find the sides marked with letters

Also explain how to solve it ​

Answer:

B 71 & 71

Step-by-step explanation:

OP is an angle bisector

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Since angles MOP and NOP are both labeled as 2x+1, they must both be equivalent. The only answer choice which shows them to be equivalent is B.

Verification:

(2x+1)+(2x+1)=142

4x=140

x=35

(substitution)

2(35)+1 = 71

Answer:

1/15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1/15

The absolute value of -56 is 56

the new sentence is 56____1561

A is not true because 56 is not bigger then 1561 if you count and put on number line

B is very true if you look at A. 56 is smaller than 1516

So, the answer is a

I hope this helped if it's wrong, plz blame me.

Ps.Brainlist would help a lot

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

The | | around -56 means absolute value or the total of the number, which in this case is 56, therefore 56 is less than 1561.

Answer:

The answer is 9 uniforms.

Step-by-step explanation:

You can set up the equation like this

Total Cost = Total Cost of Equipment + Total Cost of Uniforms

So the equation would be:

692 = 422 + 30 * (# of Uniforms)

So minus both sides by 422 and you get

692-422 = 30 * (# of Uniforms)

270 = 30 * (# of Uniforms)

Then divide both sides by 30 and you get

9 = # of Uniforms

So therefore, the answer is 9 Uniforms

Answer:

Let's apply the quadratic formula:

⇒

x

=

−

4

±

√

4

2

−

4

(

2

)

(

−

30

)

2

(

2

)

⇒

x

=

−

4

±

√

16

+

240

4

⇒

x

=

−

4

±

√

256

4

⇒

x

=

−

4

±

16

4

⇒

x

=

−

1

±

4

⇒

x

=

−

5

,

3

Therefore, the solutions to the equation are

x

=

−

5

and

x

=

3

.

.

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:

All the terms in the equation are even, so we can divide by 2 immediately to make the numbers smaller.

2

x

2

+

4

x

−

30

=

0

x

2

+

2

x

−

15

=

0

Try to factor before we use loner methods of the quadratic formula or completing the square.

Find factors of 15 which subtract (because of -15) to give 2.

The signs will be different (because of -15), there must be more positives. (because of +2)

5 and 3 will work!

5

×

3

=

15

and

5

−

3

=

2

(

x

+

5

)

(

x

−

3

)

=

0

Putting each factor equal to 0 gives the solutions:

x

=

−

5

or

x

=

3

Answer:

(x+3)(x-5)

Step-by-step explanation:

2x²-4x-30 = 0

devide by 2

; x²-2x-15 = 0

(x+3)(x-5) = 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

25 %

Step-by-step explanation:

Error = (actual - predicted) / (predicted)

= (250-200) / 200

= 50 / 200

= 0.25

multiply by 100 to conver to a percent

25 %

Answer:

Find the 100th term when the first term is -3 and the common difference is 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the 100th term when the first term is -3 and the common difference is 4. I took the test and got 100 percent.

Answer: what’s the full question??

Answer: c = 6.5I

Step-by-step explanation:

C = the cost of the fabric

I = the length of the fabric

C : I = 13 : 2

C : I = 32.50 : 5

C : I = 6.5

C = 6.5I

Answer: 6 2/3

4/3 * 5

20/3

6 2/3

Answer:

the correct answer is ( ZYXW ) because the given polygon is a rectangle and its properties is that the opposite sides are equal means the lenght and breath of the unknown side for the big rectangle is 6 , 3 and for small rectangle the the unknown sides are 1 , 2 only so now you've got all the side of both polygons so now you take the ratio of each side and then you can easily find the sides

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps

Have Nice Day : )

The factorization of the given expression is 2ab(b²+4a).

The given expression is 2ab³+8a²b.

A number's factors are those that divide into another number equally. A number is factorized when it is written as the sum of smaller numbers.

The given expression can be factorize as follows:

2ab³+8a²b

Here, 2ab is the common factor from both the terms, Take it out side the bracket.

That is, 2ab(b²+4a)

Therefore, the factorization of the given expression is 2ab(b²+4a).

To learn more about the factorization visit:

https://brainly.com/question/20293447.

#SPJ2

Answer:

5x+15

Step-by-step explanation:

you mulityply 5*x and 5*3

The equation you can use to find the amount of money, v, Samir received for each video game is;

4v - 23.65 = 6.35 and v = $7.5

Samir sold 4 oh his old star leaper video games.

If the amount received for each video game is v, the total cost of the 4 video games is; 4v

Thus, this equation is;

4v - 23.65 = 6.35

Solving this gives;

v = $7.5

Read more about algebra word problems at; https://brainly.com/question/21405634

[tex]ax^2 + x -24 =0\\\\\text{If the roots are}~ \alpha ~ \text{and}~ \beta,\\\\\alpha \beta = -\dfrac{24}a \\\\\implies -2 \dfrac 25 = -\dfrac{24} a\\\\ \implies 2 \dfrac 25 = \dfrac{24} a\\\\\implies \dfrac{12}5 = \dfrac{24}a\\\\\implies 12a = 120\\\\\implies a =\dfrac{120}{12} =10[/tex]

The isosceles triangle having an angle bisector [tex]\overline{AD}[/tex] forms two congruent triangles.

Reasons:

The given parameters are;

ΔABC is an isosceles triangle.

[tex]\overline{AB}[/tex] ≅ [tex]\overline{AC}[/tex]

[tex]\overline{AD}[/tex] bisects ∠BAC

Therefore, the proof that ∠ABD  ≅ ∠ACD is given as follows;

1. [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex] ≅ [tex]\mathbf{\overline{AC}}[/tex] (Given)

2. [tex]\overline{AD}[/tex] bisects ∠BAC (Given)

3. ∠BAD ≅ ∠CAD (Definition of angle bisector)

4. [tex]\overline{AD}[/tex] ≅ [tex]\mathbf{\overline{AD}}[/tex] (Reflexive property of congruency)

5. ΔBAD ≅ ΔCAD (Side Angle Side, SAS rule of congruency based on steps 1, 3 and 4)

6. ∠ABD ≅ ∠ACD (Congruent Parts of Congruent Triangle are Congruent, CPCTC)

Learn more about SAS rule of congruency here:

https://brainly.com/question/6422888

Answer:

3.4 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

We can solve this by calculating the volume of the soup and then figuring out the height of the soup in the saucepan from there.

Cylinder volume: πr²h

r = 0.5 * diameter

volume of soup: π(3.5)²10 ≈ 384.845

volume of soup in saucepan: 384.845

For saucepan:

πr²h = π(6)²h = volume = 384.845

36πh = 384.845

divide both sides by 36π to isolate h

h ≈ 3.4 cm

Answer:

54 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

For the first picture, I think it is C and the second one should be A.

Step-by-step explanation:

You use vertical lines and if it hits it multiple times it is not a function. Like if it hits two dots or something it is not a function. I hope that make sense, let me know if it doesn't.

is that two problems in one?

Answer:

The famous point G that everyone enjoys... of course it represents a point of a graph! What else could it be? G stands for graph.

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the number 80 thousand

==========================================================

Explanation:

1/2, aka 2/4, of the original fund was given to his wife and 1/4 was given to his son. That totals 3/4 since 2/4+1/4 = (2+1)/4 = 3/4.

In short, 3/4 of the fund is distributed between the wife and son. That leaves 1/4 of the fund for the two brothers to share equally.

Imagine a cake cut into quarters. Then cut each slice in half to get eighths, i.e. there are 8 equal slices. This means each brother gets 1/8 of the fund.

Since each brother got Rs 10000, this must mean the original fund is worth 8*10000 = 80000

Taking 1/8 of Rs 80000 will get us Rs 10000 for each brother.

----------------------------------

Checking the answer:

original fund amount = 80000

1/2 of 80000 = 40000 is the amount the wife gets

1/4 of 80000 = 20000 is the amount the son gets

That totals 40000+20000 = 60000 leaving 80000-60000 = 20000 leftover for the two brothers to share. Cut that 20 thousand figure in half to arrive at Rs 10000 for each brother. These steps help confirm the answer.

----------------------------------

Another method using algebra:

x = original amount of the fund

W = x/2 = 2x/4 = half of the fund = amount wife gets

S = x/4 = quarter of the fund = amount the son gets

W+S = (2x/4) + (x/4) = (2x+x)/4 = 3x/4

W+S represents the sum of the wife's and son's amounts.

We'll subtract this from the original amount x to find out what's left

x - (W+S) = x - (3x/4) = (4x/4) - (3x/4) = (4x-3x)/4 = x/4

This shows that 1/4 of the fund is left over after distributing to the wife and son.

The amount x/4 is then cut in half to get x/8 to represent the amount each brother gets. We're told that amount is Rs 10000

So,

x/8 = 10000

x = 8*10000

x = 80000

The original fund is worth Rs 80000

i'm pretty sure it's 20.

Answer: 350 [tex]\sqrt{3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

700^0.5 = 10 [tex]\sqrt{7\\[/tex]

525^0.5 = 5 [tex]\sqrt{21[/tex]

10[tex]\sqrt{7[/tex] x 5[tex]\sqrt{21[/tex] = 50 x 7 x [tex]\sqrt{3[/tex] = 350[tex]\sqrt{3\\[/tex]