explain the thinking behind milton friedman’s famous declaration that ""inflation is always and everywhere a monetary phenomenon.""

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Answer 1

Milton Friedman, an influential economist, believed that inflation is primarily caused by an increase in the money supply, which is controlled by the government or central bank. According to him, when the money supply increases faster than the production of goods and services, prices will rise, resulting in inflation.


Friedman's argument is based on the Quantity Theory of Money, which states that the amount of money in circulation multiplied by the velocity of money (the rate at which money changes hands) equals the total spending in the economy. Therefore, if the money supply increases, but the production of goods and services remains constant, the velocity of money will remain unchanged, resulting in an increase in prices.

Friedman believed that governments and central banks should focus on controlling the money supply to avoid inflation. He advocated for a fixed monetary growth rate, which would ensure stable prices and prevent inflation from spiraling out of control. In summary, Friedman's declaration that "inflation is always and everywhere a monetary phenomenon" suggests that inflation is caused by an increase in the money supply, and that controlling the money supply is the key to maintaining price stability in an economy.

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Related Questions

............... are the taken-for-granted beliefs and philosophies that are so ingrained that employees simply act on them rather than questioning the validity of their behaviour in a given situation.
A. Espoused values
B. Stories
C. Basic underlying assumptions
D. Rituals
E. Observable artefacts

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C. Basic underlying assumptions.

Basic underlying assumptions are the taken-for-granted beliefs and philosophies that are deeply ingrained in an organization's culture. These assumptions shape employees' behavior and actions without them questioning the validity of their behavior in a given situation. They are often deeply embedded and may go unnoticed or unquestioned by employees. These assumptions influence how employees interpret and respond to different situations, guide their decision-making, and shape the overall culture of the organization.

Espoused values, on the other hand, refer to the stated or publicly declared values and beliefs that an organization promotes. Stories, rituals, and observable artifacts are visible manifestations of an organization's culture and can provide insights into its values and assumptions. However, it is the basic underlying assumptions that form the core of an organization's culture and shape employees' behaviors and actions without conscious awareness or questioning.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Basic underlying assumptions.

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mickey is a successful salesman at ahr corp. in addition to his normal duties, mickey has created a best practices manual for new salespeople to help ensure their success. this is an example of
a.organizational citizenship behavior. b.organizational commitment. c.social deviance.
d. positive deviance e.positive amplification.

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Mickey's creation of a best practices manual for new salespeople to help ensure their success is an example of organizational citizenship behavior. Organizational citizenship behavior refers to actions taken by employees that go beyond their formal job requirements and contribute to the overall success of the organization. In this case, Mickey's initiative to create a manual that helps new salespeople be successful is an example of going above and beyond his job duties to contribute to the success of AHR Corp.

Organizational citizenship behavior is important for organizations because it creates a positive work environment and contributes to the overall success of the organization. Employees who exhibit organizational citizenship behavior are more likely to be committed to their organization, and they are more likely to have positive relationships with their coworkers and superiors. In addition, when employees exhibit organizational citizenship behavior, it can positively impact the performance and success of the organization. In conclusion, Mickey's creation of a best practices manual for new salespeople to help ensure their success is an example of organizational citizenship behavior. This type of behavior is important for organizations because it creates a positive work environment, contributes to the success of the organization, and can positively impact employee commitment and relationships with their coworkers and superiors.

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The act of creating a best practices manual for new salespeople to ensure their success is an example of organizational citizenship behavior (OCB). OCB refers to discretionary and voluntary actions that employees take to benefit their organization and colleagues beyond their job requirements.

These behaviors are not explicitly stated in an employee's job description, but they help to improve organizational effectiveness, productivity, and efficiency.Mickey's action of creating a manual goes beyond his regular job duties and is aimed at improving the performance of the new salespeople. This is a voluntary and positive action that can benefit the company in the long run. Therefore, it is an example of OCB.Organizational commitment refers to the degree of loyalty and attachment an employee feels towards their organization. Social deviance refers to any behavior that violates social norms, while positive deviance refers to innovative and successful behavior that deviates from the norm in a positive way. Positive amplification refers to behaviors that enhance or reinforce existing positive conditions in the organization. None of these concepts are applicable to Mickey's action of creating a best practices manual.

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Oceanview Marine Company Attributes Sampling Exception Form: Acquisitions December 31, 2018This form is to be used to document the findings of tests of controls and substantive tests of transactions. In the column on the left, write the document number for each document tested. The numbers across the top of the matrix correspond to the "Description of Attributes" column on the Attributes Sampling Data Sheet For each document in column one place an "X"in the column below the number of the attribute being tested by that document if there is an exception. Also use an "X" if one or more documents required to perform the test are missing (assuming the missing document(s) are applicable to the transaction). Leave it blank if there is no exceptionRECORD OF EXCEPTIONS Identity of Item Selected Attributes Document Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Voucher 677 1010 1409 2280 3028 50 additional items 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Total Number of Exceptions Total Sample Size

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The Oceanview Marine Company Attributes Sampling Exception Form for Acquisitions on December 31, 2018, is a tool used to document findings from tests of controls and substantive tests of transactions.

This form consists of a matrix with document numbers listed in the left column and attribute descriptions across the top, corresponding to the numbers on the Attributes Sampling Data Sheet.

When testing a document, an "X" is placed in the matrix column below the attribute number if an exception is found or if one or more required documents are missing (assuming they are applicable to the transaction). If no exception is present, the space is left blank. The example provided lists Voucher numbers 677, 1010, 1409, 2280, 3028, and 50 additional items, with no exceptions noted.

The form helps track exceptions found during the testing process and calculates the total number of exceptions and the sample size. By providing a clear and organized method to record exceptions, it ensures that the testing process is efficient and accurate. This, in turn, helps Oceanview Marine Company maintain strong internal controls and identify areas for improvement in their transaction processes.

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some departments have a median slary specified all salaries are under one million dollars and we preresent them using the standard representation with 2 digits for cents

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If all salaries in a department are under one million dollars and they are represented using the standard representation with 2 digits for cents, it means that the salaries are expressed in the format of dollars and cents up to two decimal places.

The maximum salary in this department would be $999,999.99.

The use of two decimal places allows for precise representation of cents in the salary amounts. For example, if an employee's salary is $50,000.50, it would be expressed as $50,000.50 with two decimal places.

By specifying the median salary, it indicates that the department is considering the middle value of the salary distribution when reporting the typical salary. The median is the value that divides the salary distribution into two equal halves, with half of the salaries being lower than the median and half being higher.

So, in summary, the department has salaries under one million dollars, and they are represented in the format of dollars and cents up to two decimal places. The median salary represents the middle value in the salary distribution.

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computer company has created a standard cost card for the pcc model tablet computer, with overhead allocated based on direct labor hours:

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A standard cost card is a tool used by companies to establish a predetermined cost for a specific product. The purpose of this tool is to ensure that the company is able to maintain a consistent level of profitability while producing a high-quality product.

Direct labor hours are the hours spent by employees directly involved in the production of a product. These hours are used to calculate the amount of overhead that should be allocated to a specific product. Overhead is the indirect cost associated with the production of a product, such as rent, utilities, and equipment maintenance. By allocating overhead based on direct labor hours, the computer company is able to accurately determine the cost of producing each PCC model tablet computer.

Allocating overhead based on direct labor hours is a common practice in manufacturing companies. It is a straightforward method that is easy to implement and provides a reasonable estimate of overhead costs. However, it is important to note that this method may not be suitable for all products or companies. For example, if a company produces a product that requires a significant amount of overhead that is not directly related to labor, then allocating overhead based on direct labor hours may not provide an accurate estimate of the total cost.

In conclusion, the computer company's use of a standard cost card with overhead allocated based on direct labor hours for the PCC model tablet computer is a useful tool for determining the cost of production. However, it is important to carefully consider the appropriateness of this method for other products and companies.

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.Airlines appeal to _________ by offering more legroom, gourmet meals, and a large selection of videos on individual screens.
a. symbolism
b. hedonism
c. satiation
d. utilitarianism
e. functionalism

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Airlines appeal to "b. hedonism" by offering more legroom, gourmet meals, and a large selection of videos on individual screens.

Hedonism refers to the pursuit of pleasure and comfort, which these amenities provide to passengers. Hedonism is the philosophy that pleasure or happiness is the ultimate goal in life, and people seek to maximize their pleasure while minimizing pain or discomfort. Airlines recognize that many passengers want to have a pleasurable and comfortable experience while traveling, and they offer amenities to meet these needs.

By offering more legroom, airlines can provide passengers with greater comfort during their flights, making the experience more pleasurable. Gourmet meals are another way that airlines cater to hedonistic desires, as they provide a high-quality and enjoyable dining experience that can enhance the pleasure of the flight. Similarly, providing a large selection of videos on individual screens can also appeal to hedonism, as it allows passengers to indulge in entertainment and enjoy themselves during the flight.

Therefore, the correct answer is b. hedonism.

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gina, a neutral third party, tries to resolve a conflict initiated by a manager and union representative at all sports shoes. she does so by listening to what both parties have to say about the issue and facilitating the negotiations. in this scenario, gina is exercising which type of alternative to work stoppages?multiple choicemediationfinal-offer arbitration fact-finder technique conventional arbitration rights arbitration

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In this scenario, Gina is exercising the alternative of mediation to work stoppages.

The correct option is mediation.

Mediation involves a neutral third party facilitating communication and negotiation between conflicting parties in order to reach a mutually acceptable resolution. It is a less confrontational approach compared to work stoppages like strikes or lockouts, which can be costly and disruptive to the business. Through mediation, Gina is able to listen to both parties and assist them in finding a solution that works for everyone involved. This approach can be beneficial in maintaining positive relationships and preventing further escalation of conflicts.

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Elizabeth and Bruce are both senior accountants with the firm of Debit & Credit, LLC. Elizabeth regularly makes comments about how much she likes Bruce’s body and tells him he’s a hottie. She occasionally tells him about sexual acts she would like to perform with him. Bruce feels uncomfortable in the workplace as a result and it is affecting his job performance. If Bruce sues Debit & Credit for permitting the behavior,
Debit & Credit would win because a woman can't harass a man and he should be flattered rather than upset.
Debit & Credit would win because Elizabeth and Bruce are on the same employment level and Bruce can't be truly harassed unless Elizabeth has the ability to affect his job status, which she doesn't have.
Bruce would win if he had previously complained to Debit & Credit and it had done nothing to stop the harassment.
Bruce would win because, regardless of notice, the employer is automatically liable for any improper activity that occurs on the job, and it is the employer's responsibility to know what is happening on its premises.

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Bruce would win if he had previously complained to Debit & Credit and it had done nothing to stop the harassment.

Sexual harassment in the workplace is prohibited by law and can be committed by anyone, regardless of gender. Bruce has the right to work in an environment free from harassment, and Elizabeth's behavior is unwelcome and offensive. If Bruce has already reported the harassment to Debit & Credit and they failed to take appropriate action to address the situation, the company could be liable for allowing a hostile work environment. It is the employer's responsibility to take reasonable steps to prevent and correct harassment, and failure to do so could result in legal action against the company.

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4)+is+it+easier+to+increase+the+fill+rate+from+80%+to+85%+or+from+90%+to+95%?+explain+your+response

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It is generally easier to increase the fill rate from 80% to 85% compared to increasing it from 90% to 95%. The reason for this is the diminishing returns and the relative proximity to maximum capacity.

When the fill rate is at 80%, there is more room for improvement and optimization. Increasing it by 5 percentage points to reach 85% can be achieved through relatively simpler and more accessible actions, such as improving processes, reducing errors, or making minor adjustments. These improvements can lead to a noticeable increase in the fill rate.

On the other hand, when the fill rate is already at 90%, reaching 95% becomes more challenging. The closer the fill rate is to 100%, the more difficult it becomes to make significant improvements. Achieving higher fill rates often requires more complex strategies, investments in technology or infrastructure, or substantial changes to operations.

Therefore, increasing the fill rate from 80% to 85% is generally considered easier due to the larger potential for improvement and simpler optimization opportunities. As the fill rate approaches 100%, the difficulty of making substantial improvements increases.

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The accountant for a subunit of Mountain Sports Company went on vacation before completing the subunit's monthly responsibility report. This is as far as she got: EEB (Click the icon to view the responsibility report.) Read the requirements Requirement 1. Complete the responsibility report for this subunit. Mountain-Subunit X Revenue by Product Downhill-FI Downhill-RII Cross-EXI Cross-EXI Snow-LXI Total Actual Flexible Budget Flexible Sales Volume Static Results Variance Budget Variance Budget $ 16,000F 303,000 148,000 303,000 269,500 402,000 $ 1,425,500 $ 327,000 156,000 286,000 257,000 426,000 167,000 288,000 252,000 2,000 U 17,500 U 3,000 1,452,000 Requirement 2. Based on the data presented what type of responsibility center is this subunit?

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Requirement 1- A favorable sales volume variance indicates that the subunit sold more products than expected, while an unfavorable variance indicates that the subunit sold fewer products than expected.

Requirement 2-  The responsibility report shows the revenue earned by the subunit and the variances between the actual revenue and the budgeted revenue. Profit centers are responsible for both revenues and costs and are evaluated based on their profitability.

Requirement 1: The flexible budget column shows the revenue that should have been earned based on the flexible budget for the period. The static budget column shows the revenue that was planned to be earned in the period, and the variance columns show the differences between the actual revenue and the two types of budgeted revenue.

The flexible budgeted price is the budgeted revenue per unit of product, assuming the subunit achieves the budgeted sales volume. A favorable flexible budget variance indicates that the subunit earned more revenue than expected, while an unfavorable variance indicates that the subunit earned less revenue than expected.

The completed responsibility report is shown in the table below:

Mountain-Subunit X Responsibility Report

Revenue by Product Downhill-FI Downhill-RII Cross-EXI Cross-EXI Snow-LXI Total Actual $16,000F $303,000 $148,000 $303,000 $269,500 $1,040,500 Flexible Budget $17,000F $329,250 $154,000 $295,500 $263,250 $1,058,000 Flexible Sales Volume $1,000U $26,250 $6,000U $7,500F $6,250F $37,000 Static Budget $17,000F $327,000 $156,000 $286,000 $257,000 $1,043,000 Variance Budget $1,000U $3,000U $2,000F $17,500U $3,000U $20,500U

Requirement 2: The responsibility report shows the revenue earned by the subunit and the variances between the actual revenue and the budgeted revenue. Profit centers are responsible for both revenues and costs and are evaluated based on their profitability.

This control over pricing and volume is a characteristic of profit centers. Furthermore, the report does not show any information about costs, which would be expected in a profit center. Therefore, based on the information provided, we can conclude that this subunit is a profit center.

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Assume that the TC function for a company is as follows: TC=550+4Q+3Q2 (show calculations for all parts)a. What is the average total cost function for this firm? Provide answer as a function.b. What is the average fixed cost of producing 5 units of output? Provide answer in dollars.c. What is the average variable cost of producing 5 units of output? Provide answer in dollars.

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(a)  The average total cost function for this firm is 550/Q + 4 + 3Q. (b) The average fixed cost of producing 5 units of output is 110 dollars per unit. (c) The average variable cost of producing 5 units of output is 19 dollars per unit.

a. The average total cost (ATC) function is calculated by dividing the total cost (TC) by the quantity (Q):

ATC = TC/Q = (550+4Q+3Q^2)/Q = 550/Q + 4 + 3Q

Therefore, the average total cost function for this firm is ATC = 550/Q + 4 + 3Q.

b. The average fixed cost (AFC) is calculated by dividing the fixed cost (FC) by the quantity (Q):

AFC = FC/Q = 550/Q

To find the average fixed cost of producing 5 units of output, we substitute Q=5 into the equation above:

AFC = 550/5 = 110 dollars per unit.

c. The average variable cost (AVC) is calculated by subtracting the fixed cost (FC) from the total variable cost (TVC), and then dividing by the quantity (Q):

AVC = (TVC-FC)/Q = (4Q+3Q^2)/Q = 4 + 3Q

To find the average variable cost of producing 5 units of output, we substitute Q=5 into the equation above:

AVC = 4 + 3(5) = 19 dollars per unit.

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Suppose an individual's utility function is given by the following expression: U (91,92) = min (q1,92) Assume the individual spends all of their income (y) on a bundle of good #1 (91) and good #2 (92). Suppose the current price of good #1 is $3 (p1 = 3) and the current price of good #2 is $4 (p2 4). Which of the following changes would cause the largest decrease in the amount of good #1 the individual demands: A. The price of good #1 increases by 1% B. The individual's income increases by 1% C. The price of good #2 increases by 1%

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The largest decrease in the amount of good #1 demanded would occur if the price of goods #1 increases by 1%.

The individual's utility function is U(91, 92) = min(q1, 92), meaning the individual wants to maximize their consumption of good #1 (91) while also ensuring they have at least 92 units of good #2 (92).

To determine which change would cause the largest decrease in the amount of good #1 demanded, we need to calculate the price elasticity of demand for good #1 using the formula: % change in quantity demanded / % change in price.
A. If the price of good #1 increases by 1%, the percentage change in price is 1% and the price elasticity of demand for good #1 is (-1) * (91/92) = -0.989. This means that a 1% increase in the price of good #1 would cause a 0.989% decrease in the quantity demanded of good #1.
B. If the individual's income increases by 1%, we cannot determine the effect on the quantity demanded of good #1 since we don't have information about the income elasticity of demand.
C. If the price of good #2 increases by 1%, there is no effect on the quantity demanded of good #1 since the utility function only depends on the quantity of good #2 consumed.


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Jennifer is leasing a car from a local auto retailer. The terms of the lease include a 9% interest rate for 36 months with a residual value of 57%. The MSRP for the car Jennifer is leasing is $17,500. What will Jennifer’s monthly lease payment be? a. $93. 84 b. $99. 75 c. $209. 03 d. $312. 06 Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D.

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Jennifer's monthly lease payment is approximately $99.75.

To calculate Jennifer’s monthly lease payment, we will use the following formula: Monthly lease payment = Depreciation + Interest charge + Sales taxWhere:Depreciation = (Net capitalized cost - Residual value) ÷ Lease termInterest charge = (Net capitalized cost + Residual value) × Money factorSales tax = (Depreciation + Net capitalized cost + Residual value) × Sales tax rateAccording to the given information, MSRP (Net capitalized cost) = $17,500Residual value = 57%Lease term = 36 monthsInterest rate (money factor) = 9% / 2400 = 0.00375 (Interest rate is always divided by 2400)Sales tax rate is not given, so we will assume it as zero, i.e., no sales tax. Now we will calculate each term one by one.Depreciation = (Net capitalized cost - Residual value) ÷ Lease term= ($17,500 - 0.57 × $17,500) ÷ 36= $8,925Interest charge = (Net capitalized cost + Residual value) × Money factor= ($17,500 + 0.57 × $17,500) × 0.00375= $94.69Sales tax = (Depreciation + Net capitalized cost + Residual value) × Sales tax rate= (0 + $17,500 + 0.57 × $17,500) × 0= $0Putting the values in the formula:Monthly lease payment = Depreciation + Interest charge + Sales tax= $8,925 + $94.69 + $0= $9,019.69Approximately, Jennifer’s monthly lease payment will be $99.75 (rounded to the nearest cent).Hence, the correct option is B. $99.75.

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Healthy Dinners Co. produces frozen dinners for the health conscious consumer. During the quarter ended September 30, the company had the following cost data:
Dinner ingredients $3,550,000
Preparation labor 900,000
Sales and marketing costs 125,000
Plant production overhead 50,000
Normal food spoilage 60,000
Abnormal food spoilage 40,000
General and administrative expenses 75,000
Based on the above, what is the total amount of period expenses reflected in the company’s income statement
for the quarter ended September 30?
a. $200,000
b. $240,000
c. $290,000
d. $300,000

Answers

The total amount of period expenses reflected in the company's income statement for the quarter ended September 30 is $4,800,000. The correct option closest to the answer is option d.

The total amount of period expenses reflected in Healthy Dinners Co.'s income statement for the quarter ended September 30 can be calculated by adding up all the expenses listed above. The dinner ingredients cost $3,550,000 and the preparation labor cost $900,000, totaling $4,450,000 in direct costs.

The company also incurred sales and marketing costs of $125,000, plant production overhead of $50,000, normal food spoilage of $60,000, abnormal food spoilage of $40,000, and general and administrative expenses of $75,000, totaling $350,000 in indirect costs.
To calculate the total period expenses, we add the direct costs and indirect costs:
$4,450,000 + $350,000 = $4,800,000

Therefore, the total amount of period expenses reflected in the company's income statement for the quarter ended September 30 is $4,800,000. The answer is not provided in the options given, so the closest option would be (d) $300,000, which is not the correct answer.

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On March 1, a designer receives a $7,500 check in advance from a customer for design services to be provided after the customer chose a color scheme for the first floor of her house. Prepare the March 1 journal entry.

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The March 1 journal entry would be a debit to Cash for $7,500 and a credit to Unearned Revenue for $7,500.

When the designer receives the $7,500 check from the customer on March 1, it is considered an advance payment for design services that will be provided in the future. Therefore, the $7,500 is recorded as Unearned Revenue, which is a liability account that represents revenue that has been received but not yet earned.

The Cash account is debited to reflect the increase in cash on hand due to the receipt of the check. The journal entry would be as follows:

Debit Cash $7,500
Credit Unearned Revenue $7,500

This journal entry is necessary to ensure that the financial statements accurately reflect the designer's current financial position. It also helps to ensure that revenue is recognized when the design services are actually provided, rather than when the payment is received.

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Consider a community of 3 households. The marginal benefit/inverse demand for police protection services (denoted as S) for each household is given below:
MB1 = 140 – S
MB2 = 100 – S
MB3 = 50 – S
The marginal cost of providing police protection services is 200 per unit. Police protection services are a nonrival good.
The community is committed to treating the police protection services as nonexcludable.
What is the efficient quantity of police protection services for this community? Show your calculation.
If police services are supplied at a price of 200 per unit, what is the private non-cooperative equilibrium quantity of police protection services bought by the households? Provide a brief explanation.
If MB1= 230 – 2S, with MB2, MB3, and MC the same as above, how do the efficient quantity and the private equilibrium quantity change?
Is the Deadweight Loss associated with the Private Provision Equilibrium larger or smaller for the original community (parts a and b) or the second community (part c)?

Answers

The ideal amount of police protection for a community is 90 units, but households only buy 60 units in one community and 15 units in another. The second community has less of a loss associated with private provision.

A. The efficient quantity of police protection services for this community can be found by equating the marginal benefit of each household with the marginal cost.

So, setting:

140-S = 100-S = 50-S = 200,

S = 90.

Thus, the efficient quantity of police protection services for this community is 90 units.

B. If police services are supplied at a price of 200 per unit, each household will purchase police protection services up to the point where their marginal benefit equals the price, which is 200.

So, solving for S in each household’s marginal benefit equation:

MB1 = 140 – S = 200, S1 = 60

MB2 = 100 – S = 200, S2 = -100 (negative value, so zero provision)

MB3 = 50 – S = 200, S3 = -150 (negative value, so zero provision)

Therefore, the private non-cooperative equilibrium quantity of police protection services bought by the households is 60 units.

C. If MB1 = 230 – 2S, the efficient quantity of police protection services for the community is now calculated as:

230-2S = 100-S = 50-S = 200,

S = 43.3

Thus, the efficient quantity of police protection services for this community is 43.3 units.

D. The private non-cooperative equilibrium quantity bought by each household can be calculated using the same method as in part b:

MB1 = 230 – 2S = 200, S1 = 15

MB2 = 100 – S = 200, S2 = -100 (negative value, so zero provision)

MB3 = 50 – S = 200, S3 = -150 (negative value, so zero provision)

Therefore, the private non-cooperative equilibrium quantity of police protection services bought by the households is 15 units.

E. The Deadweight Loss associated with the private provision equilibrium is the difference between the efficient quantity and the private equilibrium quantity, multiplied by the marginal cost.

For the original community in parts a and b, the Deadweight Loss would be:

DWL = (90 – 60) x 200 = $6,000

For the second community in part c, the Deadweight Loss would be:

DWL = (43.3 – 15) x 200 = $5,460.

Therefore, the Deadweight Loss associated with the private provision equilibrium is smaller for the second community in part c.

In summary, the efficient amount of police protection services for the community is 90 units. If police services are supplied at a price of 200 per unit, the private non-cooperative equilibrium quantity of police protection services bought by the households is 60 units.

If MB1 = 230 – 2S, the efficient quantity of police protection services for the community is 43.3 units and the private non-cooperative equilibrium quantity bought by the households is 15 units. The Deadweight Loss associated with the private provision equilibrium is smaller for the second community in part c.

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explain the effects of a fall in the value of the u.k. pound and lower spending by businesses and households on u.k. aggregate demand and aggregate supply.

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A fall in the value of the UK pound and lower spending by businesses and households have effects on both UK aggregate demand and aggregate supply.

The fall in the pound's value can stimulate aggregate demand through increased exports and tourism, while lower spending by businesses and households can reduce aggregate demand and potentially impact aggregate supply.

A fall in the value of the UK pound can have both positive and negative effects on the economy. On the one hand, a weaker pound makes UK goods and services cheaper for foreign buyers, which can stimulate demand for exports. This increase in exports can boost aggregate demand as foreign buyers purchase more UK goods and services. Additionally, a weaker pound can make the UK a more attractive destination for tourists, leading to increased tourism spending and further supporting aggregate demand.

On the other hand, lower spending by businesses and households can dampen aggregate demand. When businesses and households reduce their spending, it can lead to decreased consumption and investment, which are key components of aggregate demand. Lower spending can result from factors such as reduced consumer confidence, economic uncertainty, or changes in government policies affecting business investment.

The impact on aggregate supply will depend on the specific reasons behind the lower spending. If lower spending is due to a decrease in business investment, it can negatively affect aggregate supply by limiting the capacity for production and potential economic growth. However, if lower spending by households is due to factors such as saving or paying down debt, it may not have a significant impact on aggregate supply.

Overall, the effects of a fall in the value of the UK pound and lower spending by businesses and households on UK aggregate demand and aggregate supply are complex and depend on various factors and the specific context of the economy at the time.

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If the government forces a natural monopoly to produce the output level at which P= MC, the firm will Fail to produce efficiently. Produce where ATC is at a minimum. Produce less than the profit-maximizing level of output. Incur losses.

Answers

The correct statement is that if the government forces a natural monopoly to produce the output level at which P=MC, the firm will produce efficiently, not fail to produce efficiently.

If the government forces a natural monopoly to produce the output level at which P=MC (where P is price and MC is marginal cost), the firm will produce efficiently, not fail to produce efficiently. This is because producing at the point where price equals marginal cost represents the economically efficient level of output, where resources are allocated optimally.

Produce where ATC is at a minimum is incorrect in this context. Natural monopolies are characterized by economies of scale, which means that their average total cost (ATC) decreases as output increases. However, producing at the minimum point of ATC does not necessarily correspond to the socially or economically efficient level of output.

Produce less than the profit-maximizing level of output is also incorrect. Natural monopolies have the ability to maximize their profits by setting output levels where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. In the case where the government forces the firm to produce at P=MC, it may still allow the firm to earn a reasonable profit, but not at the level that would maximize profits.

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QUESTION If the government forces a natural monopoly to produce the output level at which P= MC, the firm will O Fail to produce efficiently. O Produce where ATC is at a minimum. O Produce less than the profit-maximizing level of output. Incur losses.

the ""hot now"" sign is a competitive advantage for krispy kreme because

Answers

The "Hot Now" sign is a competitive advantage for Krispy Kreme because it signals freshly baked, warm donuts.

The "Hot Now" sign at Krispy Kreme signifies that freshly baked, warm donuts are available. This is a unique and distinctive feature that sets Krispy Kreme apart from its competitors.

The sign serves as a powerful marketing tool and creates a sense of anticipation and excitement among customers. It not only attracts customers to the store but also differentiates Krispy Kreme from other donut shops or bakeries that may offer pre-packaged or cold donuts.

The "Hot Now" sign represents a competitive advantage because it signals a superior product quality and freshness that many customers find highly appealing.

When the "Hot Now" sign is illuminated, it indicates that the donuts have just come out of the oven and are at their peak deliciousness. This creates a sense of urgency and exclusivity, driving customers to visit Krispy Kreme to experience the warm and melt-in-your-mouth goodness of freshly baked donuts.

The aroma and taste of hot donuts contribute to a unique and memorable customer experience, enhancing the overall brand perception and loyalty.

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if opportunity costs are ________, the production possibilities frontier would be graphed as a negatively sloped straight line.

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If opportunity costs are constant, the production possibilities frontier (PPF) would be graphed as a negatively sloped straight line.

The concept of opportunity cost refers to the trade-offs a society or an individual must make when allocating scarce resources between alternative uses. It represents the value of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made.

When opportunity costs remain constant, it means that the resources used in production can be easily reallocated between different goods or services without any increase in cost. In this scenario, the production possibilities frontier would appear as a straight line with a negative slope on a graph. This indicates that for every additional unit of one good produced, an equal amount of the other good must be given up.

The constant opportunity cost assumption implies that resources are perfectly substitutable between the production of different goods. It suggests that the economy is operating under conditions of fixed resource proportions, where the factors of production can be easily shifted between different uses without any efficiency gains or losses.

However, it's important to note that in reality, opportunity costs often vary as more resources are allocated to the production of a specific good. This leads to a bowed-out shape of the production possibilities frontier, indicating increasing opportunity costs as production shifts from one good to another.

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You had just started a videoconference with your global team when the link was dropped and you lost both audio and video communication with the other members.
- Ambiguity of intent
-Loss of transmission
-Organizational barrier

Answers

When you started a videoconference with your global team and the link was dropped, causing a loss of both audio and video communication with the other members, you experienced a "loss of transmission." This is a type of communication barrier that can interrupt the flow of information and negatively impact productivity.

This can create ambiguity of intent, as the team members may not be aware of whether you intend to continue with the meeting or if there are any changes in plans. Additionally, this can be considered an organizational barrier, as it can disrupt the flow of communication and hinder productivity in achieving team goals.

To address this issue, it is important to have a contingency plan in place, such as having alternative means of communication or rescheduling the meeting if necessary. It is also essential to communicate clearly and promptly with the team members to avoid confusion and minimize any negative impact on the project or organization.

The "ambiguity of intent" refers to situations where the purpose or goal of the communication is unclear, which can also create misunderstandings and hinder effective communication.

An "organizational barrier" is another type of communication barrier that arises due to the structure, hierarchy, or processes within an organization, making it difficult for information to flow smoothly between team members.

In this situation, you primarily experienced a loss of transmission (option B), which prevented you from continuing your videoconference. To resolve this issue, you could try reconnecting to the call or using an alternative communication method such as email or instant messaging to discuss the matter with your team.

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1. how can the principles of classical conditioning and instrumental conditioning be applied to the development of marketing strategies? be sure you supply original examples of each theory.

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Classical conditioning and instrumental conditioning are two behavioral theories that can be applied to the development of marketing strategies.

Classical conditioning involves creating an association between a stimulus and a response, and this can be used in marketing to create positive associations with a brand. For example, a company may pair its product with a celebrity spokesperson, who is seen as attractive and successful. By doing so, the positive attributes associated with the celebrity may transfer to the product, making it more appealing to consumers.

Instrumental conditioning involves the use of rewards and punishments to shape behavior. In marketing, this can be used to encourage desired behaviors such as purchasing a product. For example, a retailer may offer a discount or reward points to customers who make a purchase, encouraging repeat business.Overall, by understanding and applying these behavioral theories, marketers can create effective strategies to influence consumer behavior and promote their products or services.

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You enter a commission-free limit order to buy the stock of Walmart Inc. (ticker: WMT) at a price of $151.20 or better when it trades at a bid price of $151.45 and an offered price of $151.47 per share. The trade will be executed:
When the offered price moves to $151.20 per share
When the bid price moves to $151.20 per share
Immediately at $151.47 per share
Immediately at $151.20 per share
None of the above

Answers

The trade will be executed when the bid price moves to $151.20 per share.

A limit order is an instruction to buy or sell a stock at a specific price or better.

In this case, you have entered a commission-free limit order to buy the stock of Walmart Inc. (ticker: WMT) at a price of $151.20 or better.

The bid price represents the highest price a buyer is willing to pay for a stock, while the offered price represents the lowest price a seller is willing to accept for a stock.
Since you have set your limit order to buy at $151.20 or better, the order will only be executed when the bid price reaches that level or lower.

This means that if the offered price moves to $151.20 per share, but the bid price remains at $151.45 or higher, your order will not be executed.
On the other hand, if the bid price moves to $151.20 per share or lower, your order will be executed at the best available price, which in this case is $151.20 per share or lower.

This means that if the bid price moves to $151.18 per share, for example, your order will be executed at that price instead of $151.20 per share.

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when a firm's earnings are falling more rapidly than its stock price, its P/E ratio willa. remain the sameb. go upc. go downd. either go up or down

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When a firm's earnings are falling more rapidly than its stock price, its P/E ratio will go up. Option B is answer.

The price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio is a financial metric that measures the valuation of a company's stock relative to its earnings. It is calculated by dividing the stock price per share by the earnings per share. When a firm's earnings are declining faster than its stock price, it means that the denominator (earnings per share) in the P/E ratio is decreasing. As a result, the P/E ratio will increase because the stock price remains relatively higher compared to the declining earnings.

Option B is answer.

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For the Oil Change, the random number interval assigned to the Service Time 15 minutes is
0.0000-0.2999
0.3000-0.6999
0.7000-0.8999
0.9000-0.9999
None of the above

Answers

For an oil change, the random number interval assigned to the service time of 15 minutes is 0.7000-0.8999, hence the correct answer is option C)

For an oil change, the random number interval assigned to the service time of 15 minutes is 0.7000-0.8999. This means that when a customer comes in for an oil change, the system will randomly generate a number between 0.7000 and 0.8999. This number will then be used to determine the service time for the oil change. The reason for using a random number interval is to ensure that the service times are distributed evenly and fairly among customers. This method prevents any one customer from receiving preferential treatment over another, as the service time is determined by chance. By using a random number interval for the oil change service time, the system can also account for unforeseen circumstances that may affect the service time, such as a particularly dirty or difficult oil change. This ensures that the service times remain accurate and fair, even in situations that may be out of the control of the service provider. Overall, the use of a random number interval for the oil change service time is an effective way to ensure fairness and accuracy in the service provided to customers. Therefore the answer is correct option C)

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in an insurance market, moral hazard exists chiefly because of
group of answer choices economies of scale. adverse selection.
diseconomies of scale. private information. public information.

Answers

In an insurance market, moral hazard exists chiefly because of "private information."

Moral hazard refers to the situation where individuals or entities change their behavior in a way that increases the likelihood of incurring losses or making claims, once they are insured. This change in behavior occurs due to the asymmetric information between the insured party and the insurer.

Private information plays a significant role in creating moral hazard. When individuals have private information about their own behavior, actions, or risk exposure that the insurer does not know, they may engage in riskier behavior knowing that the potential costs or consequences will be covered by insurance.

For example, in the context of health insurance, if individuals know that their medical expenses will be fully covered by insurance, they may engage in riskier behaviors or neglect preventive measures, leading to higher healthcare costs for the insurer.

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Shonna prefers to remain fairly hands-off as the manager of a digital design firm. Most of her employees are self-sufficient and need little to no
instruction from her. Based on this, what management style does Shonna employ?
A. hypercritical
B. autonomous
C. autocratic
OD. laissez-faire

Answers

Most of her employees are self-sufficient and need little to no instruction from her. Based on this, the management style that Shonna employs is laissez-faire. The correct option is d.

Laissez-faire management style, often referred to as a "hands-off" leadership approach, is a management technique in which a manager offers little to no guidance to his or her team and allows them to work independently. A laissez-faire approach to leadership is characterised by the absence of leadership and the presence of hands-off leadership.A laissez-faire leader, like Shonna in the given question, may entrust responsibilities to his or her employees and delegate tasks to them without providing clear instructions or guidance on how to complete them.

Employees are given the freedom to make their own decisions and to work independently in a laissez-faire management style. Shonna may only be available when asked by her team members, and she may provide advice or input when necessary, but she generally remains hands-off. Therefore, Shonna employs the laissez-faire management style.

To summarize, laissez-faire management style refers to a leadership approach in which the manager or leader is hands-off and offers little to no guidance to the team. Employees are given the freedom to work independently and to make decisions. Shonna's employees are self-sufficient, which shows that Shonna trusts and values their abilities. The correct option is d.

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Online retail purchases by consumers can be the result of several very different approaches, which include: (1) paying dues to become a member of an online discount service; (2) participating in an online auction; (3) going directly to online malls; and (4) _______.
​becoming a member of a research group that evaluates new products
​using a shopping "bot" to search for a product at locations with the best price
​participating in a buying cooperative
​becoming a secret shopper

Answers

The missing option to complete the list of approaches for online retail purchases is:

- Using a shopping "bot" to search for a product at locations with the best price

Using a shopping "bot" refers to employing automated software or tools that search various online retailers to find the best price for a specific product. These bots compare prices across different websites, helping consumers find the most cost-effective option for their desired item.

Therefore, the complete list of approaches for online retail purchases is:

1) Paying dues to become a member of an online discount service

2) Participating in an online auction

3) Going directly to online malls

4) Using a shopping "bot" to search for a product at locations with the best price

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dewey's decision making in groups, what step would you reach criteria through consensus and record criteria?

Answers

In Dewey's decision making in groups, the step where criteria are reached through consensus and recorded is the step of establishing criteria.

Dewey's decision making in groups involves a systematic process of reaching decisions through collective deliberation and consensus. One of the crucial steps in this process is the establishment of criteria for evaluating potential solutions or options. During this step, group members engage in discussions and collaborative efforts to identify and agree upon the criteria that will be used to evaluate the available alternatives.

Reaching criteria through consensus means that the group members collectively discuss, negotiate, and agree on the specific criteria that will be used to assess the options under consideration. This consensus-building process ensures that all participants have a say in determining the evaluation criteria, promoting inclusivity and shared decision-making.

Once the criteria are agreed upon, the group records them to establish a clear and transparent framework for decision making. Recording the criteria helps in ensuring that they are accurately captured and can be referred to throughout the decision-making process. It provides a reference point for evaluating and comparing different alternatives based on the established criteria, facilitating a systematic and objective approach to decision making in groups.

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A project manager is recommending corrective actions related to risk. which of the following processes is the project manager involved in?
A. Perform Integraled Change
B. Control Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks D. Monitor Risks

Answers

A project manager is recommending corrective actions related to risk. The project manager involved in Control Plan Risk Responses.

The project manager is involved in the process of Control Plan Risk Responses. This process focuses on implementing the planned risk response strategies and taking corrective actions when necessary to address identified risks.

By recommending corrective actions related to risk, the project manager is actively monitoring and assessing the effectiveness of the implemented risk responses.

This process involves tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, and evaluating the overall risk management effectiveness throughout the project lifecycle. It ensures that the project remains on track and that risks are appropriately addressed to minimize their impact on project objectives.

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