relaxation and stress reduction, without trying to fight infections and more serious health problems.
What is humus made of? (Select all that apply.)
A. earthworms
B. nutrients
C. bacteria
D. rocks
Answer:
A. earthworms
B. nutrients
C. bacteria
Explanation:
Humus is rich in organic matter and also is abundant in inorganic mineral nutrients.
(*) Sorry for my late answer but I hope this helps others that are looking for this.
100% in the test ;)
Humus is made of Earthworms, nutrients and bacteria. So, the correct options are A, B and C.
What is Humus?Humus is the soil's black organic material that results from the breakdown of plant and animal debris. It is a type of organic material for soil. It has a lot of nutrients and keeps the soil moist. The Latin word for "earth" or "ground" is humus.
Humus is described as a dark organic substance that develops in soil as a result of plant and animal debris decomposing. It is organic and dark in colour because carbon has accumulated there. It contains elements that are crucial to maintaining healthy soil. Earthworms, nutrients, and microbes make up humus.
Because humus is a feature of loamy soils, the high concentration of nutrients in the soil is caused by humus. Humus reduces a substance's porosity by obstructing the pores that permit the passage of water and air.
Therefore, the correct options are A, B and C.
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Solutions having osmotic pressures less than those of body fluids are called Group of answer choices hyposmotic. hyperosmotic. magnosmotic. neosmotic. isosmotic. PreviousNext
Answer:
hyposmotic
Explanation:
Body fluids are in contact with cells. Cells are surrounded by a semi-permeable membrane, through which can pass certain solutes. If the concentration inside the cells is different from the body fluids, the water molecules will move from the more concentrated compartment to the less concentrated one. This process is called osmosis.
If the body fluids are more concentrated than cells, the solution is called hypertonic (body fluids are hyperosmic). If the body fluids are less concentrated than the cells, the solution is called hypotonic (body fluids are hyposmotic).
The main form of lipid found in the food we eat is
The main form of lipid found in the food we eat is
Answer:
Triacylglycerols
Explanation:
Triacylglycerols are the main form of lipid found in the body and in the diet. Fatty acids and glycerol are the building blocks of triacylglycerols. Glycerol is a thick, smooth, syrupy compound that is often used in the food industry.