During the same Olympics, Bolt also set the world record in the 200-m dash with a time of 19.30 s. Using the same assumptions as for the 100-m dash, what was his maximum speed for this race

Answer: -5×10-3

Explanation:

E=kq/r

Explanation:

Given:

[tex]\omega_0[/tex] = 10 rev/s = [tex]20\pi\:\text{rad/s}[/tex]

[tex]\omega[/tex] = 15 rev/s = [tex]30\pi\:\text{rad/s}[/tex]

[tex]\theta[/tex] = 60 rev = [tex]120\pi\:\text{rads}[/tex]

a) the angular acceleration [tex]\alpha[/tex] is given by

[tex]\alpha = \dfrac{\omega^2 - \omega_0^2}{2\theta}[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:\:\:=\dfrac{(30\pi)^2 - (20\pi)^2}{240\pi} = 6.5\:\text{rad/s}^2[/tex]

b) [tex]t = \dfrac{\omega - \omega_0}{\alpha} = \dfrac{30\pi - 20\pi}{6.5} = 4.8\:\text{s}[/tex]

c) [tex]t = \dfrac{\omega - \omega_0}{\alpha}[/tex]

[tex]=\dfrac{20\pi - 0}{6.5} = 9.7\:\text{s}[/tex]

d)[tex]\theta = \frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:\:\:=\frac{1}{2}(6.5\:\text{rad/s}^2)(9.7\:\text{s})^2 = 305.8\:\text{rad}[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:\:\:= 48.7\:\text{revs}[/tex]

Answer:

The angle between the electric field lines and the equipotential surface is 90 degree.

Explanation:

The equipotential surfaces are the surface on which the electric potential is same. The work done in moving a charge from one point to another on an equipotential surface is always zero.

The electric field lines are always perpendicular to the equipotential surface.

As

[tex]dV = \overrightarrow{E} . d\overrightarrow{r}\\\\[/tex]

For equipotential surface, dV = 0 so

[tex]0 = \overrightarrow{E} . d\overrightarrow{r}\\\\[/tex]

The dot product of two non zero vectors is zero, if they are perpendicular to each other.

Answer:

0.013 m/min

Explanation:

Applying,

dV/dt = (dh/dt)(dV/dh)............. Equation 1

Where

V = πr²h................ Equation 2

Where V = volume of the tank, r = radius, h = height.

dV/dh = πr²............ Equation 3

Substitute equation 3 into equation 1

dV/dt = πr²(dh/dt)

From the question,

Given: dV/dt = 2 m³/min, r = 7 m, π = 3.14

Substitute these values into equation 3

2 = (3.14)(7²)(dh/dt)

dh/dt = 2/(3.14×7²)

dh/dt = 0.013 m/min

Answer:

g₂ = 11 m/s²

Explanation:

The value of free-fall acceleration on the surface of a planet is given by the following formula:

[tex]g = \frac{Gm}{r^2}[/tex]

where,

g = free-fall acceleration

G = Universal Gravitational Constant

m = mass of the planet

r = radius of planet

FOR PLANET 1:

[tex]g_1 = \frac{Gm_1}{r_1^2}\\\\\frac{Gm_1}{r_1^2} = 22 m/s^2[/tex] --------------------- equation (1)

FOR PLANET 2:

[tex]g_2 = \frac{Gm_2}{r_2^2}\\\\g_2 = \frac{G(2m_1)}{(2r_1)^2}\\\\g_2 = \frac{1}{2}\frac{Gm_1}{r_1^2}\\\\[/tex]

using equation (1):

[tex]g_2 = \frac{g_1}{2}\\\\g_2 = \frac{22\ m/s^2}{2}[/tex]

g₂ = 11 m/s²

Answer:

Elements have a characteristic number of electrons and protons.Both Hydrogen(H) and oxygen(O) are two different elements.

••••••••••••••••

Compounds are chemical substances where the atoms atoms of two different elements are combined together. It is made of .Hydrogen(H) and Oxygen(O) both qr4 naturally gases,but they react to form water(H2O),which is liquid compound.

•••••••••••••••

A mixture is made of atleast two parts》 solid,liquid or gas.The difference is that it's not a chemical substance that's bonded by other elements. 

------------------------------

Hope it helps...

Have a great day!!!

Answer: Elements have a characteristic number of electrons and protons. Both Hydrogen(H) and oxygen(O) are two different elements. Compounds are chemical substances where the atoms atoms of two different elements are combined together. It is made of.Hydrogen(H) and Oxygen(O) both qr4 naturally gases, but they react to form water(H2O), which is liquid compound. A mixture is made of at least two parts solid, liquid, or gas. The difference is that it's not a chemical substance that's bonded by other elements.

Answer:

c. 250k

Explanation:

The temperature of the sink is approximately 250 K.

To find the temperature of the sink, we can use the formula for the efficiency of a heat engine:

Efficiency = 1 - (Temperature of Sink / Temperature of Source)

Given that the temperature of the source (T_source) is 500 K and the source energy (Q_source) is 2003 J, and the sink energy (Q_sink) is 100 J, we can rearrange the formula to solve for the temperature of the sink (T_sink):

Efficiency = (Q_source - Q_sink) / Q_source

Efficiency = (2003 J - 100 J) / 2003 J

Efficiency = 1903 J / 2003 J

Efficiency = 0.9497

Now, plug the efficiency back into the first equation to solve for T_sink:

0.9497 = 1 - (T_sink / 500 K)

T_sink / 500 K = 1 - 0.9497

T_sink / 500 K = 0.0503

Now, isolate T_sink:

T_sink = 0.0503 * 500 K

T_sink = 25.15 K

Since the temperature should be in Kelvin, we round down to the nearest whole number, which is 25 K. Thus, the temperature of the sink is approximately 250 K.

To learn more about sink energy, here

https://brainly.com/question/10483137

#SPJ2

Answer:

a

Explanation:

The rate of change of an object's location with relation to a reference point is its velocity, which is dependent on time. when an object is dropped from space at rest (t = 0) under the influence of gravity, the velocity of the object changes and increases with time while the acceleration decreases.

Answer:

2.80N/m

Explanation:

Given data

mass m= 56kg

perios T= 11.2s

The expression for the period is given as

T=2π√m/k

Substitute

11.2= 2*3.142*√56/k

square both sides

11.2^2= 2*3.142*56/k

125.44= 351.904/k

k=351.904/125.44

k= 2.80N/m

Hence the spring constant is 2.80N/m

Answer:

The current across the resistance is 0.011 A.

Explanation:

Total resistance, R = 25 ohms

Total current, I = 100 mA = 0.1 A

Let the voltage is V.

By the Ohm's law

V = I R

V = 0.1 x 25 = 2.5 V

Now the resistance is R' = 220 ohm

As they are in parallel so the voltage is same. Let the current is I'.

V = I' x R'

2.5 = I' x 220

I' = 0.011 A

Answer:

5.25 m/s to the east

Explanation:

Applying,

MV = mv.............. Equation 1

Where M = mass of the launcher, V = recoil velocity of the launcher, m = mass of the balloon, v = velocity of the balloon

make V the subject of the equation

V = mv/M............ Equation 2

From the question,

M = 2 kg, m = 0.75 kg, v = 14 m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

V = (0.75×14)/2

V = 5.25 m/s to the east

Answer:

The force on the side is 5252 N.

Explanation:

Area, A =  8 in x 10 in = 80 in^2 = 0.052 m^2

height, h = 10 in

The force on the area is

F = P x A

where, P is the atmospheric pressure and A is the area.  

P = 1.01 x 10^5 Pa

Force = 1.01 x10^5 x 0.052 = 5252 N

Answer:

North

Explanation:

Friction is a reaction force against the direction of movement. So since the direction of movement is south the friction would be opposite and move north.

Answer:

South To North

Explanation:

Frictional force acts in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of a body. Because the object is moving from north to south, the direction of frictional force is from south to north

Answer:

Option (e)

Explanation:

A body executing SHM moves to and fro or back and forth  about its mean position.

When the particle is at mean position, its velocity is maximum and when it is at extreme position its velocity is zero.

So, when it is at maximum distance:

a.

The acceleration is maximum.

b.

The potential energy is maximum.

c.

The total mechanical energy is non zero.

d.

The kinetic energy is zero.

e. The speed is zero. Correct

Answer:

[tex]{ \tt{check \: in \: the \: pic}}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]6.63\times 10^8\ N/C[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

The magnitude of magnetic field, B = 2.21

We need to find the magnitude of the electric field. Let it is E. So,

[tex]\dfrac{E}{B}=c\\\\E=Bc[/tex]

Put all the values,

[tex]E=2.21\times 3\times 10^8\\\\=6.63\times 10^8\ N/C[/tex]

So, the magnitude of the electric field is equal to [tex]6.63\times 10^8\ N/C[/tex].

Answer:

The current is 0.67 A.

Explanation:

Density, J = 1 A/m^2

Area, A = 1 m^2

Let the radius is r. And outer is R.

Use the formula of current density

[tex]I = \int J dA = \int J 2\pi r dr\\\\I = \int_{0}^{R}\frac{2\pi r^2}{R} dr\\\\I = \frac{2 \pi R^2}{3}.... (1)Now A = \pi R^2\\\\1 =\pi R^2\\\\R^2 = \frac{1}{\pi}\\\\So, \\\\I = \frac{2\pi}{3}\times \frac{1}{\pi}\\\\I = 0.67 A[/tex]

Answer:

F = 6666.7 N

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of a chip, m = 0.1 mg

Initial speed, u = 0

Final speed,[tex]v=4\times 10^{3}\ m/s[/tex]

Time of collision,[tex]t=6\times 10^{-8}\ s[/tex]

We know that,

Force, F = ma

Put all the values,

[tex]F=\dfrac{m(v-u)}{t}\\\\F=\dfrac{0.1\times 10^{-6}\times (4\times 10^3-0)}{6\times 10^{-8}}\\\\F=6666.7\ N[/tex]

So, the required force is 6666.7 N.

Explanation:

Given

Ball is projected horizontally from a building of height [tex]h=19.6\ m[/tex]

time taken to reach ground is given by

[tex]\text{Cosidering vertical motion}\\\Rightarrow h=ut+0.5at^2\\\Rightarrow 19.6=0+0.5\times 9.8t^2\\\Rightarrow t^2=4\\\Rightarrow t=2\ s[/tex]

(b) Line joining the point of projection and the point where it hits the ground makes an angle of [tex]45^{\circ}[/tex]

From the figure, it can be written

[tex]\Rightarrow \tan 45^{\circ}=\dfrac{h}{x}\\\\\Rightarrow x=h\cdot 1\\\Rightarrow x=19.6[/tex]

Considering horizontal motion

[tex]\Rightarrow x=u_xt\\\Rightarrow 19.6=u_x\times 4\\\Rightarrow u_x=4.9\ m/s[/tex]

(c) The vertical velocity with which it strikes the ground is given by

[tex]\Rightarrow v^2-u_y^2=2as\\\Rightarrow v^2-0=2\times 9.8\times 19.6\\\Rightarrow v=\sqrt{384.16}\\\Rightarrow v=19.6\ m/s[/tex]

Thus, the ball strikes with a vertical velocity of [tex]19.6\ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Given

Ball is projected horizontally from a building of height  

time taken to reach ground is given by

(b) Line joining the point of projection and the point where it hits the ground makes an angle of  

From the figure, it can be written

Considering horizontal motion

(c) The vertical velocity with which it strikes the ground is given by

Thus, the ball strikes with a vertical velocity of

Hi there!

a.

Use the formula d = st to solve:

d = 20 × 0.5 = 10m

150 - 10 = 140m away when brakes are applied

b.

Use the following kinematic equation to solve:

vf² = vi² + 2ad

Plug in known values:

0 = 20² + 2(150)(a)

Solve:

0 = 400 + 300a

-300a = 400

a = -4/3 (≈ -1.33) m/s² required

c.

Use the following kinematic equation to solve:

vf = vi + at

0 = 20 - 4/3t

Solve:

4/3t = 20

Multiply both sides by 3/4 for ease of solving:

t = 15 sec

Answer: The force on a negative charge that is placed midway between two equal positive charges is zero when all charges have the same magnitude.

Explanation:

Let us assume that

[tex]q_{1} = q_{2} = +q[/tex]

[tex]q_{3} = -q[/tex]

As [tex]q_{3}[/tex] is the negative charge and placed midway between two equal positive charges ([tex]q_{1}[/tex] and [tex]q_{2}[/tex]).

Total distance between [tex]q_{1}[/tex] and [tex]q_{2}[/tex] is 2r. This means that the distance between [tex]q_{1}[/tex] and [tex]q_{3}[/tex], [tex]q_{2}[/tex] and [tex]q_{3}[/tex] = d = r

Now, force action on charge [tex]q_{3}[/tex] due to [tex]q_{1}[/tex] is as follows.

[tex]F_{31} = k(\frac{q_{1} \times q_{3}}{d^{2}})[/tex]

where,

k = electrostatic constant = [tex]9 \times 10^{9} Nm^{2}/C^{2}[/tex]

Substitute the values into above formula as follows.

[tex]F_{31} = k(\frac{q_{1} \times q_{3}}{d^{2}})\\= 9 \times 10^{9} (\frac{q \times (-q)}{r^{2}})\\= - 9 \times 10^{9} (\frac{q^{2}}{r^{2}})[/tex] ... (1)

Similarly, force acting on [tex]q_{3}[/tex] due to [tex]q_{1}[/tex] is as follows.

[tex]F_{32} = k \frac{q_{2}q_{3}}{d^{2}}\\= -9 \times 10^{9} \frac{q^{2}}{r^{2}}\\[/tex]   ... (2)

As both the forces represented in equation (1) and (2) are same and equal in magnitude. This means that the net force acting on charge [tex]q_{3}[/tex] is zero.

Thus, we can conclude that the force on a negative charge that is placed midway between two equal positive charges is zero when all charges have the same magnitude.

Answer:

7.9 [tex]\frac{m}{s^{2} }[/tex]

Explanation:

Take the fact that mass is inversely proportional to accelertation:

m ∝ a

Therefore m = a, but because we are finding the change in acceleration, we would set our problem up to look more like this:

[tex]\frac{m_{1} }{m_{2} } = \frac{a_{2} }{a_{1} } \\[/tex]

Using algebra, we can rearrange our equation to find the final acceleration, [tex]a_{2}[/tex]:

[tex]a_{2} = \frac{a_{1}*m_{1} }{m_{2} } \\[/tex]

Before plugging everything in, since you are being asked to find acceleration, you will want to convert 0.85g to m/s^2. To do this, multiply by g, which is equal to 9.8 m/s^2:

0.85g * 9.8 [tex]\frac{m }{s^{2} }[/tex] = 8.33 [tex]\frac{m }{s^{2} }[/tex]

Plug everything in:

7.9 [tex]\frac{m }{s^{2} }[/tex] = [tex]\frac{ 8.33\frac{m}{s^{2} }*1510kg }{1590kg}[/tex]

(1590kg the initial weight plus the weight of the added passenger)

Answer:

a) [tex]a_{avg}=1.25ft/s^2[/tex]

b) [tex]v_b=13.35ft/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Speed at point A [tex]v_A=10.6ft/s[/tex]

Speed at point C [tex]v_C=15.6ft/s[/tex]

Time from Point A to C [tex]T_{ac}=4.00s[/tex]

Time from Point B to C [tex]T_{bc}=1.80s[/tex]

Generally the equation for acceleration From A to B is mathematically given by

 [tex]a_{avg}=\frac{v_c-v_a}{\triangle t}[/tex]

 [tex]a_{avg}=\frac{15.6-10.6}{4.0 }[/tex]

 [tex]a_{avg}=1.25ft/s^2[/tex]

Generally the equation for cart speed at B is mathematically given by

 [tex]a_{avg}=\frac{v_c-v_a}{T_{bc}}[/tex]

 [tex]v_b=v_c-a_{avg}*T_{bc}[/tex]

 [tex]v_b=15.6ft/s-(1.25ft/s^2)(1.80)[/tex]

  [tex]v_b=13.35ft/s[/tex]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

With the gravitational pull that our planets have, we are able to remain in orbit. This demonstrates how every object in the galaxy is attracted to every other object. Every object in the universe that has mass exerts a gravitational pull on every other mass. We as humans do it too, but since our force isn't strong, we don't have much of an effect. I hope this helped and please don't hesitate to reach out with more questions!

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

High-speed stroboscopic photographs show that the head of a 200 g golf club is traveling at 60 m/s just before it strikes a  50 g golf ball at rest on a tee. After the collision, the club head travels (in the same direction) at 40 m/s. Find the speed of the golf ball just after impact.

Solution :

We know that momentum = mass x velocity

The momentum of the golf club before impact = 0.200 x 60

                                                                             = 12 kg m/s

The momentum of the ball before impact is zero. So the total momentum before he impact is 12 kg m/s. Therefore, due to the conservation of momentum of the two bodies after the impact is 12 kg m/s.

Now the momentum of the club after the impact is = 0.2 x 40

                                                                                    = 8 kg m/s

Therefore the momentum of the ball is = 12 - 8

                                                                = 4 kg m/s

We know momentum of the ball, p = mass x velocity

                                                     4 = 0.050 x velocity

∴ Velocity =  [tex]$\frac{4}{0.050}$[/tex]

                 = 80 m/s

Hence the speed of the golf ball after the impact is 80 m/s.

Answer:

Soft iron

Explanation:

Answer:

5.04 m

Explanation:

You are told that the homeowner wants to increase their fences by 34 percent meaning Original+ 34 percent. If the original is 100 percent, then the new fence size will be 134 % of the original. You are given the original which is 3.76 meters, to find new fence size 1.34 * 3.76m to get 5.0384 meters, rounded to 5.04 m.

Answer:

5.0384m

Explanation:

% increase = 100 x (Final - Initial / | initial | )

( |~~| Bars indicate absolute value since you can't have a negative height)

Answer:

n.m maby

Explanation:

i think or its kg m/s

Answer:

answer (B) & (C)

Explanation:

kg • /N • s

Answer: I think its A or C I'm not sure though sorry.