The correct option is C 70-80
In a normal man, the average heart beat is 72 times per minute.
But it may vary from 70-80 beats per minute.
What is heart beat?
Heart rate is the number of times your heart beats per minute. Your body automatically adjusts your heart rate to match what you are doing or what is happening around you. This is why your heart rate increases when you are active, excited, or scared, and decreases when you are resting, calm, or comfortable.To know more about heart beat, click the link given below:
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The answer is E. 4 x 109. This is because an average human heart beats 72 times per minute, and there are 60 minutes in an hour and 24 hours in a day.
What is heart beat?
Heart beat is the sound made by the contraction of the heart muscle. It is the basic physiological process that maintains life and is critical for the proper functioning of the body's organs. The heart's rhythm, or pulse, is the number of times it beats in one minute. Typically, a healthy heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. An abnormal rhythm or rate may be an indication of a heart problem. In addition to the regular rhythm, the heart also has a normal pattern of electrical activity that can be measured by an electrocardiogram (ECG). Abnormalities in this pattern can help diagnose certain cardiac conditions.
Thus, the average human heart will beat 72 x 60 x 24 = 103680 times per day. Multiplying this number by 365 (days in a year) gives us 3.8 x 109, which is approximately equal to 4 x 109.
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severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the: group of answer choices excess vitreous humor forms. pupils are dilated. pupils are constricted. lens changes shape.
A severe pain can be found to have developed with the narrow-angle glaucoma when the pupils are dilated.
Hence, the correct option is B. Pupils are dilated.
Narrow-angle glaucoma can be categorized as a type of glaucoma which has the ability to develop suddenly and might also lead to sudden as well as a permanent loss of eye-sight. Narrow-angle glaucoma can be attributed to the cause of less than 10% of all the glaucoma diagnosis, but it can cause an immense pain and a sudden loss of sight and may be even blindness.
Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the iris and the cornea. A severe pain can develop when the pupils are dilated.
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All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye, except that it ______. consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea.
In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do (select all that apply)?
a. Roll from abdomen to back.
b. Put feet in mouth when supine.
c. Roll from back to abdomen.
d. Sit erect without support.
e. Move from prone to sitting position.
In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do: Roll from the abdomen to back Option A, Put feet in the mouth when supine Option B, Roll from back to abdomen Option C.
.As a nurse, it is important to have an understanding of typical gross motor development in infants. Gross motor development refers to the development of physical movements such as crawling, walking, and running.
At 5 months old, a nurse would expect an infant to be able to do certain physical movements.a. Roll from the abdomen to back - This is a common movement that a nurse would expect a 5-month-old infant to be able to do. Rolling from the abdomen to the back helps the infant to strengthen their neck, shoulder, and upper body muscles.
b. Put feet in the mouth when supine - Infants often use their feet to explore and play with their environment, including putting their feet in their mouth. A nurse would expect a 5-month-old infant to be able to do this when lying on their back.
c. Roll from the back to the abdomen - This movement is the opposite of rolling from the abdomen to the back. It is another common movement that a nurse would expect a 5-month-old infant to be able to do and helps to strengthen their neck, shoulder, and upper body muscles.
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What historical public health achievements have public health nurses contributed to? (select all A- first to identify sanitation as a source of disease B- an increase in healthierthat apply)mothers and babies C-implementation of sanitationlaws and policiesD- improvements in family planning and educationE- a decrease in the spread ofinfectious diseases
All, A- first to identify sanitation as a source of disease, C- implementation of sanitation laws and policies, D- improvements in family planning and education, E- a decrease in the spread of infectious diseases.
Public health nurses have contributed significantly to several historical public health achievements, including: A. First to identify sanitation as a source of disease: Public health nurses were among the first to recognize the importance of clean water and proper waste disposal in reducing the spread of disease. B. An increase in healthier mothers and babies: Public health nurses have also played a crucial role in improving maternal and child health. They have provided prenatal care and education, as well as delivered critical services to mothers and children in their homes. C. Implementation of sanitation laws and policies: Public health nurses have been instrumental in advocating for and implementing policies that promote safe and healthy environments. D. Improvements in family planning and education: Public health nurses have also worked to improve access to family planning services and education. E. A decrease in the spread of infectious diseases: Finally, public health nurses have played a critical role in controlling the spread of infectious diseases. They have conducted disease surveillance and investigations, and provided education and resources to communities on how to prevent the spread of diseases like tuberculosis, HIV/AIDS, and other communicable diseases. Through their efforts, the incidence of infectious diseases has been reduced and overall public health has improved.
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Georgia asks her nutritionist about consuming fats in her diet. What is the most accurate advice for the nutritionist to offer georgia?.
A gluten-free diet excludes foods made with enriched wheat flour, such as bread, cereal, and pasta. in the united states and canada, wheat flour is enriched with which nutrients?
Iron, folic acid, and other B vitamins like niacin and thiamin are frequently added to enriched wheat flour in the United States and Canada.
Foods prepared with enhanced wheat flour, a form of grain that has had specific nutrients added back in after processing, are prohibited on a gluten-free diet.
As processing can deplete the flour of vital nutrients, these nutrients are put back into the flour to assist boost the nutritional content of bread, cereal, and pasta items prepared using enriched wheat flour.
Although those who have celiac disease or non-celiac gluten sensitivity must follow a gluten-free diet, it's crucial to understand that not all gluten-free goods are fortified with the same vitamins and minerals as enriched wheat flour.
As a result, those who follow a gluten-free diet may need to take supplements or pick gluten-free goods that have been fortified with the same nutrients as enhanced wheat flour.
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the nurse is changing the appliance on a urinary stoma. what would the nurse place over the stoma after removing the old appliance?
The nurse is changing the appliance on a urinary stoma.The nurse place over the stoma after removing the old appliance is Gauze squares.
The nurse lays a waterproof pad under the patient and dons gloves (Gauze squares )before replacing the device on a urinary stoma. Put the urinary appliance's contents in a graduated container. A stoma (artificial opening) is made for the urinary system by surgery during a urostomy. When it is impossible to drain urine through the bladder and urethra, such as after major surgery or in situations of blockage, a urostomy is created to allow for urinary diversion. A tiny bowel segment is used to create an artificial bladder during a "continent urostomy." This is made into a pouch that may be periodically emptied using a catheter. It eliminates the requirement for a urostomy stoma bag.
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What are the short and long-term physical impacts of physical activity as a positive lifestyle choice?
shortly after medicare was established, congress limited reasonable charges. (True/False)
Shortly after medicare was established, congress limited reasonable charges. Yes, this statement is true.
What are the benefits of medicare?Medicare is a government national health insurance program in the United States, begun in 1965 under the Social Security Administration and now administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
Medicare is the federal health insurance program for: People who are 65 or older. Certain younger people with disabilities. People with End-Stage Renal Disease (permanent kidney failure requiring dialysis or a transplant, sometimes called ESRD).
Be age 65 or older; Be a U.S. resident; AND. Be either a U.S. citizen, OR. Be an alien who has been lawfully admitted for permanent residence and has been residing in the United States for 5 continuous years prior to the month of filing an application for Medicare.
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Which reproductive system disorder is the inability to achieve or maintain an erection?
Match each statement to the type of specific Immunity it most accurately describes to test your understanding of the specific immune states. Artificial Immunity Passive immunity Natural Immunity Active immunity Match each of the options above to the terms below A person's own body produces B and T cell responses to antigen stimulus An Individual receives immune substances that were produced by another host Immunity is acquired through normal life experiences, not through medical intervention Immunity is obtained through medical procedures such as Immunizations
Artificial Immunity, Natural Immunity , Active Immunity, Passive Immunity type of specific immunity it most accurately describes to test your understanding of the specific immune states.
Artificial Immunity = Immunity is obtained through medical procedures such as immunizations.
Natural Immunity = Immunity is acquired through normal life experiences, not through medical intervention.
Active Immunity = One's own body produces B- and T-cell responses to antigen stimulus.
Passive Immunity = Individual receives immune substances that were produced by another host.
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what is not true about a 3-way match?
One thing that is not true about a 3-way match is : It contrasts the physical count of the inventory with accounting records and the inventory's value.
False claims regarding 3-way matches include those that it only requires two papers, rather than three, or that it is infrequently utilised outside of specific businesses.
In accounting and purchasing, a 3-way match is a procedure where the purchase order, receiving report, and invoice are compared to each other to make sure the right things have been received and the right amount has been billed.
A method of payment verification called three-way matching can be used to confirm the legitimacy of a supplier invoice.
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important 200 medications to know
For instance, certain medications may mix dangerously with certain foods, other drugs, or even nutritional supplements and cause severe harm to you.
Spend some time learning about the therapy that has been recommended. You need to be familiar with the names of your medications and be knowledgeable about all the critical details pertaining to how they work. Preparing for the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam requires studying the top 200 medications (PTCE). While equations receive a lot of attention, a considerably greater component of the exam is made up of information about medications. Street names for heroin include "junk," "smack," "skag," "H," "brown," "white horse," "harry," and "boy." Cocaine is known on the streets under the names coke, crack, rock, Charlie, snow, dust, and yay-yo. Using information gathered from user searches and poll results, the top 200 list was created.
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an iacuc (institutional animal care and use committee) is the committee that decides whether to provide funding for scientists’ experiments.. T/F
False. An Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) is responsible for ensuring that animal research is conducted in an ethical and humane manner, but they do not provide funding for scientists' experiments.
The IACUC reviews and approves research protocols to ensure that the use of animals is justified and that measures are taken to minimize harm to the animals. The role of the IACUC is to ensure that animal research is conducted in accordance with federal regulations and guidelines, and to ensure that the well-being of animals used in research is protected. Funding for research projects typically comes from a variety of sources, such as government agencies, foundations, or private organizations.
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True. An Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) is the committee responsible for reviewing, approving, and monitoring all research involving animals.
The IACUC is responsible for ensuring that animal research is conducted in accordance with federal regulations, and that the animals used in research are afforded humane care and treatment. The IACUC is also responsible for deciding whether to provide funding for scientists’ experiments.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. petra likes to eat 2 hard-cooked eggs for lunch. according to the usda, she could consume about the same amount of protein by substituting ______ for the 2 eggs. (check all that apply.)
Answer:
yokl
Explanation:
Option A and C. 2 tablespoons of peanut butter; 2 ounces of cooked chicken. 1 ounce of roast beef, 1/2 cup of ordinary tofu, and 1/2 ounce of sunflower seeds.
The majority of people may consume a high-protein diet consisting of meat, fish, dairy products, beans and other legumes, eggs, and reasonably high-protein plants like asparagus and spinach. Katherine Zeratsky, R.D., L.D.'s response When followed for a brief period, a high-protein diet usually has no negative effects on the majority of healthy people. These diets may aid in weight loss by increasing your feeling of fullness. But if you consume a lot of protein over an extended period of time, several health problems could arise.
The complete question is:
Petra likes to eat 2 hard-cooked eggs for lunch. According to the USDA, she could consume about the same amount of protein by substituting __ for the 2 eggs.
A. 2 ounces of cooked chicken; 2 tablespoons of peanut butter.
B. 4 ounces of cooked chicken; 3 tablespoons of peanut butter.
C. 1/2 ounce of sunflower seeds; 1 ounce of roast beef; 1/2 cup of regular tofu.
D. 1 ounce of sunflower seeds; 1/2 ounce of roast beef; 2 cup of regular tofu.
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Why is academic integrity important in the nursing profession?
Maintaining academic integrity is critical for nurses as it sets the bar for ethical and responsible behavior.
Adhering to professional standards with honesty, integrity and respect allows nurses to show commitment to ethical practice and to preserve the trust of their patients. Academic integrity is important to uphold the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics and its high standards.
Moreover, nurses must stay informed and knowledgeable on the latest evidence-based practice to provide the best care possible. Keeping up-to-date with current standards of care and being aware of the ever-changing healthcare environment is also essential for nurses.
Finally, academic integrity helps protect the public by providing safe and effective care and protecting the nursing profession from any potential legal or ethical issues.
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What are the components of safe, effective care? Select all thatapply. InformaticsEvidence-based practice Quality improvement High patient to RN ratios Patient-centered care
components of safe, effective care are Evidence-based practice, Quality improvement and Patient-centered care. these brings out better results.
A person receives effective care when their needs and preferences are taken into consideration, and when the care, treatment, and support are administered in accordance with the law, industry standards, and scientifically supported recommendations. Staff members are equipped with the abilities, expertise, and experience necessary to provide high-quality treatment. People are exhorted to eat healthily and drink in moderation while keeping a balanced diet. To provide excellent treatment, staff and teams must collaborate well across an organisation. In addition to having access to resources and continuing assistance, people are encouraged to lead healthy lives. Respecting the unique demands of each patient, the facilities are modified, embellished, and planned to provide a welcoming atmosphere. The law requires that consent for treatment be obtained at all times. based on scientific data According to the most recent research and recommendations, patient care should be provided.
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What is the difference between Fowler's position and high Fowler's position?
There are several variations of this Fowler's position, such as low Fowler's, in which the head of a bed is elevated by 15 to 30 degrees, semi- Fowler's, when the patient is positioned nearly vertically.
What is the purpose of Fowler's position?For shoulder surgeries and neurosurgery, the Fowler's position, commonly known as the sitting position, is frequently employed. For abdominoplasty, breast reduction, and nose operations, the deckchair position is frequently used.
Which position is most advantageous for lowered cardiac output?When fluid excess is the culprit, standing up is advised to lessen preload and ventricular filling. The patient should be positioned supine. Supine stance enhances venous return and encourages diuresis in cases of hypovolemia.
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the needle is advanced and gentle bone contact is made for which injection? group of answer choices buccal ia gow-gates ia and gow-gates all options listed
For buccal, gow-gates, and gow-gates injection, a sophisticated needle is used with delicate bone contact.
In 75% of cases, the Gow-Gates anaesthetizes the buccal nerve, lingual, mylohyoid, auriculotemporal, and the inferior alveolar as well as its terminal branches (incisive and mental).For buccal, gow-gates, and gow-gates injection, a sophisticated needle is used with delicate bone contact.In order to use the Gow-Gates approach, the patient's mouth must be open wide. The dentist will then attempt to place a small amount of local anaesthetic close to a mandibular branch of a trigeminal nerve after the exits the foramen ovale, just anterior to a neck of the condyle.
When the traditional inferior alveolar nerve blockade (IA block) is ineffective and soft-tissue anaesthetic is required from the most distal molar to midline, the Gow-Gates approach is advised for use in quadrant dentistry.
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method of opening the airway with a suspected neck injury
If a person has a suspected neck injury, it is important to open their airway carefully to avoid exacerbating the injury. The recommended method for opening the airway in this situation is the "jaw thrust" maneuver:
Positioning: The person should be lying flat on their back, with their head and neck in a neutral position.
Maneuver: The rescuer should kneel at the head of the person and place the palms of their hands on either side of the person's face. They should then gently lift the person's jaw with their hands while keeping the neck in a neutral position. This will open the airway and allow air to flow freely.
Stabilization: Once the airway is open, the rescuer should stabilize the head and neck by placing their hands on either side of the head, and use their thumbs to gently lift the jaw. This will help to maintain the open airway and prevent the neck from moving.
It is important to remember that suspected neck injuries should be handled with caution and only by trained medical professionals. If possible, it is always best to seek immediate medical attention in these situations.
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What are three ways athletes can maximize replenishment of their muscle glycogen stores after intense training sessions or a competitive event?
Athletes can maximize replenishment of muscle glycogen stores through the following three methods:
Consuming a high-carbohydrate meal or snack as soon as possible after intense training or competition.
Including carbohydrates in all meals and snacks for the rest of the day.
Engaging in additional low- to moderate-intensity exercise, such as an easy jog, to stimulate insulin release and increase muscle glycogen uptake.
Athletes need to replenish their muscle glycogen stores after intense training sessions or competitions in order to perform at their best in future events. There are three key ways to do this: first, consume a high-carbohydrate meal or snack immediately after the event. This will quickly begin to refill glycogen stores. Second, include carbohydrates in all meals and snacks for the rest of the day to continue the replenishment process. Third, engage in additional low- to moderate-intensity exercise, such as an easy jog or bike ride, to stimulate insulin release and help the muscles absorb glucose, which is converted into glycogen. By following these three steps, athletes can ensure that their muscles are properly refueled and ready for their next challenge.
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The nurse has identified a clinical problem as a potential research question. The next step should be:
a. identify the variables.
b. formulate the research hypothesis.
c. perform a literature review.
d. determine financial resources for the research project.
Option A. he nurse has identified a clinical problem as a potential research question. The next step should be Identify the variables.
The next step after identifying a clinical problem as a potential research question is to identify the variables. Variables are the factors that are thought to have an effect on the outcome being studied. In this stage, the researcher must define the variables clearly and determine the relationship between the variables and the problem being studied. For example, the researcher may consider identify the variables such as age, gender, medication use, and disease severity in a study on a specific health condition. This step is crucial in helping to focus the potential research question, clarifying the problem, and making the potential research study easier to design and carry out. Proper identification of variables will also help ensure the validity and reliability of the research results.
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how many grams of fiber are in two servings of this cereal?
If one serving of the cereal has 4g of dietary fiber, then two servings will have 4 x 2 = 8g of dietary fiber.
Dietary fiber is an essential part of a healthy diet as it provides several health benefits such as aiding digestion and reducing the risk of certain diseases. The nutritional facts listed indicate that the cereal contains 4g of total dietary fiber, with 2g of it being soluble fiber and the other 2g being insoluble fiber. Soluble fiber dissolves in water and forms a gel-like substance that slows down digestion and helps regulate blood sugar levels, while insoluble fiber adds bulk to the stool and helps prevent constipation. In total, if you consume two servings of the cereal, you will consume 8g of dietary fiber, providing a significant amount of this important nutrient to support your health. Remember, a diet rich in fiber can help you maintain a healthy weight, lower your cholesterol levels, and prevent various health problems.
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Emotional Wellness. Please Help! 50 Points!!!!!! will mark Brainlist!!!
1. A belief that people should have complete control over their mental and emotional dimensions of wellness is a commonly held notion and this contributes to the stigma associated with mental/emotional illness and is one reason for lack of appropriate treatment.
a) True
b) False
2. Recently (2008) changes in federal legislation require health insurance plans to pay equally for both mental and physical health care services. This parity legislation is an example of which of the strategies suggested in the 1999 Surgeon General's Report on Mental Health?
a) Ensure delivery of state of the art mental health care.
b) Focus on prevention strategies.
c) Allow additional financial support for research into mental health issues
d) reduce financial barriers to treatment
3. The World Health Organization's definition of health includes which of the following?
a) Absence of illness
b) Physical wellbeing
c) Mental and social well-being
d) a,b,c
4. Emotional health can best be described as being able to
a) be self-sufficient and self confident.
b) identify symptoms of psychological problems.
c) adapt to various social conditions.
d) express as well as control feelings.
5. Research by experts in the field of medicine suggest that the general public consistently overestimates the impact of poor mental/emotional health on the quality of human life.
a) True
b) False
On emotional wellness:
a) Trued) reduce financial barriers to treatmentd) a, b, and c. The World Health Organization defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity."d) express as well as control feelings.b) FalseWhat is emotional wellness?Emotional wellness refers to the state of being in control of one's emotions, being able to express them effectively and appropriately, and being able to effectively cope with life's challenges. It is a critical component of overall health and wellness, along with physical, mental, spiritual, and social well-being.
Emotional wellness encompasses a positive outlook on life, resilience, self-awareness, and the ability to form healthy relationships with others. It is important for individuals to prioritize their emotional wellness in order to lead a fulfilling and productive life.
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Give an example of a disease that would fit pattern E. A. Genital herpes. B. Pertussis (whooping cough) C. Zika D. Tetanus E. Influenza.
An example of a disease that would fit pattern E is Influenza (Option E).
Pattern E diseases are characterized by outbreaks or epidemics that occur in seasonal cycles, often with a predictable pattern of increased incidence during certain months of the year. Influenza, also known as the flu, is a highly infectious respiratory illness that is known to cause seasonal epidemics. Influenza outbreaks usually occur during the winter months and can cause a sudden increase in cases within a community. The seasonal pattern of influenza outbreaks is due to several factors, including changes in weather and temperature, increased indoor contact, and the emergence of new viral strains. Other diseases that may fit this pattern include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and some types of pneumonia. In contrast, diseases such as genital herpes, pertussis, Zika, and tetanus do not exhibit a predictable seasonal pattern and can occur year-round.
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Robin is a spectator at State Tennis Tournament, an athletic competition. Regarding the risk of injury, Robin assumes the risks
a. attributable to the tournament in any way.
b. different from the risks normally associated with the tournament.
c. greater than the risks normally associated with the tournament.
d. normally associated with the tournament.
When Robin attends the State Tennis Tournament as a spectator, he assumes the risks are often connected with the event.
In general, the risk of a traumatic injury increases with the amount of contact in a sport. However, overuse is the main cause of injury in young athletes. Sprains (injuries to ligaments), strains (injuries to muscles), and stress fractures are the three most common types of sports injuries (injuries to bones). These so-called risk variables can be aspects of a sport or game, such as the level of competition, the playing field, and the weather, or they can be subject traits and behaviors, such as age, sex, skill, use of protective equipment, playing position, and game strategies.
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TRUE/FALSE. women of childbearing age are more likely to develop autoimmune diseases than men of a similar age.
This is true that compared to men of similar ages, women of childbearing age are more likely to develop autoimmune diseases.
The autoimmune disease takes place when the body's unaffected justification scheme can't distinguish between your own cells and offshore cells, causing the corpse to wrongly attack sane cells. There are in addition 80 types of autoimmune afflictions that influence an expansive range of body parts.
The best number of genes ringing from the X chromosome constitutes a far greater feasibility of the best number of mutations happening. This puts women at a better risk for the incident of autoimmune diseases only due to girls bearing two X chromosomes, inasmuch as men seize alone.
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vitamin b12 is poorly absorbed in the absence of a. folic acid. b. extrinsic factor. c. erythropoietin. d. intrinsic factor.
Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 is difficult to absorb.
In order for vitamin B12 to be properly absorbed, it must bind to a protein called intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor, cobalamin-binding intrinsic factor, also known as gastric intrinsic factor,, is a glycoprotein produced by parietal or chief cells of the stomach. It is then required for the absorption of vitamin B₁₂ in the distal ileum of the small intestine. The inability to generate intrinsic factors can be the result of several factors, including: B. Chronic gastritis, gastrectomy (removal of all or part of the stomach), or autoimmune disease (body attacks its own tissues).
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Acuity is better in the ____ than in the _____.
a. periphery; fovea
b. optic disk; fovea
c. optic disk; cornea
d. fovea; periphery
So the correct answer to the question is "d. fovea; periphery".
High school students are typically introduced to the anatomy of the eye and its function. One of the key aspects of the anatomy of the eye is the difference in visual acuity between different parts of the eye.
Visual acuity refers to the sharpness and clarity of the image we see. In the human eye, visual acuity is highest in the fovea and lowest in the periphery. The fovea is a small, central pit in the retina that contains densely packed cones, which are the photoreceptor cells responsible for sharp central vision and color vision. On the other hand, the peripheral retina has a lower density of cones and a higher density of rods, which are photoreceptor cells that are better suited for low-light and peripheral vision.
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2 heart conditions which may require an ECG for further investigation?
Neuralgia
Gastroenteritis
Angina
Acute Myocardial Infarct