Complete the following sentence using the words provided to fill in the blanks in
the correct order: Wastes, absorbing food, digesting, ingestion
The digestive system is the system of organs that is responsible for ____________
____________ , and
____________ , and then discharging
____________ from these processes from the body.

Answers

Answer 1

The digestive system is the system of organs that is responsible for ingestion, and digesting, and then discharging wastes from these processes from the body.

What do you mean by the digestive system?

The digestive system is a group of organs that work together to break down food, absorb nutrients, and expel waste. It includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus.

The digestive system is a complex network of organs that is responsible for breaking down food into molecules that can be absorbed and used by the body. It begins with ingestion, which is the process of taking in food through the mouth. The food then moves down the esophagus, where muscular contractions help move it to the stomach. In the stomach, the food is further broken down by gastric juices and enzymes, before moving into the small intestine. Here, the food is further broken down and the nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream. From the small intestine, the food moves into the large intestine, where water and minerals are absorbed, and the remaining material is converted into waste that is eliminated from the body through the rectum.

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Related Questions

a nurse completing discharge teaching with a client who has a permanent pacemaker. which of the following statements by the client is correct?

Answers

Option A) The client should avoid all sources of electromagnetic interference, such as cell phones and microwaves, who has a permanent pacemaker.

A permanent pacemaker is a medical device that uses electrical impulses to regulate the heartbeat and maintain a normal heart rhythm. The client microwaves should avoid all sources of electromagnetic interference, such as cell phones and microwaves, as they can interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker. Additionally, the client should also inform all healthcare providers about their pacemaker and follow the manufacturer's recommendations for care and maintenance to ensure its proper functioning.

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The complete Question is:

Which of the following statements by a client with a permanent pacemaker is correct, according to their discharge teaching with a nurse?

A) The client should avoid all sources of electromagnetic interference, such as cell phones and microwaves.

B) The client may resume all physical activities, including contact sports.

C) The client should avoid MRI scans at all costs.

D) The client should keep the pacemaker site dry and avoid getting it wet while showering or bathing.

cheryl wants to find out if stretching before exercise causes people to have less injury during exercise. the best way to answer this question would be to use .

Answers

Answer:

Explanatwhat do you need again

Antiretroviral drugs have different mechanisms of action. Which action below is not a common antiretroviral mechanism?Facilitating exit from an infected host cell.Blocking the protease enzyme.Inhibiting entry to a potential host cell.Inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme.

Answers

Mode of action of current ARVs: Blocks reverse transcriptase, a protease enzyme that interferes with copying of the HIV genetic code (NRTI; NNRTI), thereby preventing maturation of new virions (PI).

What is an instance of maturation?

During the maturation process, weight, height, weight gain, and muscle tissue enlargement are observed. As children grow, they develop motor skills and coordination, gate control, and gross and fine motor skills.

What is the human maturation?

Maturation is the developmental process that occurs as we grow and change. There are many types of maturity, such as physical maturity and cognitive maturity. Physical maturation occurs as our bodies grow and change with age. Cognitive maturity is the process of developing thinking as we grow.

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Muscle soreness associated with strenuous exercise is at least partly due to: A. an excess of ATP that builds up during vigorous exercise. B. the presence of lactic acid produced during fermentation in muscle cells. C. the large amount of carbon dioxide that builds up in the muscle. D. the accumulation of alcohol from anaerobic respiration. E. None of the choices are correct.

Answers

The presence of lactic acid created during fermentation in muscle cells is at least partially responsible for the muscle soreness felt after intense activity.

What causes some of the muscle discomfort that follows a hard workout?

Muscle fatigue and soreness are caused by lactic acid accumulation. Anyone who has put in a hard exercise will be familiar with "feeling the burn," the state of exhaustion and discomfort that develops after repeatedly lifting heavy objects or running at full speed.

What happens when you exercise hard?

The heart beats faster when adrenaline levels are higher. Muscle capillaries widen, resulting in a 20-fold increase in blood flow. The ribcage muscles help the diaphragm pull in up to 15 times.

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sample situation that illustrate inferential statistics

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In deductive statistics, you choose a sample of 11th graders at random from your state, and you gather information on their SAT scores and other traits.

What is inferential statistics?

Based on your sample data, you can use inferential statistics to estimate and test hypotheses about the entire population of 11th graders in the state.

T-tests that compare group averages, analyses of variance, correlation, and regression, and multidimensional modeling procedures, are a few examples of inferential statistics that are frequently used in survey data analysis.

Therefore, inferential statistics describe many ways to study samples of populations to suggest differences between those populations.

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stan has been diagnosed as having a substance use disorder. the therapist explains to stan that the disorder severity is considered mild. based on the criteria for rating levels of severity of substance use disorders, stan would have ____ symptoms.

Answers

Stan would have two or three symptoms. ( A physical or mental problem experienced by a person that may indicate an illness or condition. )

What is the nature of symptoms?

There are three main types of symptoms:

Recurrent symptoms: When symptoms improve or disappear completely, they are called remission symptoms. For example, cold symptoms can last for several days and go away without treatment. Chronic symptoms:

These are long-lasting or recurring symptoms.

What is the distinction among signs and symptoms and complications?

Common cold symptoms include a runny nose and sneezing, but these can also be symptoms of allergies. Complications are the unfavorable consequences of disease. Complications usually occur as the disease worsens. Complications can cause someone to the experience certain symptoms.

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True/Falsethe body relies on muscle glycogen as a main source of energy during prolonged physical activity, such as cross-country skiing for 2 hours.

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True: the body relies on muscle glycogen as a main source of energy during prolonged physical activity, such as cross-country skiing for 2 hours.

During activity, muscle glycogen is a crucial fuel source. Reduced endurance exercise capacity and incapacity to continue exercising are the results of insufficient glycogen supply. Most of the carbohydrates (CHO) in the food we eat are broken down by the body and turned into a sugar called glucose. Our cells primarily use glucose as fuel. The form of stored glucose is called glycogen (made up of many connected glucose molecules).

Glycogen is kept in the liver and muscles. Glycogen is broken down to release glucose into the bloodstream, which is then used as fuel for the cells, when the body needs a sudden surge of energy or when the body isn't obtaining glucose from food.

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if someone who suffers from allergies begins sneezing at the site of plastic flowers they are illustrating: if someone who suffers from allergies begins sneezing at the site of plastic flowers they are illustrating:

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If someone who suffers from allergies begins sneezing at the site of plastic flowers, they are illustrating generalization.

Extraction of common characteristics from a group of things and subsequent creation of a generalized entity are both examples of generalization. In a bottom-up method, if two or more entities share some attributes, they can be generalized to a higher-level entity. The person has developed a generalized entity for the flowers and thus experiences sneezing even with the plastic flowers.

When your immune system reacts to a food or substance that typically doesn't trigger a reaction in most people, such as pollen, bee venom, or pet dander, allergies can develop. Antibodies are chemicals made by your immune system. Your immune system produces antibodies that label a specific allergen as hazardous even when it is not when you have allergies.

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which of the following is considered a transient complication? group of answer choices A) burning on injection B) nerve damage C) hematoma D) anaphylaxis

Answers

C. Hematoma. Clinically speaking, subdural hematomas can occasionally resemble TIAs. Similar to scenario one, people with subdurals may have previously experienced head trauma that they may or may not remember.

We discuss three cases where subdural hematomas were later discovered after being first diagnosed with, treated for, and tested for TIAs. A thorough neurologic assessment is necessary for patients who have symptoms similar to TIAs. Aside from heart attacks, migraines, seizure disorders, and mass lesions, the differential diagnosis for TIAs also includes arteriosclerotic extracranial vascular disease, cardiac emboli, and migraine. Before starting a treatment programme, it is important to identify the cause of the symptoms because the prognosis and treatments vary. Prior to beginning anticoagulant medication, specific diagnoses must be ruled out.

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the daily value is _____
multiple select question. a. based on a 2000-kcal calorie diet. b. based on a 3000-kcal calorie diet and activity level. c. used as a rough guide to compare nutrient content of foods with respect to human needs. d. used on food labels.

Answers

Daily Recommended Specific gravity on a 2000-calorie diet are listed on the Nutrition Facts label, and 2,000 calories per day is used as basic nutrition guidance.

What exactly is nutrition?

It is the process through which an organism absorbs food, uses it to produce energy for maintenance, growth, and repair, and then expel waste from the body. Nutrients are the substances that give living things their nutrition.

Nutrition is the process through which an organism consumes food and uses it in some way. Autotrophic nutrition refers to the process by which organisms produce their own food from uncomplicated materials.

An organism is what?

A unique living creature that maintains its own life through the use of distinct but complementary organs.

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apes frq -explain an environmental benefit of eating a plant-based diet, rather than a meat-based diet

Answers

People who consume healthy plant-based diets have a lower risk of heart disease while these diets lead to fewer greenhouse gas emissions and emissions from cropland, irrigation water and nitrogen-rich foods than unhealthy plant-based and animal-based foods.

What is Plant based diet?

A plant-based diet is defined as a diet that consists mostly or entirely of plant-based foods which includes a wide range of dietary patterns that contain low amounts of animal products and contains high amount of plant products like vegetables, fruits, whole grains, legumes, nuts and seeds.

Shifting the diet from meat and other animal products to a plant-based diet has high potential to reduce carbon footprints and mitigate climate change and improve human health.

Thus, people who consume healthy plant-based diets have a lower risk of heart disease.

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After teaching a group of community health nursing students about the trends affecting occupational and environmental health nursing, the instructor determines that more teaching is needed when the students identify which of the following as a trend?
A) Continued escalation of health care costs
B) Upturn in the global economy
C) Increase in worldwide competition
D) Increase in technologic hazards

Answers

Answer:

B. Upturn in the global economy is the answer.

Explanation:

The study on ethical decision-making models for nursing students built on related studies of:

A) Hepatitis C patients and child participants
B) AIDS patients and elderly participants
C) Hepatitis C patients and elderly participants
D) AIDS patients and child participants

Answers

The study on ethical decision-making models for nursing students built on the related studies of Hepatitis C patients and elderly participants. Thus, the correct option is C.

What is Ethical decision-making?

Ethical decision-making in nursing refers to the framework of nurses use in making informed decisions while evaluating the major outcomes of their actions. In the daily practice, nurses face many ethical issues such as health disparities, patient confidentiality, and informed consent as well.

As the health-care professionals, the doctors and nurses are guided by moral principles in the decision-making process, namely, autonomy, non-malfeasance, beneficence, justice, fidelity, and the veracity.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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degrees of freedom refer to the number of independent components in a control system and the number of ways each component can vary

Answers

A control system's freedom levels refer to the amount of independent ways each element can operate.

The number of distinct variables which can be estimated in a data analysis is known as the degrees of freedom. These variables' values are not constrained, but if the data set is to meet the estimate parameters, the values do impose limitations on other variables. Graduations of Freedom Problem. a control problem that arises during the design of a complicated system that must produce a particular outcome; the design challenge is to figure out how to limit the system's numerous degrees of freedom because it can accomplish the desired outcome. A GMP is defined by a specific set of traits called invariants, which do not change from one performance.

(_____ refers to independent components of a control system and the number of ways each component can function.)

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Selection is a term used by communication theorists to describe the determination of causes and effects in a series of interactions.
True or False?

Answers

False. Through the use of four different types of schema to categorize information and punctuation, which is the identification of causes and effects in a sequence of interactions.

Chosen information must be ordered in some meaningful way in order to make sense of the universe. Communication theorists refer to the process of identifying causes and effects in a chain of encounters as selection. Attribution is when you judge your sibling to be lazy because he never arrives on time. The process through which populations of living things adapt and evolve is known as natural selection. A population's members are naturally varied, which means that they are all distinctive in some respects. This variety indicates that some people have characteristics that are more environment-friendly than others.

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A client presents to the Emergency Department with 30% total body surface area (TBSA) burns. The client weighs 176lbs. Use the Parkland Formula (4ml) to calculate the hourly rate for the first 8 hours.
600ml/hr
b. 1200ml/hr
c. 1760ml/hr
d. 2670ml/hr

Answers

A client present for the first eight hours, the hourly rate is 600 ml.

If you only need to calculate the infusion rate, or even the amount of medication to be infused per hour, divide the total volume in mL by the total number of hours the medication is to be infused over to get the percentage in mL per hour.

Utilize the equations below: Total volume (mL) x infusion time equals flow rate (mL/hr) (hr) Total volume (mL) x flow rate (mL/hr) equals infusion time (hr). One mL is infused per moment, or 60 mL per hour, if the rate is set at 20 drops per minute. The rate rises to 120 mL per hour if you double it to 40 drops per minute.A client present for the first eight hours, the hourly rate is 600 ml.

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Benner describes five stages of nursing proficiency as students develop into expert nurses. Which of the following is not a stage of development described by Benner? A. Novice B. Expert practitionerC. Inexpert beginnerD. Competent practitioner

Answers

Option C, Patricia Benner is a nursing theorist who developed the concept of "From Novice to Expert." She described five stages of nursing proficiency practitioner as students develop into expert nurses.

The five stages are novice, advanced beginner, competent practitioner, proficient practitioner, and expert practitioner. The novice stage is characterized by a lack of experience and knowledge. The advanced beginner has nursing acquired some knowledge and is able to apply it in practice, but still lacks the experience to handle complex situations. The competent practitioner has more experience and can nursing consistently apply their knowledge to various situations. The proficient practitioner has acquired the necessary knowledge, skills, and judgement to handle complex cases. The expert practitioner is highly knowledgeable and skilled and can provide advanced level care, acting almost instinctively.

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Of the following spirometry results, which are associated with obstructive pulmonary disorders? Select all that apply.
Reduced forced vital capacity
Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second
Reduced total lung capacity
Reduced ratio of forced expiratory volume in 1 second to forced vital capacity
Increased total lung capacity

Answers

A restrictive lung condition is seen when the FEV1/FVC ratio is normal but the FVC is lowered. Pulmonary fibrosis and infections like pneumonia can be among them.

What does a decreased FVC mean?

Features of the test While a normal ratio implies normal spirometry or restrictive limitation, a lowered FEV1/FVC ratio shows airflow blockage.

A lower FEV1/FVC ratio points to an obstructive condition like COPD or asthma.

What distinguishes obstructive from restrictive spirometry defects?

Conditions that make it difficult to completely evacuate the air in the lungs are considered obstructive lung disorders. Patients with restrictive lung disease have trouble filling their lungs with air completely. The predominant symptom of both restrictive and obstructive lung disease is shortness of breath when exerting oneself.

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Cardiac dysrhythmias affect perfusion by reducing the efficiency of the heart's pumping cycle. Which factors contribute to the reduction in efficiency? Select all that apply.

Answers

There are several factors that contribute to the reduction in efficiency in cardiac dysrhythmias:

Irregular heartbeats: Irregular heartbeats, also known as arrhythmias, prevent the heart from beating in a coordinated and efficient manner, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively.

Abnormal electrical impulses: In cardiac dysrhythmias, the electrical impulses that regulate the heartbeat are disrupted, leading to irregular and inefficient heartbeats.

Decreased cardiac output: The heart's ability to pump blood is reduced in cardiac dysrhythmias, leading to decreased cardiac output and reduced perfusion.

Blood clots: Blood clots that form as a result of cardiac dysrhythmias can obstruct blood flow, reducing perfusion.

Tissue hypoxia: Reduced perfusion can lead to tissue hypoxia, where the tissues receive insufficient oxygen, causing cellular injury and death.

Heart failure: In severe cases, cardiac dysrhythmias can lead to heart failure, where the heart can no longer pump blood effectively, resulting in reduced perfusion to the body's organs and tissues.

Jane goes to an all-you-can-eat restaurant and makes three trips to the buffet. After finishing food from her third trip, she felt sick and throws up. Which of the following economic explanations best matches Jane's situation? a. Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third place was positive but less than that of the second plate. b. Jane's marginal benefit from her third trip to the buffet was larger than her marginal benefit from her second trip c. Jane was charged extra for the third plate at the buffet. d. Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third plate was negative.

Answers

Answer: a

Explanation:

i d k

Final answer:

Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third plate of food at a buffet was negative because she became sick after eating, which indicates a decrease in satisfaction or utility.

Explanation:

In the given scenario, the concept of marginal benefit in economics is highlighted, which is the additional satisfaction or utility that a person receives from consuming an extra unit of a good or service. In Jane's case, the term eating extra food at a buffet serves as an analogy for this concept.

The correct answer to this situation is - d. Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third plate was negative. This is because, after her third trip to the buffet, she didn't derive any additional satisfaction or benefit but instead felt sick. This suggests that her marginal benefit at the third plate was indeed negative.

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Can animals lose their hearing from fireworks ?

Answers

Maybe? I think that animal’s eardrums are weaker than ours.
If the animal is close enough then yeah

Approximately what percent of men have reported being victims of drink spiking?
A. 5%
B. 1%
C. 11%

Answers

Answer: C 11%

I believe

Which of the following conditions is frequently monitored using a point-of-care instrument?
A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B) diabetes mellitus
C) renal failure
D) septicemia

Answers

The most common causes of chronic dyspnea are pulmonary asthma, COPD, heart failure, and interstitial lung disease.

Describe asthma?

Allergies, air pollution, and other air irritants, other medical disorders, such as respiratory illnesses, exercise and physical exercise, weather and ambient temperature, intense emotions, and some medications are among the most frequent asthma triggers. a long-term illness that causes the  airways of the lungs to shrink and swell, making breathing challenging. Wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, breathlessness, and fast breathing are some of the symptoms.

Describe pollution?

 Natural pollutants include volcanic ash, for example. Humans can also produce them.

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Which of the following is not representative of the Dietary Guidelines recommendations for meal planning?
incorporating several servings of plant sources of protein per week
selecting low-fat dairy choices over high fat
eliminating all fruits to lose weight
consuming whole grain breads and cereals

Answers

It is not suggested in the Dietary Guidelines to eliminate all fruits from your diet if you're trying to lose weight.

Take in lots of fruits and vegetables. Use a minimum amount of ghee, butter, and vanaspati, and make sure to use moderate amounts of animal products and edible oils. To avoid being overweight and obese, don't overeat. To maintain a healthy weight, exercise frequently and stay physically active.It is not suggested in the Dietary Guidelines to eliminate all fruits from your diet if you're trying to lose weight. For the body to function properly and to maintain overall health, there are six types of nutrients that are necessary. These include lipids, proteins, lipids, water, vitamins, as well as minerals. The diet-planning principles of sufficiency, balance, calorie (energy) control, nutrient density, moderation, as well as variety are crucial ideas in deciding on a healthy diet. Energy (kilojoules), protein, total fat, fat content, total carbohydrates, sugars, and sodium must all be listed on the nutritional information panels of all foods.

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the ____ of a muscle is on the bone that moves when the muscle contracts, while the ____ is on the bone that is relatively immobile when the muscle contracts

Answers

The flexible end of the muscle that attaches to the pulling bone is called the muscle attachment, and the end of the muscle that attaches to the fixed (stable) bone is called the origin.

What is the muscle attachment?

Skeletal muscle attaches to bone (and possibly other muscles and tissues) at two or more points. A bond is called origin if its location is a bone that remains immovable to the action. If the point is on a bone that moves during the action, it is called an insertion.

What's an example of muscle attachment?

Tendons are the most common form of attachment and help focus muscle tension on small areas of bone. It is then transmitted to the bones, allowing joint movement to occur.

What are the three types of muscle attachment?

In the muscular system, muscle tissue is divided into three different types.

Skeleton, Heart, Smooth. Each type of muscle tissue in the human body has its own structure and specific role. Skeletal muscles move the bones and other structures. The myocardium causes the heart to contract and pump blood.

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2. In an ideal situation, we have access to all the food options we desire. However, this is often not the
case in real-world situations. For each of your proposed steps in answer 1, provide an alternative
dietary strategy that will also achieve your target, but in a different way. Explain your thinking.

Answers

Step 1: Consume more nutritious foods to improve your physical and mental health.

Step 2:Control your food portions so that you can ensure that you aren't eating too much.

Step 3: Increase your intake of foods that support your muscles and bones to help you stay healthy and gain more muscle.

What is food?

Food is one of the fundamental necessities of life. Nutrients are substances found in food that are necessary for the growth, maintenance, and repair of bodily tissues as well as the regulation of essential bodily processes.

Our bodies are able to function because nutrients give them energy. The amount of energy in a meal is measured in calorie units. The number of calories needed each day varies depending on an individual's age, gender, weight, height, and level of exercise.

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During the early part of the twentieth century, the biological disease model of mental problems led to?
a. the belief that mental illness had no physical basis.
b. improved treatments.
c. more controlled research methods.
d. eugenics and segregation.

Answers

During the early part of the twentieth century, the biological disease model of mental problems led to improved treatments and more controlled research methods.

During the early part of the 20th century, the biological disease model of mental problems gained popularity and led to significant changes in the way mental illness was understood and treated. This model emphasized the idea that mental illness was a physical disease, with causes rooted in the brain and nervous system. This led to the development of new treatments, such as psychotherapy and psychoactive medications, and to more controlled research mental problems, including the use of standardized diagnostic tools and outcome measures. This approach helped to destigmatize mental illness and led to improved care for those suffering from mental health problems. However, the biological disease model of mental illness also contributed to the eugenics and segregation of people with mental illness, which is a dark chapter in the history of mental health treatment.

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When a women in a persistent vegetative state was told to imagine playing tennis, and fMRI of her brain showed increased activity in motor areas of her cortex, similar to what healthy volunteers showed.
True or false

Answers

True. When a woman in a permanent vegetative state was instructed to picture herself playing tennis, her fMRI revealed increased activity in the motor regions of her cortex, much like what was seen in healthy volunteers.

People who are in a vegetative state regularly go to sleep and wake up, and their eyes open as well as move, but usually they are completely incapable of thinking or acting consciously.True. When a woman in a permanent vegetative state was instructed to picture herself playing tennis, her fMRI revealed increased activity in the motor regions of her cortex, much like what was seen in healthy volunteers.

A vegetative state is characterised by wakefulness but not much awareness, while a coma is characterised by very low wakefulness as well as awareness.

Patients with severe brain damage who are in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) as well as post-coma unresponsiveness (PCU) have a disorder of consciousness in which they experience partial arousal rather than full awareness.

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Which of the following are behavior choices that affect a person's individual health? smoking, physical activity, diet

Answers

Smoking is one of the following behavioral decisions that has an impact on an individual's health.

What actions have a negative impact on health?

People who make decisions that affect their health are said to engage in health behaviors. They include behaviors that promote better health, like eating healthily and exercising, as well as behaviors that raise one's risk of disease, like smoking, binge drinking, and dangerous sexual conduct.

What are the top four healthy habits?

What the Tennessee Department of Health (TDH) refers to as the "Big 4"—physical inactivity, excessive calorie consumption, tobacco and nicotine addiction, and other substance use disorders—are the root causes of this issue.

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How do the Irish traditionally treat fevers? The Irish traditionally believe in treating fevers with on dry sugar.​

Answers

The Irish traditionally believe in treating fevers with spirit on dry sugar.​

What is fever?

A fever is described as a temporary increase in average body temperature of 37°C (98.6°F).

The Irish are known to have traditionally used a variety of remedies to treat fevers, including herbal remedies such as willow bark tea, herbal infusions made from elderflowers, and sweating treatments using mustard or eggs.

The Irish also  also used methods such as wrapping the affected person in blankets to encourage sweating, and drinking fluids to help replace fluids lost through sweating.

In conclusion, medications such as paracetamol and ibuprofen may help to ease discomfort arising from fever.

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