Can someone help me answer please

Step-by-step explanation:

again, a line cutting through 2 parallel lines must have the exact same angles with both of them. otherwise they would not be parallel.

therefore, both angles must be identical

3x + 2 = 2x + 6

x = 4

Problem 1

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Explanation:

The vertices are (-12,0) and (12,0). Both of which are on the same horizontal line. Because of this, we have a hyperbola that opens leftward and rightward. Such hyperbolas are of the form

[tex]\frac{(x-h)^2}{a^2}-\frac{(y-k)^2}{b^2}=1[/tex]

where (h,k) is the center and the a,b terms help set up the asymptotes.

The midpoint of the vertices (-12,0) and (12,0) is the point (0,0). This is the center. So we know that h = 0 and k = 0.

For left/right opening hyperbolas, the asymptotes can be described as the equations:

y = (b/a)x

y = (-b/a)x

Or we can condense them into [tex]y = \pm \frac{b}{a}x[/tex]. Compare this to the given equation [tex]y = \pm\frac{5}{12}x[/tex] to see that b = 5 and a = 12.

Therefore, we get the following:

[tex]\frac{(x-h)^2}{a^2}-\frac{(y-k)^2}{b^2}=1\\\\\frac{(x-0)^2}{12^2}-\frac{(y-0)^2}{5^2}=1\\\\\frac{x^2}{144}-\frac{y^2}{25}=1[/tex]

That points us to choice D.

You chose the correct answer.

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Problem 2

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Explanation:

Divide both sides by 3600 so we can turn that "3600" into "1". Then our goal is to get that "1" to its own side like so:

[tex]25x^2-144y^2 + 3600 = 0\\\\\frac{25x^2-144y^2 + 3600}{3600} = \frac{0}{3600}\\\\\frac{25x^2}{3600}-\frac{144y^2}{3600} + \frac{3600}{3600} = 0\\\\\frac{x^2}{144}-\frac{y^2}{25} + 1 = 0\\\\\frac{x^2}{144}-\frac{y^2}{25} = -1\\\\-\frac{x^2}{144}+\frac{y^2}{25} = 1\\\\-\frac{x^2}{12^2}+\frac{y^2}{5^2} = 1\\\\[/tex]

We see that a = 12 and b = 5 like earlier, so we end up with the same asymptotes as before. The only difference is that this hyperbola opens upward/downward rather than left/right.

You made the correct choice in picking answer A. Both of your answers are correct. Nice work.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: [tex]\frac{19}{14}[/tex] in improper form and [tex]1\frac{5}{14}[/tex] in mixed fraction form.

Step-by-step explanation: [tex]\frac{6}{7}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = ? First you have to find the LCM (Least Common Multiple) of 7 and 2; also known as the LCD (Least Common Denominator). The LCM of 7 and 2 is 14 so you have to multiply both of the fractions by the number that equals 14, remember to multiply it for the numerator too. [tex]\frac{6}{7}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{2}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{12}{14}[/tex] Then [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{7}{7}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{7}{14}[/tex] Now you add [tex]\frac{12}{14}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{7}{14}[/tex] together. You leave the denominator as 14 because you found the LCD of 7 and 2 already, so you add 12 and 7 together which gives you 19. The answer would be [tex]\frac{19}{14}[/tex] in improper fraction form and [tex]1\frac{5}{14}[/tex] in mixed fraction form.

The sum of the fraction 6/7 and 1/2 is 19/14

Given:

sum of 6/7 and 1/2

Sum means addition(+)

= 6/7 + 1/2

The least common denominator is 7 × 2 = 14

= 6/7 + 1/2

= (12+7) / 14

= 19/14

Therefore, the sum of 6/7 and 1/2 is 19/14

Learn more about fraction:

https://brainly.com/question/11562149

Answer:

10 to 11 would be correct

Answer:

10 to 11

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi can you translate into English then I would be happy to help

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

this is because a square has 4 and one side has a measurement of 2in

so you would and all the sides (2+2+2+2) which will give you an answer of 8

Answer:674.475

Step-by-step explanation:

(690)(0.15)= 103.5

690-103.5= 586.5 (after first markdown)

(586.5)(0.15)= 87.975

586.5+87.975 (Final price after markup)

Step-by-step explanation:

Need to find out total hours and total pay and simplify the answer.

Total Hours = 1+2+3+4+5+6 = 21

Total Pay = 25+40+55+70+85+100 = 375

Pay ÷ Hours = 375 ÷ 21 = 17.86

Not convinced with this answer tbh but it's what I got.

Answer:

2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Try to make equal sections. The fraction they are asking for has the shaded number of sections on top (this us called the numerator) and the total number of sections on the bottom (this is called the denominator) see image

Answer:

The answer is going to be A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=-2x+4

Step-by-step explanation:

Since it is parallel, it has to have the same slope m=-2. Just use the equation y-y=m(x-x) to solve the equation of the line.

[tex]y-y_0=m(x-x_0)\\y-(-2)=-2(x-3)\\y+2=-2x+6\\y=-2x+4[/tex]

It's probably 52 or 40.

Answer:

630

Step-by-step explanation:

the value of 7 in the tenths place is 70

the value of 7 in the hundredths place is 700

compare 700 and 70

So 700-70 = 630

[tex]W(-2,-1) \to \\W \ ' \ (-4,4)\\\\X(0,2) \to \\X \ ' \ (0,4)\\\\Y(3,-1) \to \\Y \ ' \ (6,-2)\\\\V(-2,-1) \to \\V \ ' \ (-4,-2)\\\\[/tex]

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Explanation:

The scale factor is 2, which means we double each coordinate of each point. The general rule is [tex](x,y) \to (kx,ky)[/tex] with k = 2. So we can say the more specific dilation rule is [tex](x,y) \to (2x,2y)[/tex]

Something like W(-2,2) moves to W ' (-4, 4) after multiplying each coordinate by 2. Do the same for the other points as well.

The given preimage points

will dilate to the corresponding image points

as shown below. This causes the image to be larger compared to the preimage (since the scale factor is larger than 1). Any given point is twice as far from the origin as compared to before, which in turn means the distance between any two points is twice as much.

Answer:

If I am wrong I appologize I haven't done this math in years

Step-by-step explanation:

60÷7= 8.57

so each mile takes 8.57 mins

24÷8.57= 2.8 miles

Answer:

Its Number of Seats

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$572

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\huge \bf༆ Answer ༄[/tex]

Let's solve ~

Probabilities are used to determine the chances of events.

The given parameters:

[tex]n = 5[/tex] ---- the number of candy bars

[tex]p = 40\%[/tex] ---- the probability of selling a candy bar

(a) Name distributions

The distribution of X is represented as:

[tex]X \sim(r,p)[/tex]

Where:

[tex]r = 5[/tex]

[tex]p= \frac{5\times 40\%}{10}[/tex]

[tex]p= 0.2[/tex]

So, the name distribution of X is [tex]X \sim(r= 5,p = 0.2)[/tex]

(b) The probability that the last candy is sold at the 11th house

This means that:

[tex]n = 10[/tex] --- the number of previous houses

[tex]r = 4[/tex] --- the previous number of candies

[tex]p = 0.4[/tex] --- the given probability of selling a candy

The probability is calculated using:

[tex]P(x = n+1) = ^{n}C_r \times p^{r +1} \times (1 - p)^{n-r}[/tex]

This gives

[tex]P(x = 10+1) = ^{10}C_4 \times 0.4^{4 +1} \times (1 - 0.4)^{10-4}[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = ^{10}C_4 \times 0.4^{5} \times (0.6)^6[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = 210 \times 0.4^5 \times 0.6^6[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = 0.1003290624[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]P(x = 11) = 0.1003[/tex]

Hence, the probability that the last candy is sold at the 11th house is 0.1003

(b) The probability he sells the candies on or before the 8th house

The probability is calculated using:

[tex]P(x \le 8) = P(5 \le x \le 8)[/tex]

This gives

[tex]P(x \le 8) = ^{10}C_5 \times 0.4^{6} \times (0.6)^5 + ^{10}C_6 \times 0.4^{7} \times (0.6)^4 + ^{10}C_7 \times 0.4^{8} \times (0.6)^3 +^{10}C_8 \times 0.4^{9} \times (0.6)^2[/tex]

[tex]P(x = 11) = 0.1737[/tex] ---- approximated

Hence, the probability he sells the candies on or before the 8th house is 0.1737

Read more about probabilities at:

https://brainly.com/question/251701

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

If p = 14

rewrite the equation

so replace the variable with 14.

now do basic subtraction.

14 - 8

= 6

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

We use the slope formula to find the slope

m = ( y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

    = ( 7-2)/(5-6)

    = 5/-1

    = -5

Let's simplify step-by-step.

[tex]12a^2*b^4-36a^2*b+44abc=[/tex]

There are no like terms.

Answer:

[tex]12a^2*b^4-36a^2*b+44abc=[/tex]

Answer:

the answer is in the site faith mate is the same question and in that site have the response np

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

They are equal acute triangles, are congurent. Your welcom

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

that's how it is done hope it will help

Answer:

the answer is : 180° - (61° +61°) = 58°