during an episode of turbulence in an airplane you feel 210 n heavier than usual. part a if your mass is 71 kg , what are the magnitude and direction of the airplane’s acceleration?

The pressure drop due to the Bernoulli effect as water goes into the nozzle from the fire hose is approximately 28,107 N/m².

To calculate the pressure drop due to the Bernoulli effect as water goes into a nozzle from a fire hose, we can use the principle of continuity and the Bernoulli equation.

The principle of continuity states that the mass flow rate of an incompressible fluid is constant along a streamline. It can be expressed as:

A1v1 = A2v2

Where A1 and A2 are the cross-sectional areas of the fire hose and the nozzle respectively, and v1 and v2 are the velocities of the water at those points.

Given that the diameter of the fire hose is 9.10 cm (radius r1 = 4.55 cm) and the diameter of the nozzle is 3.10 cm (radius r2 = 1.55 cm), we can calculate the velocities:

v1 = Q / A1

v2 = Q / A2

Where Q is the flow rate and A1 = πr1² and A2 = πr2².

Converting the flow rate from L/s to m³/s:

Q = 45.0 L/s = 0.045 m³/s

Calculating the velocities:

v1 = (0.045 m³/s) / (π(0.0455 m)²) ≈ 1.372 m/s

v2 = (0.045 m³/s) / (π(0.0155 m)²) ≈ 8.832 m/s

Now, using the Bernoulli equation:

P1 + 0.5ρv1² = P2 + 0.5ρv2²

Where P1 and P2 are the pressures at the fire hose and nozzle respectively, and ρ is the density of water (approximately 1000 kg/m³).

Rearranging the equation to solve for the pressure drop (P1 - P2):

P1 - P2 = 0.5ρ(v2² - v1²)

Substituting the values:

P1 - P2 = 0.5(1000 kg/m³)(8.832² - 1.372²) ≈ 28,107 N/m²

You can learn more about the Bernoulli effect at: brainly.com/question/15377953

#SPJ11

The speed of each ball is 19.25 m/s.

The translational angular momentum of ball 1 is  3.34375 kg·m²/s

The angular momentum and kinetic energy for thus object is as follows:

:I: Treat the object as two separate balls

(a) The speed of each ball can be calculated using the formula v = ωr, where ω is the angular speed and r is the distance from the axis of rotation. Since each ball is at the end of the rod, the distance r for each ball is half the length of the rod, or 0.175 m. Thus, the speed of each ball is:

v = ωr = (110 rad/s)(0.175 m) = 19.25 m/s

(b) The translational angular momentum of ball 1 is given by L = r x p, where r is the position vector relative to the axis of rotation and p is the momentum vector.

Since ball 1 is at the end of the rod, its position vector is perpendicular to the rod and has magnitude equal to the length of the rod, or 0.35 m. The momentum vector has magnitude m1v1, where m1 is the mass of ball 1 and v1 is its speed. Thus, the translational angular momentum of ball 1 is:

|Ltrans,1, A| = r m1v1 = (0.35 m)(0.5 kg)(19.25 m/s) = 3.34375 kg·m²/s

(c) The translational angular momentum of ball 2 is the same as that of ball 1, since they are symmetrically positioned relative to the axis of rotation:

|Ltrans,2, A| = |Ltrans,1, A| = 3.34375 kg·m²/s

(d) The total angular momentum of the barbell is the vector sum of the translational angular momenta of the two balls:

|Ltot, A| = |Ltrans,1, A| + |Ltrans,2, A| = 2 |Ltrans,1, A| = 6.6875 kg·m²/s

(e) The translational kinetic energy of ball 1 is given by K = ½ mv², where m is the mass of the ball and v is its speed:

Ktrans,1 = ½ m1v1² = ½ (0.5 kg)(19.25 m/s)² = 90.2656 J

(f) The translational kinetic energy of ball 2 is the same as that of ball 1:

Ktrans,2 = Ktrans,1 = 90.2656 J

(g) The total kinetic energy of the barbell is the sum of the translational kinetic energies of the two balls:

Ktotal = Ktrans,1 + Ktrans,2 = 2 Ktrans,1 = 180.5312 J

II: Treat the object as one barbell

(h) The moment of inertia I of the barbell can be calculated using the formula I = Σmr², where Σ denotes the sum over all the mass elements in the object. In this case, the barbell can be approximated as a thin rod with two point masses at the ends, so the moment of inertia is:

I = md²/12 + 2m(d/2)² = 0.022917 kg·m²

(i) The direction of the angular velocity vector is into the page, since the barbell is rotating clockwise.

(j) The rotational angular momentum of the barbell can be calculated using the formula |Lrot| = Iω, where ω is the angular velocity:

|Lrot| = Iω = (0.022917 kg·m²)(110 rad/s) = 2.52087 kg·m²/s

(k) The rotational angular momentum vector points into the page, since the angular velocity vector is into the page and the right-hand rule is used to determine the direction of the angular momentum vector.

(l) The total angular momentum of the barbell is the vector sum of the translational and rotational angular momenta:

|Ltot, B| = |Ltrans, B| + |Lrot| = 6.6875 kg·m²/s + 2.52087 kg·m²/s = 9.20837 kg·m²/s

(m) The total kinetic energy of the barbell can be calculated using the formula K = ½ Iω² + ½ Σmv², where the first term represents the rotational kinetic energy and the second term represents the translational kinetic energy of the object:

Ktotal = ½ Iω² + Σ½ mv² = ½ (0.022917 kg·m²)(110 rad/s)² + 2(½ (0.5 kg)(19.25 m/s)²) = 200.424 J

(n) The ratio of the translational kinetic energy to the total kinetic energy is given by Ktrans / Ktotal:

Ktrans / Ktotal = (2 Ktrans,1) / (½ Iω² + 2 Ktrans,1) = (2)(90.2656 J) / (½ (0.022917 kg·m²)(110 rad/s)² + 2(90.2656 J)) ≈ 0.894

To learn more about inertia, refer below:

https://brainly.com/question/3268780

#SPJ11

The prescription for the refractive power of the corrective contact lenses for a person with far points of 7.5 m from the right eye and 5.8 m from the left eye is -0.13 D (or nearest available power) for the right eye and -0.17 D (or nearest available power) for the left eye assuming no cylinder correction is needed.

To determine the refractive power of corrective contact lenses for a person with far points of 7.5 m from the right eye and 5.8 m from the left eye, we need to calculate the spherical equivalent (SE) of the person's refractive error.

SE = sphere + 0.5 * cylinder

where sphere is the spherical power of the lens needed to correct the refractive error, and cylinder is the cylindrical power (if any) needed to correct for astigmatism.

Assuming no cylinder correction is needed, the SE can be calculated as follows:

SE_right = (1 / (-7.5 m)) * 1000 mm/m = -0.133 D

SE_left = (1 / (-5.8 m)) * 1000 mm/m = -0.172 D

Therefore, the prescription for the refractive power of the corrective contact lenses would be:

(a) Right eye: -0.13 D (or nearest available power)

(b) Left eye: -0.17 D (or nearest available power)

Note: The prescription for corrective lenses would need to be written by an eye care professional after a thorough eye examination to determine the person's full refractive error and any other visual needs.

To know more about the refractive power refer here :

https://brainly.com/question/31472966#

#SPJ11  

The third charge is -18 nC. The negative sign of q3 indicates that it has an opposite charge to the other two particles.

The electric potential energy of the three charged particles is zero because the particles are arranged in a way that the forces between them cancel out.

To solve this problem, we can use the formula for electric potential energy: U = k * (q1 * q2 / r12 + q1 * q3 / r13 + q2 * q3 / r23)

where U is the electric potential energy, k is Coulomb's constant, q1, q2, and q3 are the charges of the particles, and r12, r13, and r23 are the distances between the particles.

Since the electric potential energy of the three charged particles is zero, we can write: 0 = k * (4.5 * q2 / r12 + q3 * 4.5 / r13 + q2 * q3 / r23) and 0 = k * (9.0 * q1 / r12 + q3 * 9.0 / r23 + q1 * q3 / r13)

We also know that the triangle is equilateral, so r12 = r13 = r23 = 2.0 cm. Substituting the distances and charges into the equations and simplifying, we get: 0 = 4.5q2 / 2 + q3 * 4.5 / 2 + q2 * q3 / 2, 0 = 9.0q1 / 2 + q3 * 9.0 / 2 + q1 * q3 / 2

Solving for q3 in either equation gives: q3 = - 9q1 - 9q2 / 4.5. Substituting q1 = q2 = 4.5 nC gives: q3 = -18 nC. Therefore, the third charge is -18 nC.

To know more about potential energy, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/15764612#

#SPJ11

The respective horizontal and vertical components of the football are 7.47 m/s and 16.47 m/s. It can be calculated using trigonometry.

When an object is launched or thrown at an angle, we can break down its initial velocity into two components: the horizontal component and the vertical component.

The horizontal component of velocity determines the object's horizontal motion, while the vertical component of velocity determines the object's vertical motion.

The horizontal and vertical components of a football kicked with a speed of 18 m/s at an angle of 65° to the horizontal can be calculated using trigonometry.

The horizontal component can be found by multiplying the initial speed by the cosine of the angle:  horizontal component = 18 m/s x cos(65°) = 7.47 m/s.The vertical component can be found by multiplying the initial speed by the sine of the angle:  vertical component = 18 m/s x sin(65°) = 16.47 m/s.

To know more about trigonometry, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/14272510#

#SPJ11

You need to change the box length by a factor of sqrt(50) to decrease the zero point energy by a factor of 50 for a fixed value of m.

To decrease the zero point energy by a factor of 50 for a fixed value of mass (m), you need to change the box length according to the following relationship:

Zero point energy (E₀) is given by the formula: E₀ = (h²/8mL²)

Where h is Planck's constant, m is the mass, and L is the box length. Since we want to decrease E₀ by a factor of 50:

E₀' = E₀ / 50 = (h²/8mL²) / 50

Now, let's find the new box length (L'):

E₀' = (h²/8mL'²)

Combining the two equations:

(h²/8mL'²) = (h²/8mL²) / 50

Simplify and solve for L':

L'² = 50L²

L' = sqrt(50L²) = L * sqrt(50)

So, you need to change the box length by a factor of sqrt(50) to decrease the zero point energy by a factor of 50 for a fixed value of m.

To learn more about length, refer below:

https://brainly.com/question/9842733

#SPJ11

The maximum angular speed of the ball is 2.12 rad/s. If the rope is shortened, the radius will decrease.

Part A:
To find the maximum angular speed of the ball, we need to first find the maximum centripetal force that the rope can provide before breaking. The centripetal force (Fc) is given by:
Fc = (mass x velocity^2) / radius
where mass = 0.57kg (mass of the tether ball), radius = 4.3m (length of the rope), and we need to solve for velocity.
We know that the tension in the rope (T) provides the centripetal force, so we can set Fc = T:
T = (0.57kg x velocity^2) / 4.3m
We also know that the maximum tension the rope can withstand is 11 N, so we can set T = 11 N and solve for velocity:
11 N = (0.57kg x velocity^2) / 4.3m
velocity^2 = (11 N x 4.3m) / 0.57kg
velocity^2 = 82.81
velocity = sqrt(82.81)
velocity = 9.1 m/s
Now that we have the velocity, we can find the maximum angular speed (ω) using the formula:
ω = velocity / radius
ω = 9.1 m/s / 4.3m
ω = 2.12 rad/s
Part B:
If the rope is shortened, the radius will decrease, which means the centripetal force required to keep the ball moving in a circle will also decrease.
Since the maximum tension the rope can withstand remains the same, this means that the maximum velocity and maximum angular speed will also decrease. Therefore, the maximum angular speed found in part A will decrease if the rope is shortened.

To know more about speed visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/29100366

#SPJ11

The tungsten filament in an incandescent bulb does indeed get very hot, even though it's not as hot as the sun's surface.

Incandescent light bulbs work by passing an electric current through a tungsten filament, which heats up and produces light. The filament is designed to resist melting even at very high temperatures, and it can reach temperatures of around 3020 K (2747 °C or 4986 °F) when the bulb is turned on.

To put that temperature in perspective, the surface temperature of the sun is around 5778 K (5505 °C or 9941 °F), so the tungsten filament in an incandescent bulb does indeed get very hot, even though it's not as hot as the sun's surface.

Click the below link, to learn more about Temperature of tungsten filament:

https://brainly.com/question/15133292

#SPJ11

The plot visually represents the reciprocal lattice points and the lattice structure, providing insight into the behavior of electrons in the crystal lattice.

In solid-state physics, the Brillouin zone is a concept used to describe the behavior of electrons in a crystal lattice. For a two-dimensional lattice with lattice vectors a and b, the first Brillouin zone represents the region of reciprocal space that is enclosed by the boundaries defined by the lattice vectors.

In the case of a primitive rectangular lattice with axes a and b = 3a, the first Brillouin zone is a hexagonal shape.

To plot the first two Brillouin zones, one can start by plotting the boundaries of the first Brillouin zone, which forms a hexagon. Then, the second Brillouin zone can be plotted by connecting the midpoints of the edges of the first Brillouin zone.

The resulting plot will show the arrangement of reciprocal lattice points in the first and second Brillouin zones, providing a visual representation of the lattice structure and symmetry.

Learn more about plot

brainly.com/question/15579115

#SPJ11

The magnitude of the momentum of the combined object after the collision is 5mv. So the correct option is A) 5mv.

To solve this problem, we can use the principle of conservation of momentum. The total momentum before the collision should be equal to the total momentum after the collision, assuming no external forces are acting on the system.

Let's break down the velocities into their respective components:

Object 1:

Mass (m)

Velocity toward the east: 3v

Velocity components: 3v toward the east and 0v toward the north (since it's only moving horizontally)

Object 2:

Mass (2m)

Velocity toward the north: 2v

Velocity components: 0v toward the east (since it's only moving vertically) and 2v toward the north

To find the momentum of the combined object after the collision, we need to add the momentum vectors of the two objects.

Momentum of object 1 before the collision:

p1 = m * (3v) = 3mv toward the east

Momentum of object 2 before the collision:

p2 = (2m) * (2v) = 4mv toward the north

Now, let's add the momentum vectors:

p_total = p1 + p2

= 3mv (east) + 4mv (north)

Since these vectors are at right angles, we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitude of the total momentum:

Magnitude of total momentum:

|p_total| = [tex]\sqrt{3mv)^2 + (4mv)^2)}[/tex]

= [tex]\sqrt{9m^2v^2 + 16m^2v^2}[/tex]

= [tex]\sqrt{25m^2v^2}[/tex]

= 5mv

Learn more about momentum: https://brainly.com/question/30677308

#SPJ11

Hi! To calculate the resonance frequency of a series RLC circuit, you can use the formula:

f_r = 1 / (2 * π * √(L * C))

where f_r is the resonance frequency, L is the inductance (in henries) of the inductor, and C is the capacitance (in farads) of the capacitor.

Given the values, L = 122 mH = 0.122 H and C = 0.55 µF = 0.00000055 F. Plugging these into the formula:

f_r = 1 / (2 * π * √(0.122 * 0.00000055))
f_r ≈ 614 Hz

So the resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately 614 Hz, which corresponds to option B.

learn more about resonance frequencyhttps://brainly.in/question/19383097?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ11

a) Surface charge density on the metal disk = Charge on the disk / Surface area of the disk. b) Surface charge density on the glass = Charge on the glass / Surface area of the glass.

a) The surface charge density on the metal disk can be calculated by dividing the total charge on the disk by its surface area. The surface area of a disk can be determined using the formula A = πr², where r is the radius of the disk. Knowing the diameter (5.0 cm), we can find the radius (2.5 cm) and then calculate the surface area. Dividing the charge by the surface area gives us the surface charge density.b) Similarly, the surface charge density on the glass can be calculated by dividing the total charge on the glass by its surface area. The thickness of the glass (0.64 mm) is not relevant for calculating surface charge density, as it only affects the capacitance of the capacitor, not the surface charge density.

Learn more about metal disk here:

https://brainly.com/question/27858589

#SPJ11

For a solid, the partition function Z, mean energy Ē, and entropy S can be expressed as:

(a) In Z = -3Nln(1-e^(-OD/T))

(b) Ē = 3Nħwmax/4 + 3Nħwmax/[exp(OD/T)-1]

(c) S = (4/3)Nk[ln(3N)-ln(D(T))] + (3Nk/OD) ∫(0 to D/T) x³ / (e^x - 1) dx

The Debye approximation can be used to find the thermodynamic functions of a solid as a function of temperature T. Here is this question, N is the number of particles, ħ is the reduced Planck's constant, k is the Boltzmann constant, and D(T) is the Debye function given by:

D(T) = 3Vρ/(4π²v³) ∫(0 to vmax/v) x² / (e^x - 1) dx

where V is the volume, ρ is the density, v is the speed of sound, and vmax is the maximum speed of sound.

The Debye temperature OD can be expressed in terms of the speed of sound and density as:

OD = ħwmax/k = (vmax/v) ρ^(1/3) ħ/k

Therefore, the thermodynamic functions of a solid can be calculated using the Debye approximation and the given functions and parameters.

For more such questions on entropy:

https://brainly.com/question/13135498

#SPJ11

In this scenario, star A's habitable zone would generally be farther away than star B's habitable zone due to the higher luminosity of star A.

The habitable zone of a star is the region around the star where conditions are potentially suitable for the existence of liquid water on the surface of a planet. It is determined by the star's temperature and luminosity.

In this scenario, since star A emits twice as much heat and light as star B, it means that star A has a higher luminosity than star B. Luminosity refers to the total amount of energy radiated by a star per unit time.

The habitable zone of a star is generally located at a distance where the energy received from the star allows for the possibility of liquid water. The boundaries of the habitable zone depend on various factors, including the star's luminosity.

With star A having a higher luminosity, its habitable zone would typically be farther away compared to star B's habitable zone. This is because the higher luminosity of star A results in greater energy output, and to maintain suitable temperatures for liquid water, planets in its habitable zone would need to be located at greater distances where the energy received is balanced.

On the other hand, star B, with lower luminosity, would have a habitable zone that is relatively closer to the star since it emits less energy. Planets in star B's habitable zone would need to be closer to receive enough energy for liquid water to exist.

To know more about luminosity, please click on:

https://brainly.com/question/32108873

#SPJ11

The characteristics that apply to an ideal capacitor are;

Net charge is zero (0)

Can hold charge even if its circuit/network or device is powered‐off

Never loses charge if it isn’t used

An ideal capacitor does not depend on a chemical medium, that's more of a characteristic of a battery.

Capacitors are known to charge and discharge instantly, so "slow charging" is not a characteristic.

While capacitors can give high power in a very short time, it's not a characteristic that is commonly discussed of an "ideal" capacitors in theoretical physics or electronics.

Finally, capacitors store energy in an electric field, not a magnetic field.

An ideal capacitor said to be  a theoretical device that does not exist in reality.

Find more exercises on  ideal capacitor;

https://brainly.com/question/29287697

#SPJ1

Melting and vaporizing require input of energy, while freezing, condensing, subliming have a net output of energy.

Phase changes refer to the physical changes that matter undergoes when it transforms from one state to another. The process can either require the input of energy or release energy.

Melting and vaporizing are examples of phase changes that require the input of energy, as they need energy to break the bonds holding the molecules together.

On the other hand, freezing, condensing, and subliming are processes that have a net output of energy.

Freezing releases energy as molecules slow down and form solid bonds, while condensing releases energy as molecules come together to form a liquid.

Sublimation also releases energy as a solid changes directly to a gas without passing through the liquid phase.

For more such questions on energy, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/13881533

#SPJ11

To calculate the velocity of an electron with a momentum of 0.77 * [tex]10^{-21}[/tex]kg*m/s, we need to use the formula p = mv, where p is momentum, m is mass and v is velocity.  The velocity of the electron is approximately [tex]0.77 * 10^{10}[/tex] m/s.

The mass of an electron is [tex]9.11 * 10^-31 kg[/tex]. Therefore, we can rearrange the formula to solve for velocity:
v = p/m, Substituting the given values, we get:
[tex]v = 0.77 * 10^{-21}  kg*m/s / 9.11 * 10^{-31}  kg[/tex]
Simplifying this expression, we get :
[tex]v = 0.77 * 10^10 m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the velocity of the electron is approximately 0.77 * [tex]10^{10}[/tex] m/s. It is important to note that this velocity is much higher than the speed of light, which is the maximum velocity that can be achieved in the universe.

This is because the momentum of the electron is very small compared to its mass, which results in a very high velocity. This phenomenon is known as the wave-particle duality of matter, which describes how particles like electrons can have properties of both waves and particles.

Know more about momentum here:

https://brainly.com/question/30677308

#SPJ11

The speed of the electron is six times the speed it would have if it had classical momentum. To find the actual speed, we would need to know the mass of the electron and the classical momentum, but we can conclude that the electron is moving very fast!

To find the speed of the electron, we need to first understand what is meant by "classical momentum." Classical momentum is the product of an object's mass and velocity. In this case, the electron's classical momentum would be its mass multiplied by its velocity. However, we are given that the electron's momentum with magnitude is six times its classical momentum.
This means that the electron's actual momentum is six times larger than what would be expected based on its mass and velocity. To find the speed of the electron, we can use the equation for momentum: p = mv, where p is momentum, m is mass, and v is velocity.
Let's say the classical momentum of the electron is p_c. Then, we can write the equation for the electron's actual momentum as p = 6p_c. Since the mass of the electron is constant, we can solve for the velocity by dividing both sides of the equation by the mass:
p/m = 6p_c/m
v = 6v_c
where v_c is the velocity corresponding to the classical momentum p_c.
To know more about electron visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1255220

#SPJ11

Asteroid 1 is traveling faster relative to Earth, with a speed of 0.82c, while Asteroid 2 is traveling at a speed of 0.62c.

In this scenario, the speeds of the two asteroids relative to Earth are given in terms of "c", which represents the speed of light. A higher value for "c" means a faster speed. Since 0.82c is greater than 0.62c, Asteroid 1 is moving faster toward Earth than Asteroid 2.

Comparing the speeds of the two asteroids, we can conclude that Asteroid 1 is traveling at a faster speed relative to Earth than Asteroid 2.

To know more about speed , click here

https://brainly.com/question/28224010

#SPJ11

The charge enclosed by the box will be 1.90×[tex]10^{-8}[/tex] C.

The total electric flux from a cubical box of side 29.0 cm is given as 2.15×10^3 N⋅[tex]m^2[/tex]/C.

To determine the charge enclosed by the box, we can use Gauss's law, which states that the electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to the charge enclosed by that surface.

Mathematically, Gauss's law can be expressed as:

Φ = Q/ε0

where Φ is the electric flux, Q is the charge enclosed by the closed surface, and ε0 is the electric constant (8.85×[tex]10^{-12} N^-1m^{-2}C^{-2}[/tex]).

Since the cubical box is a closed surface, the electric flux passing through it is equal to the total electric flux given in the problem statement. Therefore, we can write:

Φ = 2.15×10^3 N⋅[tex]m^2[/tex]/C

Substituting the value of ε0, we get:

2.15×10^3 N⋅[tex]m^2[/tex]/C = Q / (8.85×[tex]10^{-12} N^{-1m}^{-2}C^{-2}[/tex])

Solving for Q, we get:

Q = Φ × ε0 = (2.15×10^3 N⋅[tex]m^2[/tex]/C) × (8.85×[tex]10^{-12} N^{-1m}^{-2}C^{-2}[/tex]) = 1.90×[tex]10^{-8}[/tex] C

Therefore, the charge enclosed by the cubical box is 1.90×[tex]10^{-8}[/tex] C.

For more such answers on Charge

https://brainly.com/question/18102056

#SPJ11

Question

The total electric flux from a cubical box of side 29.0 cm is 2.15×103 N⋅m2/C .

What charge is enclosed by the box?

The electric field on the surface of the cubical box is approximately 6990 N/C.

The terms we'll be using are electric flux (Φ), electric field (E), and surface area (A).
Step 1: Find the surface area of the cubical box.
The surface area of a cube can be calculated using the formula A = 6s², where s is the side length. In this case, s = 21.0 cm or 0.21 m.

A = 6 × (0.21 m)² = 6 × 0.0441 m² = 0.2646 m²

Step 2: Calculate the electric field using the formula for electric flux.
Electric flux (Φ) is the product of the electric field (E) and the surface area (A) through which the field passes. Therefore, E = Φ / A.

Given that the total electric flux (Φ) is 1.85 × 10³ N⋅m²/C, we can find the electric field (E):

E = (1.85 × 10³ N⋅m²/C) / (0.2646 m²)

E ≈ 6990 N/C

Learn more about electric flux brainly.com/question/14544020

#SPJ11

The correct statement is d) the electric field lines will decrease with distance when a charge is placed in an enlarged box.

When a charge is placed inside a box and the size of the box is enlarged, the electric field lines will spread out and decrease in density with increasing distance from the charge. This is because the electric field intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the charge.

The other statements are incorrect: a) the reading of the charge outside the box depends on the distance and shielding; b) the electric flux remains constant due to Gauss's Law; c) the electric potential can be zero inside the box if it's a Faraday cage; e) the electric potential and flux are not equal; f) the size of the box can affect electric potential and field lines.

Learn more about Gauss's Law here:

https://brainly.com/question/14767569

#SPJ11

The second-order bright band of a diffraction grating with 175 lines per mm forming an angle of [tex]13.5^0[/tex] is most likely violet.

The angle at which the bright band forms can be determined using the equation for diffraction: [tex]m\lamba = d sin\theta[/tex], where m is the order of the bright band,[tex]\lambda[/tex] is the wavelength of light, d is the spacing between the grating lines and [tex]\theta[/tex] is the angle. In this case, m = 2, d = 1/175 mm = 0.00571 mm, and [tex]\theta =[/tex] [tex]13.5^0[/tex].

Rearranging the equation, we have [tex]\lambda = d sin\theta / m[/tex]. Plugging in the values, we find [tex]\lambda = (0.00571 mm)(sin(13.5^0))/(2) = 0.001293 mm = 1.293 nm[/tex]. Comparing this value to the visible light spectrum, we find that violet light has a wavelength ranging from approximately 380 to 450 nm. Since the calculated wavelength of 1.293 nm falls within this range, it is most likely that the colour of the light is violet.

Learn more about diffraction here:

https://brainly.com/question/12290582

#SPJ11

After landing on an unfamiliar planet, a space explorer constructs a simple pendulum of length 47.0 cm.

The explorer finds that the pendulum completes 101 full swing cycles in a time of 126 s. To find the acceleration of gravity on this planet, follow these steps:

1. Determine the period (T) of the pendulum: Divide the total time (126 s) by the number of full swing cycles (101).

  T = 126 s / 101 = 1.2475 s

2. Convert the length of the pendulum (L) to meters: 47.0 cm = 0.47 m.

3. Use the formula for the period of a simple pendulum, which relates the period (T), length (L), and acceleration of gravity (g):

  T = 2π * √(L/g)

4. Rearrange the formula to solve for g:

  g = (4π²L) / T²

5. Plug in the values for L and T:

 g = (4π² * 0.47 m) / (1.2475 s)²

6. Calculate the acceleration of gravity on this planet:

  g ≈ 9.77 m/s²

The value of the acceleration of gravity on this planet is approximately 9.77 m/s².

To know more about  simple pendulum refer here

https://brainly.com/question/29183311#

#SPJ11

The circuit reaches its maximum current at a frequency of 1.22 kHz, where the current amplitude is 14.4 mA. When the angular frequency is 399 rad/s, the current amplitude increases to 57.4 mA, and there won't be a phase shift because the source voltage and current will be in phase.

Part A: The current in the circuit will be greatest when the reactance of the inductor is equal to the reactance of the capacitor.

Using the formula [tex]X_C = \frac{1}{\omega C}[/tex], we can solve for the frequency that satisfies this condition: [tex]f = \frac{1}{2\pi\sqrt{LC}} = \frac{1}{2\pi\sqrt{(0.398 \, \text{H})(4.92 \, \mu\text{F})}}[/tex] ≈ 1.22 kHz.

Part B: At the frequency calculated in Part A, the impedance of the circuit will be [tex]Z = \sqrt{R^2 + (X_L - X_C)^2} = \sqrt{(210 \, \Omega)^2 + \left(2\pi(1.22 \, \text{kHz})(0.398 \, \text{H}) - \frac{1}{2\pi(1.22 \, \text{kHz})(4.92 \, \mu\text{F})}\right)^2} \approx 215 \, \Omega[/tex]

The current amplitude can be calculated using Ohm's Law:

[tex]I = \frac{V}{Z} = \frac{3.09 \, \text{V}}{215 \, \Omega} \approx 14.4 \, \text{mA}[/tex]

Part C: The current amplitude at an angular frequency of 399 rad/s can be calculated in the same way: [tex]Z = \sqrt{R^2 + (X_L - X_C)^2} = \sqrt{(210 \, \Omega)^2 + \left(2\pi(399 \, \text{rad/s})(0.398 \, \text{H}) - \frac{1}{2\pi(399 \, \text{rad/s})(4.92 \, \mu\text{F})}\right)^2} \approx 53.9 \, \Omega[/tex]

The current amplitude can be calculated using Ohm's Law:

[tex]I = \frac{V}{Z} = \frac{3.09 \, \text{V}}{53.9 \, \Omega} \approx 57.4 \, \text{mA}[/tex]

Part D: At the frequency calculated in Part A, the reactance of the inductor and capacitor are equal, so they cancel out and the impedance of the circuit is purely resistive. Therefore, the source voltage will be in phase with the current and there will be no phase shift (neither leading nor lagging).

To know more about the current refer here :

https://brainly.com/question/13076734#

#SPJ11

The blood speed in the capillaries is much slower than in the arteriole

We can use the continuity equation to relate the speed of the blood in the arteriole to its cross-sectional area and flow rate:

[tex]A_1 * v_1 = A_2 * v_2[/tex]

where [tex]A_1[/tex] and [tex]A_2[/tex] are the cross-sectional areas of the arteriole and capillaries, respectively, and v1 and v2 are the speeds of the blood in the arteriole and capillaries, respectively.

We can start by converting the diameter of the arteriole to meters:

d1 = 0.080 mm = 8.0×[tex]10^-^5 m[/tex]

The cross-sectional area of the arteriole is:

A1 = π*[tex](d_1/2)^2[/tex] = π*(8.0×[tex]10^-^5/2)^2 = 5.03[/tex] × [tex]10^-^9 m^2[/tex]

The flow rate of blood in the arteriole is:

Q = 9.6×[tex]10^-^5 cm^3/s[/tex] = 9.6×[tex]10^-^8 m^3/s[/tex]

Using the flow rate and cross-sectional area of the arteriole, we can calculate the speed of the blood in the arteriole:

v1 = Q/A1 = (9.6×[tex]10^-^8 m^3/s[/tex]) / (5.03×[tex]10^-^9 m^2[/tex]) = 19.1 cm/s

Now, to find the speed of blood in the capillaries, we can use the same continuity equation, but with the cross-sectional area and diameter of the capillaries:

[tex]d_2[/tex] = 6.0×10^-6 m

[tex]A_2[/tex] = π*([tex]d_2/2)^2[/tex]= π*(6.0×[tex]10^-^6/2)^2[/tex] = 2.83×[tex]10^-^1^1 m^2[/tex]

Using the same continuity equation as before, we have:

[tex]A_1 * v_1 = A_2 * v_2V_2 = (A_1 * v_1) / A_2[/tex] = (5.03×[tex]10^-^9 m^2[/tex] * 19.1 cm/s) / 2.83×[tex]10^-^1^1 m^2[/tex]

[tex]V_2[/tex] = 3.4 mm/s

Therefore, the blood speed in the capillaries is much slower than in the arteriole, which is beneficial for the diffusion of materials to and from the blood.

To know more about Blood refer here :

https://brainly.com/question/30244021

#SPJ11

The vinyl record makes 1.39 revolutions before reaching its final angular speed.

What is Angular acceleration?

Angular acceleration is the rate of change of angular velocity over time. It is a measure of how quickly or slowly an object's angular velocity changes as it rotates.

Given:
Initial angular speed (ω1) = 0 rpm
Final angular speed (ω2) = 33.3 rpm
Time taken to reach final speed (t) = 5 s
Let's first convert the speed of the vinyl record to radians per second:
[tex]$\omega_f = \frac{2\pi(33.3)}{60} = 3.49 \ \text{rad/s}$[/tex]
Using the kinematic equation:
[tex]$\omega_f = \omega_i + \alpha t$[/tex]
where [tex]$\omega_i = 0$[/tex] and [tex]$t = 5 \ \text{s}$[/tex], we can solve for the angular acceleration [tex]$\alpha$[/tex]:
[tex]$\alpha = \frac{\omega_f}{t} = \frac{3.49 \ \text{rad/s}}{5 \ \text{s}} = 0.698 \ \text{rad/s}^2$[/tex]
The number of revolutions [tex]$N$[/tex] that the record makes before reaching its final angular speed can be found using:
[tex]$\theta = \frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2$[/tex]
where [tex]$\theta$[/tex] is the total angle turned by the record. Since the record starts from rest, the final angle is equal to the angle turned during the 5 seconds it takes to reach full speed:
[tex]$\theta = \frac{1}{2}(0.698 \ \text{rad/s}^2)(5 \ \text{s})^2 = 8.725 \ \text{rad}$[/tex]
The number of revolutions is then:
[tex]$N = \frac{\theta}{2\pi} = \frac{8.725 \ \text{rad}}{2\pi} = 1.39 \ \text{rev}$[/tex]
Therefore, the vinyl record makes 1.39 revolutions before reaching its final angular speed.

To know more about Angular acceleration visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13014974

#SPJ4

Cosmic rays are high-energy particles that originate from outer space and interact with the Earth's atmosphere. When a cosmic ray travels through the atmosphere, it loses energy due to interactions with air molecules, such as ionization and scattering processes.

In the given scenario, a cosmic ray travels 60.0 km through the Earth's atmosphere in 350 microseconds (μs). To analyze this situation, we can calculate the average speed of the cosmic ray:

Speed = Distance / Time
Speed = 60.0 km / 350 μs

First, convert the time to seconds:
350 μs = 350 x 10^(-6) s = 3.5 x 10^(-4) s

Now, calculate the speed:
Speed = 60.0 km / 3.5 x 10^(-4) s
Speed ≈ 1.71 x 10^8 m/s

This value indicates that the cosmic ray is traveling at a significant fraction of the speed of light (3 x 10^8 m/s). The high-speed nature of cosmic rays can lead to various atmospheric phenomena, including the production of secondary particles and atmospheric radiation. Understanding the behavior and interactions of cosmic rays in the Earth's atmosphere is crucial for studying their potential effects on our planet and its environment.

To know more about Cosmic ray visit :

https://brainly.com/question/29479118

#SPJ11

Answer:

A) -6.7 cm

Explanation:

An object is placed 15 cm in front of a diverging lens (concave lens)
So u = -15 cm
and f = -12 cm (also given)
So, using the lens formula 1/f = 1/v - 1/u,
1/v = 1/f + 1/u
= [1/(-12)] + [1/(-15)]
= -3/20
So, v  = -20/3 = -6.67 or ≈ -6.7 cm

Before the two skaters pushed off from each other, their total momentum was zero. This is because the momentum of one skater going to the right (-85.0kgm/s) is exactly balanced by the momentum of the other skater going to the left (-65.0kgm/s).

According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of a closed system remains constant unless acted upon by an external force. In this case, the two skaters are the only objects in the system and they are pushing off from each other, but the total momentum of the system remains zero.

It is important to note that momentum is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. The negative sign in front of the momentum values indicates the direction of the skaters' motion, with one going to the right and the other to the left. The magnitude of their momentum values (85.0kgm/s and 65.0kgm/s) tells us how difficult it would be to stop their motion if they were to collide with another object.

to know more about vector quantity click this link

brainly.com/question/21797532

#SPJ11

A collection of sounds deliberately used in a regular pattern is called music. Musical instruments vibrate at a set of natural frequencies called overtones.

Sounds are produced from the vibration of particles and the sounds travel in the form of longitudinal waves. The longitudinal waves have compression and rarefactions as they compressed and expand. The sound waves require the medium to propagate.

The collection of sounds deliberately used in a regular pattern is called music. Music is a sound of pleasing sensation and it was produced by the instruments like piano, guitar, etc. These instruments produce a set of natural frequencies called overtones.

To learn more about Sound and Music:

https://brainly.com/question/28992076

#SPJ1