compare the two dna sequences and polypeptide chains they produce. what type of mutation has occurred to the bottom sequence?

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Answer 1

In general, comparing two DNA sequences and their corresponding polypeptide chains can help identify differences that may have arisen due to mutations.

Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence that can result in changes in the polypeptide chain that is produced.If a mutation has occurred in the bottom DNA sequence that results in a change in the corresponding polypeptide chain, it is likely a missense mutation.

A missense mutation occurs when a change in a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence results in the substitution of one amino acid in the polypeptide chain for another. This can alter the structure and function of the resulting protein.

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sunny has decided to create a community garden on a patch of abandoned land near the main field office. the garden will include plants to help stabilize the soil. the garden and the plants to help stabilize the soil are examples of

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Sunny has decided to create a community garden on a patch of abandoned land near the main field office. The garden will include plants to help stabilize the soil. The garden and the plants to help stabilize the soil are examples of ecological restoration.

Ecological restoration is the practice of rebuilding, renewing, and rehabilitating natural areas that have been disturbed, degraded, or destroyed. Ecological restoration efforts can include planting trees or other vegetation, repairing soil erosion, and restoring natural habitats for wildlife.

The purpose of ecological restoration is to restore ecological health and improve the quality of life for people living in the area. Therefore, Sunny's community garden is an excellent example of ecological restoration.

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Compare the pectoral and pelvic girdles by choosing appropriate descriptive terms from the key.
a. flexibility most important
b. massive
c. lightweight
d. insecure axial and limb attachments
e. secure axial and limb attachments
f. weight -bearing most important

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Pectoral: a. flexibility, c. light weight, d. shaky axial and limb attachments. Massive, secure axial and limb attachments are present in the pelvis (b). Weight bearing.

Because to its shaky linkages to the axial and limb systems, the pectoral girdle places a high priority on flexibility. Also, the joint is lightweight. Given that its primary duty is to support weight, the pelvic girdle is significantly more stable than mobile.

The axial and appendicular skeletons are the two major divisions of the skeletal system in humans. The body's primary axis is covered by 80 bones that make up the axial skeleton.

Axillary skeleton is made up of the skull, spinal column, sternum, and ribs. The appendicular skeleton is made up of the bones in the limbs as well as their girdles (pelvic and pectoral).

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If the stock contains 48 chromosomes and the scion contains 30 chromosomes , then how many chromosomes are present in the root and egg cell of the resultant plant , respectively ?A)48 and 15B)15 and 48C)30 and 24D)24 and 15

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48 chromosomes for the root cell and 15 chromosomes for the egg cell. Option A is correct.

When a stock plant and a scion plant are grafted together, the cells of the stock and scion remain separate but function as a single organism. The root and shoot system of the resulting plant is derived from the stock, while the scion contributes to the leaves, flowers, and fruit of the plant.

Since the stock has 48 chromosomes and the scion has 30 chromosomes, the resulting plant will have cells with a total of 78 chromosomes (48 + 30).

The egg cell of the plant will have half of the total chromosomes, which is 39 chromosomes (78/2).

The root cells of the plant will have the same number of chromosomes as the stock plant, which is 48 chromosomes.

Hence, A. 48 and 15 is the correct option.

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The semitendinosus muscle is innervated by the ______ nerve. a. coxal b. femoral c. patellar d. tibial portion of the sciatic.

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The semitendinosus muscle is innervated by the tibial portion of the sciatic nerve.

The semitendinosus muscle is innervated by the tibial portion of the sciatic nerve. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body and is composed of two main branches, the tibial nerve and the common fibular (peroneal) nerve. The tibial portion of the sciatic nerve innervates the hamstrings muscles, including the semitendinosus muscle, which is located in the posterior thigh. The coxal nerve, femoral nerve, and patellar nerve do not innervate the semitendinosus muscle.

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proteins that lack a sorting signal remain as permanent residents of which part of a eukaryotic cell?

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The proteins that lack a sorting signal remain as permanent residents of the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell.

What is a eukaryotic cell?

A eukaryotic cell is an organism that is more complicated than a prokaryotic cell. Eukaryotes have organelles, including a nucleus. They are the most diverse category of living organisms and have characteristics that range from single-celled creatures to multicellular creatures.

The cytosol is the fluid inside the cell's membrane, including the organelles inside the cell. Proteins that lack a sorting signal lack the signal sequences that direct them to specific cellular locations, such as the nucleus or mitochondria, and instead remain in the cytosol. The cytosol is home to a large number of proteins that help maintain cell structure, control cellular metabolism, and serve as the site of protein synthesis. Proteins such as cytoskeletal components, chaperones, and signaling proteins are all present in the cytosol.

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view available hint(s)for part b identify the correct description of the different types of bones: a. compact bone provides support at areas where stress occurs. b. spongy bone is made of trabeculae and is lighter than compact bone. c. compact bone is made of trabeculae and is denser than spongy bone. d. spongy bone is made of osteons and is less dense than compact bone. e. spongy bone is structurally stronger than compact bone.

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The correct description of the different types of bones:• Spongy bone is made of trabeculae and is lighter than compact bone.• Compact bone provides support at areas where stress occurs.

Compact bone is a denser type of bone tissue that makes up the outer layer of bones. Compact bones provide support and protection for the internal parts of the bone. The bone cells and matrix minerals form around small blood vessels in the bone. Compact bones are composed of calcium phosphate crystals, collagen, and calcium hydroxyapatite crystals.

Spongy bones are the inner portions of bone that have a spongy, porous texture. It is also known as trabecular bone. Spongy bones are made of trabeculae, which are small, bony plates that form a lattice-like network. Spongy bones contain red bone marrow that produces red blood cells and some white blood cells.

Therefore , The trabeculae help provide support and strength to the bone, allowing it to withstand forces without fracturing. Spongy bones also help provide shock absorption when a force is applied to the bone.

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which is true about essential fatty acids? which is true about essential fatty acids? they are found primarily in deep-fried foods. the body can make them from nonessential fatty acids. they are linked to increased risk of heart disease. they are involved in inflammatory responses and nerve transmission within the body.

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Answer: Essential fatty acids are involved in inflammatory responses and nerve transmission within the body. The correct option is d.

Explanation:
Essential fatty acids are unsaturated fats that are important for the health of our bodies. They cannot be made by our body and therefore we must consume them through our diet. They are divided into two categories, namely Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids.

Essential fatty acids play a crucial role in several bodily functions. They are essential for cell growth and division, brain function, hormone production, immune system function, and blood clotting. They are also involved in inflammatory responses and nerve transmission within the body.

Essential fatty acids are also linked to a lower risk of heart disease. It is not true that essential fatty acids are found primarily in deep-fried foods. Deep-fried foods contain unhealthy fats that can be harmful to our bodies.

Essential fatty acids are found in foods such as fatty fish, nuts and seeds, avocado, and olive oil. It is also not true that the body can make them from nonessential fatty acids.

As mentioned earlier, essential fatty acids cannot be made by our body and must be consumed through our diet.

Thus the correct option is D. Essential fatty acids are involved in inflammatory responses and nerve transmission within the body.

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from genotype to phenotype phenotype: what does a person with albinism look like? oculocutaneous albinism is a group of conditions that affect coloring (pigmentation) of the skin, hair, and eyes. approximately 1 in 20,000 exhibit this disorder and affected individuals typically have very fair skin and white or light-col-ored hair. long-term sun exposure greatly increases the risk of skin damage and skin cancers, including an aggressive form of skin cancer called melanoma. albinism also reduces pigmentation of the colored part of the eye known as the iris and the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye called the retina. people with this condition usually have vision problems such as reduced sharpness, rapid, involuntary eye movements (nystagmus), and increased sensitivity to light (photophobia). melanin is an extremely impor- rame malacle to humane for many rensons one being its ability to protect

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Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual, while Phenotype is the physical manifestation of that genetic makeup.

What is albinism? Oculocutaneous albinism is a group of genetic disorders characterized by a lack of melanin pigment in the eyes, skin, and hair. Albinism is caused by mutations in any of several genes involved in the production of melanin pigment in specialized cells called melanocytes.

The phenotype of a person with albinism is characterized by very fair skin and white or light-colored hair. Long-term sun exposure greatly increases the risk of skin damage and skin cancers, including an aggressive form of skin cancer called melanoma. Albinism also reduces pigmentation of the colored part of the eye known as the iris and the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye called the retina.

People with albinism usually have vision problems such as reduced sharpness, rapid, involuntary eye movements (nystagmus), and increased sensitivity to light (photophobia). Melanin is an extremely important molecule to humans for many reasons, one of which is its ability to protect the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.

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Suppose you have a DNA fragment you would like to insert into the pSAP plasmid. The fragment has PstI and EcoRI restriction endonuclease sites near the 5' end and HindIII and Smal restriction endonuclease sites near the 3' end. Choose the best restriction endonuclease(s) to digest the both the DNA fragment and pSAP. Thank you for all the help everyone!!! :)

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To digest both the DNA fragment and pSAP plasmid, we will need restriction endonucleases that recognize the same restriction sites present in the DNA fragment and the plasmid. Based on the information provided, the best combination of restriction endonucleases would be PstI and HindIII.

PstI recognizes and cuts DNA at the PstI site, which is present near the 5' end of the DNA fragment and also in the pSAP plasmid. HindIII recognizes and cuts DNA at the HindIII site, which is present near the 3' end of the DNA fragment and also in the pSAP plasmid.

By digesting both the DNA fragment and pSAP with PstI and HindIII, you will generate compatible sticky ends that can be ligated together, allowing for the insertion of the DNA fragment into the pSAP plasmid.

Therefore, the best combination of restriction endonucleases would be PstI and HindIII.

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Show DNA Transcription: ACG CAT GAT TAT AAT GGA

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Answer:

Original: DNA: GTG CAC CTG ACT CCT GAG GCG .

Transcribed: DNA: CAC GTG GAC TGA GGA CTC CGC .

Weigh the efficacy of using prokaryotes over eukaryotes for certain industrial purposes and energy production.

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The eukaryotic cells' internal areas become more functionally concentrated as a result of the integration of organelles. Hence, eukaryotic cells are significantly more efficient than prokaryotic cells at producing energy and getting rid of waste.

What is a eukaryotic cell?Eukaryota is a varied domain of organisms whose cells have a nucleus. Eukaryotes are the group's members. Eukaryotes include every type of animal, plant, fungus, and numerous unicellular organisms. One of the three domains of life is known as the Eukarya, which is a class of organisms. Monera (prokaryotes), Animalia (Metazoa), Plantae, Fungi, and Protista are recognised as four eukaryotic kingdoms in the most well-known classification scheme, the "Whittaker" five kingdom structure.The nucleus is the distinctive trait that distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells lack a genuine nucleus, and eukaryotic cells are the only ones to have membrane-bound organelles.Large and complex creatures are created by eukaryotic cells, which have nuclei encased in nuclear membranes.

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The synthesis part of the term photosynthesis relates to the production of ___

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The synthesis part of the term photosynthesis relates to the production of organic compounds.

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy that can be used to fuel their growth and metabolism. This process occurs in specialized structures within the cells called chloroplasts, which contain the pigment chlorophyll that absorbs light energy.

During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and water from the soil are converted into glucose, a simple sugar, and oxygen. This process involves a series of complex chemical reactions that are driven by the energy from light. The glucose produced by photosynthesis can be used immediately by the plant for energy, or it can be stored in the form of starch for later use.

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Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The lagging strand is synthesized in a semiconservative fashion while the leading strand is synthesized in a conservative fashion B) Synthesis of the logging strand requires more helicase enzymes than synthesis of the leading strand C) The lagging strand has a higher mutation rate than the leading strand D) The leading strand is replicated continuously for the entire length of the chromosome, while the tagging strand has multiple origins of ruplication E) All statements are correct

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The following statement is TRUE: The leading strand is replicated continuously for the entire length of the chromosome, while the tagging strand has multiple origins of replication. The correct answer is Option D.

What is DNA?

DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic acid, which is a molecule that holds most of the genetic information or instructions for the growth, development, functioning, and reproduction of all living things. DNA is a long polymer consisting of monomers known as nucleotides. DNA's structure and composition are unique and self-replicating. DNA replication happens before cell division in all living organisms. The process is vital for the continuation of genetic information from generation to generation.

DNA replication is a process that involves many enzymes, which work together in a highly-coordinated fashion to ensure that DNA's sequence is replicated accurately. The replication process starts at the origin of replication and proceeds in both directions, resulting in the formation of two replication forks. The replication process is continuous in the leading strand, while it is discontinuous in the lagging strand. The leading strand is replicated continuously for the entire length of the chromosome, while the tagging strand has multiple origins of replication.

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a glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is

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The glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin (EPO).

Erythropoietin is produced primarily by the kidneys in response to hypoxia or low oxygen levels in the blood. It stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow, which helps to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood.

EPO is a key regulator of erythropoiesis, the process of red blood cell production. It is also used clinically to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease and other conditions that result in decreased erythropoietin production.

However, EPO abuse is a serious problem in sports, particularly in endurance events such as cycling, running, and swimming. Athletes use EPO to increase their red blood cell count and enhance their performance, but this can have serious health consequences such as stroke, heart attack, and blood clots in the lungs.

In summary, erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that plays a vital role in regulating the production of red blood cells in response to low oxygen levels, ultimately increasing the oxygen concentration in the body's tissues.

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Compare and contrast the following seawater desalination methods: distillation, solar humidification, electrolysis, and reverse osmosis.​

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Distillation and electrolysis are typically more energy-intensive and produce byproducts, while solar humidification and reverse osmosis are less energy-intensive but may produce lower quantities of freshwater.

What is seawater desalination?

Seawater desalination refers to the methods where the salt content of seawater is reduced in order to produce fresh water.

Distillation, solar humidification, electrolysis, and reverse osmosis are all seawater desalination methods used to obtain freshwater from seawater.

Distillation involves boiling seawater and collecting the steam, which is then condensed into freshwater. This method requires a lot of energy, which can be expensive, and produces brine as a byproduct.

Solar humidification uses the sun's energy to evaporate seawater, which is then condensed to produce freshwater. This method is less energy-intensive than distillation, but is also less efficient and produces a lower quantity of freshwater.

Electrolysis uses electricity to split seawater into hydrogen and oxygen gases, which then recombine to form freshwater. This method is energy-intensive and produces hydrogen and oxygen gases as byproducts.

Reverse osmosis involves passing seawater through a membrane that removes salt and other impurities, leaving freshwater behind. This method is less energy-intensive than distillation and electrolysis, but requires high pressure to push seawater through the membrane, which can be costly.

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Which part of embryo develops into fruit?

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In plants, the ovary of the embryo develops into the fruit.

After fertilization, the ovary wall thickens and matures, and the ovules inside develop into seeds. The surrounding ovary wall becomes fleshy or hard and forms the fruit. The fruit protects the seeds and helps in seed dispersal. The type of fruit that develops depends on the type of flower and the structure of the ovary. For example, in apples, the fleshy part we eat is the swollen receptacle, while the core contains the seeds which are formed from the ovules.

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La estructura de la membrana es selectivamente permeable, por tal razón:

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The cell membrane is selectively permeable because substances do not pass through it indiscriminately. This means that only selective molecules pass through it. So the correct answer choice is option (B).

Selective permeability of a cell membrane refers to its ability to distinguish between different types of molecules, allowing only some molecules through while blocking others. A cell membrane is called selectively permeable because it allows only specific molecules to pass through. Only specific molecules, such as water and gas molecules, can pass directly through the cell membrane. It stops the flow of other molecules towards the two sides. Many large molecules like glucose and other sugars cannot do this. Water can pass between lipids. The most common example is the phospholipid bilayer cell membrane that surrounds every cell in our body.

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Complete question:

The membrane structure is selectively permeable, for this reason:

A) It is permeable only during certain stage of the cell division.

B) It allows only selective molecules to pass through it.

C) It allows only water to pass.

D) It is made up of lipids.

when hemoglobin is bound to oxygen, it is represented as

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When hemoglobin is bound to oxygen, it is represented as Oxyhemoglobin.

The symbol for hemoglobin when it is bonded to oxygen is [tex]HbO_2[/tex]. Four subunits make up this molecule, and each one has a heme group that can attach to a single oxygen molecule. The hemoglobin molecule's shape changes when oxygen binds to one of the heme groups, making it simpler for the other heme groups to bind oxygen as well. Cooperative binding is a process that enables hemoglobin to effectively carry oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. When hemoglobin releases oxygen in the tissues, the molecule's shape changes once more, decreasing the likelihood that oxygen will bind and encouraging the release of more oxygen molecules.

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the maximum amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of the ventricular filling phase is called __________.

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The maximum amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of the ventricular filling phase is called end-diastolic volume (EDV).

End-diastolic volume (EDV)The maximum amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of the ventricular filling phase is called end-diastolic volume (EDV). During this phase of the cardiac cycle, both the atria and ventricles are in diastole, allowing blood to flow passively from the atria into the ventricles.

The EDV is determined by several factors, including the duration of diastole, the venous return of blood to the heart, and the compliance of the ventricular walls.

The end-diastolic volume is an important measure of the heart's function because it is used to calculate the stroke volume (SV), which is the volume of blood ejected from the ventricle during systole.

The stroke volume is calculated by subtracting the end-systolic volume (ESV), the volume of blood remaining in the ventricle after systole, from the EDV.

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Identify the items associated with either monogenism or polygenism.
-a view held by Darwinists
-claims that all human beings are part of a single family tree
-a view held by religious traditionalists
-claims that humanity is composed of several distinct species

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Monogenism is the belief that all human beings are part of a single family tree, while polygenism claims that humanity is composed of several distinct species. Monogenism is often associated with religious traditionalists while Polygenism is a view held by some Darwinists.

Monogenism aligns with the idea that all humans are descended from a single pair of ancestors, such as Adam and Eve in the Judeo-Christian tradition. This view emphasizes the unity and interconnectedness of all human beings and is consistent with the belief in a common human ancestry. In this perspective, all humans are related and share a common origin, regardless of their racial or ethnic differences.


Polygenism, on the other hand, suggests that different human populations evolved independently from one another. This theory claims that various human groups are not part of the same family tree, but instead have distinct evolutionary histories.

Proponents of polygenism argue that this can help explain the diversity of human traits and characteristics observed across the globe.

However, it is important to note that the modern scientific consensus supports the monogenetic view of human origins, with genetic evidence showing that all humans share a common ancestry.


To recap, monogenism is the belief that all humans are part of a single family tree and is a view held by religious traditionalists, while polygenism claims that humanity is composed of several distinct species and is a perspective associated with some Darwinists.

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A change in the gene pool due to chance results in ________.
a) natural selection
b) environmental variation
c) a large gene pool
d) genetic drift

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d) genetic drift. A change in the gene pool due to chance results in genetic drift.

Genetic drift: what is it?

Allele frequencies in a population can shift from generation to generation owing to random events, which is known as genetic drift. To be more precise, genetic drift is changed as a result of "sampling error" while choosing the alleles for the following generation from the gene pool of the current generation.

Is genetic drift a result of natural selection?

Contrary to natural selection, genetic drift uses a completely random method to alter the population's genetic composition. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution, but it does not lead to adaptations. Read more about genetic drift's mechanism and sampling mistakes.

Is ambient genetic drift possible?

Hence, environmental factors can have an impact on or act as a mediator of genetic drift and gene flow, which are neutral or non-adaptive evolutionary processes.

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vitamins often act as them______ or function as components of themThese types of molecules interact directly with _____to either allow the reaction to occur or by making the reaction occur efficiently For example, the vitamin _______is used in the production of NAD Recall that NAD* helps carry high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain to generate ATP. This means that NAD+ functions as an)______enzyme(s)niacincoenzyme(s)riboflavin

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Vitamins frequently serve as coenzymes or as their constituent parts.the vitamin is riboflavin.

Vitamins are essential organic compounds that cannot be produced in sufficient amounts by the body, so they must be obtained from the diet. They play a crucial role in metabolic processes such as the formation of red blood cells, immune system function, and neurological function.

The human body requires 13 vitamins: A, C, D, E, K, and eight B vitamins, including riboflavin and niacin.

Coenzymes are organic molecules that help enzymes catalyze reactions. They are not enzymes, but they work with enzymes to ensure that reactions proceed quickly and efficiently.

They are similar to vitamins in that they cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through the diet. Some examples of coenzymes are NAD+, FAD, and Coenzyme A.

NAD+ stands for nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide, which is a coenzyme found in cells. It helps cells generate energy and is involved in many metabolic processes.

NAD+ functions as a shuttle for high-energy electrons in the process of respiration, transferring them from other molecules to oxygen, which then generates ATP.

NAD+ is made up of two nucleotides joined by phosphate groups, and it requires niacin and riboflavin to be synthesized.

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Vertebrate embryos all develop in similar ways. Which conclusion can be drawn from this observation? O Many vertebrates are descended from one another. O There is frequent gene flow between vertebrates. O Vertebrates share a common ancestor. O Vertebrates live in similar habitats.​

Answers

The conclusion that can be drawn from this observation is that vertebrates share a common ancestor. That is option C.

What is a vertebrate?

A vertebrate can be defined as an organism that has backbone and is able to give birth to their young ones alive.

There are different types of vertebrate and they include the following:

fish, amphibians, reptiles, mammals and birds.

In comparative embryology, the embryos of two different organisms are observed to have similar features because they share common ancestor.

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Read each question carefully. Write your response in the space provided for each part of each question. Answers must be written out in paragraph form. Outlines, bulleted lists, or diagrams alone are not acceptable and will not be scored. Enolase is an enzyme that catalyzes one reaction in glycolysis in all organisms that carry out this process. The amino acid sequence of enolase is similar but not identical in the organisms. Researchers purified enolase from Saccharomyces cerevisiae, a single-celled eukaryotic yeast that grows best at 37°C, and from Chloroflexus aurantiacus, a bacterium that grows best at the much higher temperature of 55°C. The researchers compared the activity of purified enolase from the two organisms by measuring the rate of the reaction in the presence of varying concentrations of substrate and a constant amount of each enzyme at both 37°C and 55°C. (a) Depending on the organism, the optimal pH for enolase to catalyze its reaction is between 6.5 and 8.0. Describe how a pH below or above this range is likely to affect enolase and its catalytic ability. (b) Identify the appropriate negative control the researchers most likely used when measuring the reaction rate in the presence of each organism’s enolase. (c) The researchers predict that for any particular concentration of substrate, the C. aurantiacus enolase-catalyzed reaction is more rapid at 55°C than at 37°C. Provide reasoning to justify the researchers’ prediction.

Answers

The answers about enoalase activity from Chloroflexus aurantiacus and Saccharomyces cerevisiae:

a) The pH affects the tertiary structure of the enzyme and its active site.

b) An appropriate negative control would be a reaction mixture that contains all the components except for the enolase.

c) The reason why the C. aurantiacus enolase-catalyzed reaction is more rapid at 55°C is due to its optimal temperature of function.

Experiments about enolase

a) A pH below or above this range is likely to affect enolase and its catalytic ability because it can denature the enzyme and cause it to become non-functional. This is because a change in the pH affects the tertiary structure of the enzyme and its active site. This can alter the conformation of the active site and impair the binding of the enzyme and its substrate, making it unable to catalyze the reaction.

b) In an experiment, a negative control is a group or sample that does not receive the treatment or variable that is being tested. The appropriate negative control the researchers most likely used when measuring the reaction rate in the presence of each organism’s enolase is one without any substrate. This is to ensure that the reaction is not occurring due to the presence of the enzyme alone.

c) Enzymes have an optimal temperature at which they function most effectively, and this temperature varies between different organisms and enzymes. For the C. aurantiacus enolase, the optimal temperature for the function is likely to be closer to 55°C, the temperature at which the organism grows best.

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The arrow we draw to represent the weight of an object will always point
.

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As a resuIt, when we use arrοws tο symbοIize the weight οf these items, we draw them frοm the center οf mass tο the center οf the Earth.

Can weight be represented by a fοrce arrοw?

A fοrce arrοw pοinting verticaIIy dοwn frοm the center οf mass might symbοIize a bοdy's weight. The fοrce arrοw's path οf actiοn is represented by the arrοw shaft. The Iength οf the arrοw cοrreIates tο the amοunt οf the fοrce, with Iοnger arrοws representing bigger fοrces. The directiοn οf the arrοw cοrrespοnds tο the reaI directiοn οf the fοrce. Arrοws depict the strength and directiοn οf a fοrce.

The fοrce is shοwn by the directiοn οf the arrοw. The Iength οf the arrοw indicates the strength οf the fοrce. A smaIIer, weaker fοrce is represented by a shοrter arrοw, whereas a greater, strοnger fοrce is represented by a Iοnger arrοw.

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question - Where should an arrow representing weight be drawn on a diagram of an object?

a child believes that he is the long-lost son of a very wealthy couple. his blood type is O. his mothers blood type is type A and his fathers is type B. could he be their son? use data from a punnett square to support your answer.

Answers

Answer:

Yes one A and one B can make an O

Yes, a mother with blood type A and a father with blood type B can give birth to a son with blood type O.

what is the first event of an action potential potassium gates open and the membrane depolarizes.

Answers

The first event of an action potential is the opening of potassium gates and the depolarization of the membrane.

An action potential is the rapid change in polarity that occurs along the membrane of a neuron, which is generated by an influx of positively charged ions such as sodium and calcium into the neuron's cell body, followed by an efflux of positively charged potassium ions out of the cell body.

This depolarization process is initiated by the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane, which allows for the influx of sodium ions into the cell. Once the membrane potential reaches a threshold level, voltage-gated potassium channels open up, leading to the efflux of potassium ions from the cell.

This efflux of positively charged ions leads to the repolarization of the membrane, restoring its resting potential. The opening of potassium channels and the efflux of potassium ions is the first event of an action potential, which results in the depolarization of the membrane.

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During ____________ chemicals and cells that attack and destroy pathogens gather around the area of injury or infection?
a)inflammation
b)cellular respiration
c)mitosis
d)cytokinesis

Answers

A) Inflammation
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support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called

Answers

Support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called neuroglia, or simply glial cells (glia = glue).

The source of nerve impulses is a neuron, a nerve cell with all of its activities. The most prevalent kind of supporting cell is this one. They take part in the metabolic exchange between blood and neurons. Provide neurons a supporting framework and cover all of their non-synaptic components. Non-neuronal cells called neuroglia or glial cells assist and protect neurons in the central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous systems by forming myelin, maintaining homeostasis, and other functions (PNS).

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Supporting cells of the nervous system are collectively called _

A. Depolarization

B. Synapse

C. Endorphins

D. Peripheral nervous system

E. Hyperpolarization

F. Neuroglia

What human cells would have been the easiest to use, if we wanted to get our DNA? Why?

Answers

Answer:

The human cells that would be the easiest to use to obtain DNA are white blood cells (leukocytes). This is because white blood cells have a nucleus that contains DNA, while other cells such as red blood cells do not. White blood cells can be easily extracted from a blood sample, and the DNA can be extracted and purified using standard laboratory techniques. In addition, white blood cells are relatively abundant in the bloodstream and can be collected without the need for invasive procedures, making them a convenient and non-invasive source of DNA for various genetic testing and research purposes.

Explanation:

Answer:

The human cells that would have been the easiest to use to obtain our DNA are the ones that contain the most DNA and are easily accessible. Therefore, the cells that are most commonly used to obtain human DNA are the cells that make up the inner lining of the cheek, also known as buccal cells.

Buccal cells are easily accessible and can be collected using a simple and non-invasive method such as swabbing the inside of the cheek with a cotton swab. This is because the cells in the buccal epithelium are continuously shed and replaced, making it easy to obtain a sample of these cells.

Furthermore, buccal cells contain a relatively high concentration of DNA compared to other types of cells in the human body, making it easier to extract and purify the DNA from these cells.

Other cells that can be used to obtain DNA include blood cells, hair follicle cells, and skin cells, but these methods may require more invasive procedures or may yield lower amounts of DNA.
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