At a certain instant, a proton is moving in the positive x direction through a magnetic field in the negative z direction. What is the direction of the magnetic force exerted on the proton

Answer:

Thermal Energy

Explanation:

Answer:

Divide by 1000

Explanation:

Explanation:

When sound travels in a given "medium", it would touch the surface of another "medium" and will bounce back in some other direction, this occurrence is called the reflection of sound.

We are given:

the initial height of the object (h) = 100 m

initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s

we will let the value of g = 10 m/s/s

Speed of the object just before hitting the ground:

From the third equation of motion:

v² - u² = 2ah     (where v is the final velocity)

replacing the variables, we get:

v² - (0)² = 2(10)(100)

v² = 2000

v = 10√20 = 44.7 m/s

Therefore, the speed of the object just before hitting the ground is 44.7 m/s

Answer:

It is si-32

Explanation:

Answer:

silicon-32

Explanation:

just took the quiz and got it right

Answer:

Explanation:

The volume of a substance when given the density and mass can be found by using the formula

[tex]volume = \frac{mass}{density} \\[/tex]

From the question

mass = 10 g

density = 87 g/ml

We have

[tex]volume = \frac{10}{87} \\ = 0.114942528...[/tex]

We have the final answer as

Hope this helps you

Answer:

(a) The work done by the gas on the surroundings is, 17537.016 J

(b) The entropy change of the gas is, 73.0709 J/K

(c) The entropy change of the gas is equal to zero.

Explanation:

(a) The expression used for work done in reversible isothermal expansion will be,

where,

w = work done = ?

n = number of moles of gas  = 4 mole

R = gas constant = 8.314 J/mole K

T = temperature of gas  = 240 K

= initial volume of gas  =  

= final volume of gas  =  

Now put all the given values in the above formula, we get:

The work done by the gas on the surroundings is, 17537.016 J

(b) Now we have to calculate the entropy change of the gas.

As per first law of thermodynamic,

where,

= internal energy

q = heat

w = work done

As we know that, the term internal energy is the depend on the temperature and the process is isothermal that means at constant temperature.

So, at constant temperature the internal energy is equal to zero.

Thus, w = q = 17537.016 J

Formula used for entropy change:

The entropy change of the gas is, 73.0709 J/K

(c) Now we have to calculate the entropy change of the gas when the expansion is reversible and adiabatic instead of isothermal.

As we know that, in adiabatic process there is no heat exchange between the system and surroundings. That means, q = constant = 0

So, from this we conclude that the entropy change of the gas must also be equal to zero.

Explanation:

Answer:

The maximum torque on the loop is 395.80 N.m.

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns of the wire, N = 150 turns

length of the square loop, L = 18.0 cm = 0.18 m

current in the wire, I = 50.9 A

Magnetic field, B = 1.6 T

Maximum torque on the loop is given by;

τ = NIAB

τ = (150)(50.9)(0.18²)(1.6)

τ = 395.80 N.m

Therefore, the maximum torque on the loop is 395.80 N.m.

Answer: D 160kg object moving 126 m/s

Explanation:

An object having a mass of 162 kg and moving with a velocity of 124 m/sec will require the greatest amount of force to change its motion. The correct option is D.

Force is defined as the push or pull applied to the body. Sometimes it is used to change the shape, size, and direction of the body.

If the object has to stop, the final velocity must be zero. If the time is constant, the amount of force only depends on the mass and the velocity at which the body is moving.

The amount of force on the object depends on the momentum of the body.

The momentum of the body is;

P = mv

Object D will require the greatest amount of force to change its motion. Because the momentum of the body for option D is the greatest.

Hence, the correct option is D.

Learn more about the Force, here;

https://brainly.com/question/26115859

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Answer:

the intellectual and practical activity encompassing the systematic study of the structure and behaviour of the physical and natural world through observation and experiment.

Explanation:

Answer:

(a). Mario's speed in m/s = 5.2 × 10^-3 m/s.

Bowser Jr.'s speeds in m/s = 3.92 × 10^-3 m/s.

(b). 27001.2 seconds(s)..

(c). 141 metre(m).

Explanation:

So, the following data or parameters or information was given in the question above. These informations are going to help us in solving this question or problem;

=>" Bowser Jr. then passes Mario at his top speed = 30 blocks/h.

=> " Mario quickly accelerates and reaches his top speed of 40 blocks/h in order to catch back up and pass Bowser Jr., but by this point he has opened up a 75 block head start down the track."

=> "Mario world measure distance using the units of blocks, with 1 block = 0.47 m"

Therefore, the solution is given below;

(1). For the first part, we are to determine or calculate Mario and Bowser Jr.'s speeds in m/s.

Therefore, Mario's speed in m/s = 40 × 0.47) ÷ 3600 = 5.2 × 10^-3 m/s.

Also, Bowser Jr.'s speeds in m/s = ( 30 × 0.47) ÷ 3600 = 3.92 × 10^3 m/s.

(2). So, the next thing to do now.is to determine or calculate how long it took for Mario to catch Bowser Jr.

Thus, the time it took for Mario to catch Bowser Jr. Can be related as below;

[ ( 5.2 × 10^-3 m/s) - (3.92 × 10^-3 m/s) × (time,t taken for Mario to catch Bowser Jr.) = 75 × 0.47.

Therefore, the time it took for Mario to catch Bowser Jr. = 27001.2 seconds.

(3). Now, we calculate How far down the track Mario from the point at which he reaches his top speed.

The distance = 5.2 × 10^-3 m/s × 27001.2m = 141m

Answer:

Dividing the silicon density by 1000 and then multiply it by 1000000.

Explanation:

A kilogram equals 1000 grams and a cubic meter equals 1000000 cubic centimeters. Hence, we must divide the silicon density by 1000 and then multiply itby 1000000 to convert the value into kilograms per cubic centimeter. That is:

[tex]x = 2.33\,\frac{g}{cm^{3}}\times \frac{1\,kg}{1000\,g}\times \frac{1000000\,cm^{3}}{1\,m^{3}}[/tex]

[tex]x = 2330\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}[/tex]

In a nutshell, we must multiply the density of silicon by 1000 to obtains its value in kilograms per cubic meter.

Answer:

We are given:

V1 = 5.5L          T1 = -38 C   or   235 k

V2 = 1.3L           T2 = T

From the gas equation:

PV = nRT

Since the pressure (P) , number of moles (n) and the universal gas constant (R) are constants, we can write the same equation as:

V / T = k  (where k is a constant)

so a bit more insight, since the values noted above are constant, when multiplied by each other, they will provide us with a constant number irrespective of the value of the variables

Changing the variables for the first case:

V1 / T1 = k   (where k is the same constant) ----------------(1)

Similarly,

V2 / T2 = k  (again, k has the same value)----------------(2)

From (1) and (2):

k is the common value

V1 / T1 = V2 / T2

Replacing the variables

5.5 / 235 = 1.3 / T

T = 1.3 * 235 / 5.5

T = 55.54 k

Therefore, at 55.54 K the gas will have a volume of 1.3L

Answer: I'm pretty sure the answer is B

Explanation: I'll check after the test

:Okay yes the answer is 100% B

The direction of the magnetic field shown by the magnetic field lines around a magnet is from north to its south pole of magnet. Option B is correct.

Magnetic Field Lines:

These are the imaginary lines that are used to represent the strength of the magnetic field.

Therefore, the direction of the magnetic field shown by the magnetic field lines around a magnet is from north to its south pole of magnet.

To know more about Magnetic Field Lines,

https://brainly.com/question/17011493

Answer:

Please find the answer in the explanation

Explanation:

Take the regular compass and hold it so the case is vertical. Now use it to investigate the direction of the coil’s magnetic field at locations other than the central axis.

What happens as you move away from the center axis toward the coil? The direction of the magnetic compass needle will move in an opposite direction since the direction of the induced voltage is reversed.

What happens above the coil?

the needle on the magnetic compass will be deflected. Since compasses work by pointing along magnetic field lines

Outside the coil? The magnetic compass needle will experience no deflection. Since there is no induced voltage or current.

Below the coil?

The needle will move in an opposite direction.

Answer:

Acceleration = m/s²

Explanation:

T= Newtons compared to the weight W = Newtons for the hanging mass. If the weight of the hanging mass is less than the frictional resistance force acting on the mass on the table, then the acceleration will be zero.

Answer:

The speed as it reaches the bottom is  24m/s

Explanation:

Given parameters:

   Height of hill  = (3 x 9.8)m = 29.4m

Unknown:

Final speed as it reaches the bottom = ?

Solution:

 To solve this problem, we apply;

    v² = u² + 2gh

v is the final velocity

u is the initial velocity

g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s²

h is the height

note, the initial speed of the body is 0;

Input the parameters and solve;

    v² = 0² + 2 x 9.8 x 29.4

   v² = 576.24

   v = √576.24  = 24m/s

The speed as it reaches the bottom is  24m/s

Answer:

A Cell

Explanation:

Answer:

The net force on an object is the total force applied on the object after adding  up all the forces

In the given diagram,

we can see that the 2 forces of 4N and 4N will cancel each other out since they are equal and in the opposite direction

Now, we are left with a force of 2N and 10N,

the net force will be the difference of these forces:

Net force = 10N - 2N

Net force = 8N downwards

Another way to do it:

The two 4N forces will be cancelled out,

and we are left with a 2N and a 10N force

(notice how we cancelled equal and opposite forces for the 4N)

We can divide the 10N force into (2N + 8N)

Since the 2N forces are equal and opposite, they will be cancelled out

and we will be left with a net force of 8N downwards

Answer:

a. diamonds

Explanation:

solid is the matter that has definite shape and definite volume. One good example is a diamond because contains particles that are strongly attract to each other.

Answer: yes it can

Explanation:

Answer:

Yes you can. You need to eat healthy and have the proper diet and always exercise and build muscles, this can slow down aging, and most importantly, we must always be calm. However there is no way to stop aging for that’s part of life.

Explanation:

Hi there! :)

Find the acceleration by finding the change in velocity over time:

(vf - vi) / (time) = acceleration over the interval

*Remember, an object at rest has a velocity of 0 mph, and use the correct units for speed that would result in an acceleration involving meters / seconds.*

(27 - 0) / (2.2) = 27 / 2.2 ≈ 12.27 m/s²

Answer:

d = 150 km

Explanation:

Speed of an airplane is 600 km/h

We need to find how far it travel in 1/4 hour.

We know that the speed of an object is given by distance travelled divided by the time taken. Let d is the distance covered in 1/4 hour. So,

[tex]v=\dfrac{d}{t}\\\\d=v\times t\\\\d=600\ km/h \times \dfrac{1}{4}\ h\\\\d=150\ km[/tex]

So, it will cover 150 km.

Answer:

Explanation:

graphing is helpful

helps visualize the line

of your equation

Answer:

It is independent of the path of the body and depends only on the starting and ending points.

Explanation:

In Physics we define a conservative force as a force that is independent of the path of the body and depends only on the starting and ending points.

For conservative forces we can write;

KEi + PEi = KEf +PEf

where;

KEi= initial kinetic energy

PEi= initial potential energy

KEf= final kinetic energy

PEf= final potential energy

This equation is known as the principle conservation of mechanical energy . It applies only to conservative forces where friction is negligible. The term KE + PE  is also known as the total mechanical energy of the system.

Answer:

The period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 seconds.

Explanation:

To determine the period of that same pendulum on the moon,

First, we will determine the value of g (which is a measure of the strength of Earth's gravity) on the Moon. Let the value of g on the Moon be [tex]g_{M}[/tex].

From the question, the strength of earth’s gravity is only 1/6th of the normal value. The normal value of g is 9.8 m/s²

∴ [tex]g_{M}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{6} \times 9.8 m/s^{2}[/tex]

[tex]g_{M}[/tex] = 1.63 m/s²

From the question, T=2π√L/g

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g} }[/tex]

We can write that,

[tex]T_{E} = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{E} } }[/tex] .......... (1)

Where [tex]T_{E}[/tex] is the period of the pendulum on Earth and [tex]g_{E}[/tex] is the measure of the strength of Earth's gravity

and

[tex]T_{M} = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{M} } }[/tex] .......... (2)

Where [tex]T_{M}[/tex] is the period of the pendulum on Moon and [tex]g_{M}[/tex] is the measure of the strength of Earth's gravity on the Moon.

Since we are to determine the period of the same pendulum on the moon, then, [tex]2\pi[/tex] and [tex]L[/tex] are constants.

Dividing equation (1) by (2), we get

[tex]\frac{T_{E} }{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{g_{M} }{g_{E} } }[/tex]

From the question,

[tex]T_{E} = 4.9secs[/tex]

[tex]g_{E}[/tex] = 9.8 m/s²

[tex]g_{M}[/tex] = 1.63 m/s²

[tex]T_{M}[/tex] = ??

From,

[tex]\frac{T_{E} }{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{g_{M} }{g_{E} } }[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4.9}{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{1.63}{9.8} }[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4.9}{T_{M} } = 0.40783[/tex]

[tex]T_{M} =\frac{4.9}{0.40783 }[/tex]

[tex]T_{M} = 12.01 secs[/tex]

∴ [tex]T_{M} = 12.0secs[/tex]

Hence, the period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 seconds.

Answer:

The period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 s

Explanation:

Given;

period of a pendulum’s swinging, T=2π√L/g

the strength of earth’s gravity on moon, g₂ = ¹/₆(g₁)

period of pendulum on Earth, T₁ = 4.9 s

period of pendulum on moon, T₂ = ?

The length of the pendulum is constant, make it the subject of the formula;

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g} }\\\\\frac{T}{2\pi} = \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\\\\(\frac{T}{2\pi} )^2 =\frac{L}{g}\\\\\frac{T^2}{4\pi^2} = \frac{L}{g}\\\\ L = \frac{gT^2}{4\pi^2}\\\\L_1 = L_2\\\\\frac{g_1T_1^2}{4\pi^2}= \frac{g_2T_2^2}{4\pi^2}\\\\g_1T_1^2 = g_2T_2^2\\\\T_2^2 = \frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_2} \\\\T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_2}}\\\\ T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_1/6}}\\\\ T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{6*g_1T_1^2}{g_1}}\\\\T_2 = \sqrt{6T_1^2}\\\\ T_2 = T_1\sqrt{6} \\\\T_2 = (4.9)\sqrt{6}\\\\ T_2 = 12.0 \ s[/tex]

Therefore, the period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 s

Answer:

Explanation:

If the ray were not deviated, it would travel straight through the mirror. Due to the mirror, the incident ray is reflected at 30°. The ray travels 30° + 30° = 60°. The angle of deviation is 180° - 60° = 120°.