Family planning centre The term "ambulatory service setting" refers to a range of locations where community health nurses provide daytime or evening services without requiring patients to stay overnight.
Describe nursing?Nurses must do this by keeping an eye on the patient and recording any pertinent data to help with therapeutic decision-making. A qualified health care worker with expertise in maintaining and promoting health may work independently or under the supervision of a doctor, surgeon, or dentist. For further information, see licenced practical nurse, licenced vocational nurse, and registered nurse.
What do doctors do?Doctors and surgeons identify and treat illnesses and injuries.
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Because statutory requirements mandate some of CMS’s regulatory work, such notices may be published in the Federal Register on a day other than the ______________ Friday of the month.
Question 8 of 30
You may disclose a patient's Protected Health Information (PHI) without the patient's consent for all of
the following reasons EXCEPT:
O When required by law
O For medical treatment
O For payment purposes
O At the request of a family member
Continue
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O
43°F Mostly cloudy
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You may disclose a patient's Protected Health Information (PHI) without the patient's consent for all of the following reasons except at the request of a family member. Thus, the correct option for this question is D.
What is PHI?Protected health information (PHI) is any information in the medical record or designated record set that can be utilized in order to identify an individual and that was created, used, or disclosed in the course of providing a health care service such as diagnosis or treatment.
None of the individuals has the right to disclose PHI to anyone without their proper consent. This is because one's patient may constitute a harmful breach of that person's confidentiality. Medical professionals should not disclose any health information of the patient unless required by law or given permission by the patient.
Therefore, you may disclose a patient's Protected Health Information (PHI) without the patient's consent for all of the following reasons except at the request of a family member. Thus, the correct option for this question is D.
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Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of how nursing research positively affects nursing?
A. "Research creates changes that are not always good."
B. "Research expands the nursing profession."
C. "Research creates more work for staff nurses."
D. "Research leads to less pay for union nurses."
Option (B). "Research expands the nursing profession." Nurse indicates an understanding of how nursing research positively affects nursing.
Is nursing hard career?
Nursing is not an easy job. A 14-hour shift requires physical and mental stamina. ”If you love what you do and believe in the impact it has on every patient's life, you may find yourself succeeding. Even in a storm of activity.
What subjects are difficult in nursing?
Pharmacology. Pharmacology, or pharmaceutical research, can seem daunting because the course is so extensive. “The depth and amount of knowledge required makes him one of the most difficult courses for nursing students to take,” says Megan Lynch, her RN and instructor at his college in Pima Community.
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Which of the following issues in newborns have been linked to maternal diabetes? (Select all that apply).A) physical defectsB) diabetes in offspringC) low birth weightD) issues with expressive language
A mother of diabetes may expose her foetus (baby) to high glucose and other nutrient levels during pregnancy.
Describe a foetus?A zygote is created when an egg and sperm combine, and it soon starts to divide becoming an embryo. The embryo develops into a foetus as the pregnancy goes along. When the foetus is born, it becomes a neonates or newborn. An embryo is an unborn child that grows and develops within the uterus (lining of the uterus) of animals, including humans. The foetal period in humans starts nine weeks after an egg is fertilised and concludes at the moment of birth.
What exactly is pregnancy?The period during which a foetus grows on the inside of a female's womb or uterus is known as a pregnancy.
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a dietitian includes one of the following mixtures in the lunch menu. classify each of the following as homogeneous or heterogeneous: a. nonfat milkb. chocolate-chip ice creamc. peanut butter sandwichd. cranberry juice
Nonfat milk is homogeneous. b. The chocolate-chip ice cream is a heterogenous mixture. c. Peanut butter sandwiches are heterogeneous foods. The homogeneous nature of cranberry juice.
The only thing in nonfat milk is milk; there are no fats, which are typically visible as oil globules. The milk is seen to be a homogenous combination as a result. Due to the uneven distribution of the chocolate chips throughout the frozen treat, the mixture is classified as heterogeneous. Combinations of spread sauce applied inside the piece of bread can make up a spread sandwich. The substance in the mixture is categorised as heterogeneous. Cranberry juice, water, salt, and sugar might all be combined to make the fruit crush. This mixture is categorised as homogenous since all of its components are evenly distributed.
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Write one short-term goal for enhancing your sense of self, and list all the steps necessary to achieve the goal. The steps to your goal must include how you will deal with the positive and negative influences on your sense of self.
Goal:
Steps for the goal:
1.
2.
3.
My short-term goal is to exercise regularly and lose weight. It can be done by going gym and having a healthy diet.
How to deal with positive and negative influences on our sense of self?When we have a positive view of ourselves, we are realistic about our liabilities and limitations while acknowledging and owning our potential and strengths.
When we have a negative view of ourselves, we tend to concentrate on our flaws and shortcomings and misrepresent failure and flaws.
Negative things or mindset makes it very difficult for us to achieve our goal. We should always be influenced by positive things.
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is adam in the contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model when he decides that he will give up alcohol early next month.
False. The transtheoretical paradigm proposes six steps for altering a person's behaviour in relation to their health: precontemplation, deliberation, planning, activity, management, and conclusion.
Based on more than 15 years of study, the TTM has shown that while adopting good habits or quitting unhealthy ones, people go through a sequence of five stages (precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance).
People begin to consider making a potential change during the contemplation period. They essentially don't commit to changing anything; instead, they are on the fence contemplating it. Determination.
When a client has no intention to modify their behaviour, either now or in the future (usually perceived as six months from now), they are in the precontemplation stage.
The complete question is:
T/F: Adam is in the contemplation stage of the Transtheoretical Model when he decides that he will stop drinking alcohol at the beginning of next month.
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The client wants to eat fewer calories and lose weight by substitute regular sweetened foods with those that are sweetened with sugar alternatives. Which of the following would be the most effective substitution?A) Sugar free cookies for regular cookiesB) Sugar free chocolate candy for regular chocolate candy.C) Sugar free soft drinks for regular soft drinks.D) Sugar free ice cream for regular ice cream
Regular cookies in place of sugar-free cookies. B) Sugar-free chocolate candies in place of traditional chocolate The client wishes to eat less calories and shed some pounds by routinely replacing.
A calorie is what?A sick person's body could require extra calories to combat a fever or other issues. . Your body stores extra calls as body fat when users eat more food than you require. Even foods without fat can contain a lot of caloric intake.
Why do we breathe?The act of breathing involves the inhalation of oxygen and the exhalation of atmospheric co2 with the assistance of the respiratory system. Inhalation and exhalation are the two stages..
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Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production?
- erythropoietin
- testosterone
- hyperventilating
- a drop in normal blood oxygen levels
Erythrocyte production is not induced by hyperventilation.A higher than normal blood oxygen level caused by hyperventilating does not stimulate the production of RBCs.
Red blood cells have been reprocessed and bilirubin is produced. Your kidneys naturally produce erythropoietin, a hormone that promotes this same production of red blood cells. Health issues can result from either high or low erythropoietin levels. Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that's also primarily produced in the kidney by specialised cells known as interstitial cells. After being created, it behaves on red blood cells to shield them from deterioration. It also encourages bone marrow stem cells to produce more red blood cells at the same time.
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A variety of studies investigated the effects of psychological training on adherence to injury rehabilitation protocols. Which of the following psychological factors was (were) found to be related to rehabilitation adherence?a. Self-Motivationb. Positive Self-Talkc. Attentional Controld. a and b
Option (A) and (B) -self-motivation -positive self-talk of the following psychological factors was (were) found to be related to rehabilitation adherence.
What is Self-motivation?
Self-motivation is the driving force that keeps us moving forward. It is our inner drive to achieve, produce, develop and keep moving forward. When you think you're ready to give up on something, or just don't know where to start, that's what drives you forward.
What is the secret of self-motivation?
One of the secrets of self-motivation is turning your inner gears in the right direction and recognizing your strengths, self-esteem, and worth. Not to mention the hard work. By exercising your self-motivation muscles, you increase your inner strength. There is no doubt that you have a goal you are aiming for.
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How is classical conditioning being used to manipulate our emotional responses to get us to act in a certain way? discuss how the same mechanisms that influence us all the time anyway can be used to help us all make better healthier decisions.
Answer:
Explanation: Classical conditioning can be used to manipulate someones emotions by a constant conditioned respone. I.E domestic violence a woman or man knows they do something it will trigger their partner to react a certain way therefore they get anxious when the action occurs. Mechanisms that condition us to response or influence us is the constant nagging of eating habbits to kids. they are in constant conditioning of ways to eat healthier and excercise eventually they will adapt those concepts
True or False?. According to the james-lange theory of emotion, we experience physiological changes first and then label these changes as an emotion.
True. In line with the James-Lange theory of emotion, we first go through physiologic changes before classifying them as an emotion.
Pure autonomic failure is a rare situation in which the body's autonomic nerve system's output is fully or virtually completely absent. The James-Lange hypothesis of emotion contends that physiologic responses to events are what cause feelings to arise. Consider a person who runs into an irate dog that is barking to demonstrate this notion. According to the traditional idea of emotional processing, the individual would hear and observe the dog bark, feel an emotion (like fear), and then exhibit an emotional reaction (like trembling) as a result. Because of fear, the person trembles.
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During the course of your shift, Anastasiya's blood glucose level is measured at 250. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate? A) Check for ketones in her urine B) Administer an extra dose of Lantus C) Administer Glucagon 1mg IM D) Call the PICU to prepare for her to be transferred back
A) Check for ketones in her urine. Ketones in urine are typically tested by a "spot test." You can get a test kit at a pharmacy to find out if this is available.
The set includes dipsticks that respond with ketone bodies thanks to chemical coatings. The urine sample is dipped into a dipstick. Ketones can be detected by a change in colour. The quantity of ketones in the blood is determined via a ketone blood test. A urine test can also be used to measure ketones. With a ketone urine strip, which changes colour based on the amount of ketone in your urine, you can detect the presence of acetoacetate in your urine. Darker hues often indicate larger concentrations in your urine.
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a mother changes a patterned picture on the wall. according to dishabituation, her infant will most likely do which of the following?
Newborns have complete hearing development. Normal-hearing infants should scream in response to loud noises, listen intently to their mother's speech, and briefly cease moving when conversational-level sound is introduced. Newborns appear to choose the mother's higher-pitched voice over a low one (males).
Which sense is the last to fully develop in infants and the first to deteriorate with age?One of the First Senses to Develop and Decline: Olfaction.
Which best describes how parents can engage their child's senses throughout the first year of life?After a bath, applying lotion is very calming, as are certain light massage techniques.
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If ham is sliced on the same slicing machine used to slice cheese, this could put children at risk due to which of the following reasons
A. If they are allergic to milk, the foods are now cross-contaminated
B. Ham is more likely to be a food contaminate than cheese
C. The likelihood of ham and cheese becoming contaminated increases when they are slice on the same machine
D. Dangerous bacteria can live on ham but not cheese
I am pretty sure the answer is A
which of the following notations should be recorded as the gingival margin level for the tooth illustrated below? assume that the markings on the color-coded probe are at 3, 6, 9, and 12 mm.
The markings on color-coded probe are -3.
What is a color code system?
Color coding is a visual reminder system to alert, notify, and guide your employees. OSHA assigns specific meanings to specific colors. Colors can therefore warn of certain hazards or provide information or instructions. Color coding is the considered highly desirable.
Why color coding matters?
The primary purpose of color coding is separation and organization. This is especially important in the food industry where cross-contamination, cross-contact with allergens, and the strength of cleaning chemicals are at risk. Using the following brushes is a recipe for disaster and a costly recall.
What is the pleasant color coding?
The University of British Columbia found that red was "most effective in increasing attention to detail." Red is the ideal color for meticulous coding tasks.
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An experimenter flips a coin for each participant in assigns a participant to win group when heads came up and the other group and tails came up this process is referred to as?
Random selection, also known as random allocation, is the process of assigning people to groups based on the outcome of a coin toss.
Exactly to whom are you alluding, participant?
Someone who actively participates in something is doing it. You have already taken part in or are now a part of American democracy if you voted on election day. In response to participants, events take place. A contestant is a participant in a game show.
How do participants contribute?
Participants are employees who show up to a meeting but do not act as the leader, recorder, or referee. The involvement goes beyond passive viewing.
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what type of transfer if there is a transfer from the prospective inpatient payment system (ipps) to a hospital or facility that is exempt from ipps that is included in the list of 30 drugs. Select one.
When a patient is transferred under Transfer Type 1 between IPPS facilities, the receiving hospital will be compensated on a daily basis for the time the patient spends there.
A projected payment scheme for hospital inpatients is what?Medicare payments are made using a prospective payment system (PPS), which bases payments on a predetermined, fixed amount. Based on the classification scheme for that service, the payment amount for a certain service is determined (for example, diagnosis-related groups for inpatient hospital services).
A hospital with an IPPS is what?The Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS), the system for allocating funds, divides cases into diagnoses-related groups (DRGs), which are then weighted in accordance with the resources expended to treat Medicare beneficiaries in those groups.
This admittance will be subject to outlier calculations in proportion to the amount of days spent at the transferring facility.
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When a patient is moved between IPPS facilities under Transfer Type 1, the receiving hospital will be paid daily for the time the patient spends there.
What is a proposed payment plan for hospital inpatients?
A prospective payment system (PPS), which bases payments on a predetermined, fixed amount, is used to make Medicare payments. The payment amount for a particular service is established based on the classification scheme for that service (for instance, diagnosis-related groups for inpatient hospital services).
What is a hospital with an IPPS?
Cases are divided into diagnoses-related groups (DRGs), which are then weighted in accordance with the resources used to treat Medicare beneficiaries in those groups, as part of the Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS), the system for allocating funds.
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Complete question:
What type of transfer if there is a transfer from the prospective inpatient payment system (IPPS) to a hospital or facility that is exempt from ipps that is included in the list of 30 drugs.
Select one.
Transfer Type 1Transfer Type 2Transfer Type 3Transfer Type 4Fill The blank from this sentence BelowUsing the still-face technique, one in _____ 4-month-old infants are classified as socially engaged.
One in three 4-month-old infants are identified as socially engaged using the still-face technique.
In particular during the first three months, mothers or other primary carers of infants who are classified as attached are more likely to be perceptive to their signals during trying to feed, face-to-face perform, physical contact, as well as distress episodes.
When a stranger approaches, crying is a sign of stranger anxiety. It is typical when it begins at around 8 to 9 months of age and typically goes away by age 2. The infant's developmental job of separating the familiar from of the unfamiliar is linked to stranger anxiety. The ability of infants to regulate their emotions is based on an interaction between their temperamental traits and environmental factors, according to both attachment and temperament viewpoints on children's emotional development.
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You receive a phone call from a person who says she is one of your practice's patients, leslie Van Arsdale, requesting the results of her lab test. How can you verify that the person is ,in fact Ms. Van Arsdale?
Some of the steps to take to verify that the person is in fact Ms. Van Arsdale is to
Confirm the caller's contact information. Verify personal information by asking for the patient's date of birth or other personal details. You can obtain a signed release formWhat is a release form?A release form is described as a legal document that serves as consent in writing to release the legal liability of a releasee by a releasor.
It is advisable to ask the caller to provide a signed release form giving permission for you to discuss their lab results over the phone.
Asking for the phone number and address on file for the patient, and comparing it to what you have on record will help ensure that the caller is who they say they are.
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1. Skepticism exists regarding research in abnormal child psychology because _____ answer:.a. experts on childhood disorders frequently disagreeb. research findings in abnormal child psychology have no clear resultsc. many conclusions from research with children produce the samefindingsd. research findings are primarily extrapolated from adult studies
Research on abnormal child psychology has been met with scepticism because experts on developmental disorders typically disagree with it.
What exactly is childhood?Between end of birth and the start of puberty, which occurs between the ages of 10 and 12, or roughly 2 years, adolescence begins.
Birth to age eight early childhood experiences have an impact on how the brain develops, laying the groundwork for all lifelong education, behaviour, and health.
The foundation is what?A foundation is a charitable group that funds charity endeavours for the benefit of society.
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a player who plays a position but often doesn't get into a game until the starter at that position is injured is known as a(n).....
This type of player is often referred to as a "bench player" or "role player." A players who plays a position but often doesn't get into a game until the starter at that position is injured.
They are usually skilled players who can perform well, but they may not have the same level of starting experience or game time as the regular injured starters. It's important for bench players to stay focused and mentally prepared even if they aren't getting much playing time, as they never know when they might be called upon to perform. Additionally, bench players often play key roles in practice, helping to prepare the starters for game day. Overall, having a talented and injured reliable bench player can be a huge asset to a team, as they provide valuable backup and help ensure success even when key players are out.
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The complete Question is:
A player who plays a position but often doesn't get into a game until the starter at that position is injured.
choices you make can greatly affect your risk for chronic disease. these choices are modifiable determinants because you can choose to do things differently and behave in ways that promote your health rather than potentially damage it. true or false
Lacking levels of exercise, tobacco use, and diets low in fruits and vegetables and other healthy foods encourage rather than potentially harm your health.
Your chance of developing a chronic illness can be significantly influenced by your decisions.We are aware that healthy food, regular exercise, abstaining from cigarette use and excessive alcohol consumption, and frequent health screenings can prevent the majority of chronic diseases.
What is the most effective strategy for managing a chronic illness?Keeping a healthy diet consistent is one of the best methods to stave off and treat chronic illness. For instance, people can manage or avoid high blood pressure by making modest dietary adjustments like consuming less salt by limiting the number of packaged, processed foods in their diet.
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Which of the following early theorists argued that punishment should be a deterrent and also explained behavior as a result of free will and hedonistic calculus?1) Bentham2) Darwin3) Howard4) Freud
(1) Bentham was one of the early theorists who argued that punishment should be used as a deterrent and also explained behavior in terms of free will and hedonism. Jeremy Bentham (February 4, 1748 – June 6, 1832) was an English philosopher, jurist, and social reformer widely regarded as the father of modern utilitarianism.
Bentham defined the principle that "it is the greatest happiness of the greatest number that is the measure of right and wrong" as a "fundamental axiom" of his philosophy.
The idea that people will weigh the potential pleasure from committing the crime against the potential pain from punishment is a key component of rational choice theory. This is referred to as hedonistic calculus.
Jeremy Bentham (1748-1832), an English jurist and philosopher, also advocated for punishment as a deterrent, and he, too, tried to explain behavior as the result of free will and "hedonistic calculus."
A method of calculating the combined value of an act's consequences based on the sum of its pleasure and pain; also known as the felicific calculus.
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Joe has a hectic schedule. During the day, he works full time at a warehouse distribution center filling orders. At night, three times a week, he attends class at the local community college in pursuit of computer certification. On weekends, he likes to watch sports on television, spend time with family and friends, and study. Joe has little time to exercise or think about what he eats—that is, convenience rules. He stops for coffee and a pastry on his way to work, has a burger or pizza for lunch at a fast-food restaurant, and for dinner picks up fried chicken or fish at the drive-through on his way to class. Unfortunately, over the past few years, Joe’s weight has been climbing. He is 5 feet, 10 inches tall and weighs 200 pounds. Lately, he has frequently been short of breath during his shift at work. Watching a game on television a few nights ago, he saw an infomercial for a weight-loss supplement that promises to increase his energy level and allow him to continue to eat large portions of tasty foods but not gain weight. A famous actor supports the claim that this product allows one to eat at will and not gain weight. This claim is tempting to Joe.
Answer:Joe’s height is 5’10”and his weight is 200 pounds.
BMI of Joe in Kg/m2 will be –
BMI is the measurement of body fat depending on the height and weight of a person.
The formulae for the BMI of a person is= weight in Kg / {height in (metre)2}
Here height is given in feet and inches, we need to convert it to metres to calculate the BMI.
5’10” means = (12 X 5) + 10= 70 inches.
We need to convert it to metres
1 inch = 0.0254 metre
70 inches= 70 X 0.0254= 1.778 metres
Weight is given in pounds, we need to convert it to kg
1 pound = 0.453592 kg
200 pound= 200 X 0.453592 = 90.7184 kg
So BMI of Joe will be = weight in kg / {height in (metres) 2} = 90.7184 / (1.778)2 = 28.7
Answer:- BMI of Joe in KG/ (mt)2 is 28.7
It indicates Joe is overweight, because according to the BMI table Joe's BMI falls in the category of 25-29.9 it is the category of overweight people.
A nurse is performing discharge teaching with a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. Which client statement indicates effective teaching? "I can't wait to get back to my football league." "I need to stay at least 10 inches away from the microwave." "I have an appointment for magnetic resonance imaging of my knee scheduled for next week." "I'll keep a log of each time my ICD discharges."
The statement "I'll keep a log of each time my ICD discharges" indicates effective teaching, as the client is taking an active role in managing their healthcare and monitoring their ICD.
Keeping a log of ICD discharges is an important part of monitoring and managing the device. This will help the client and their healthcare provider keep track of the device's performance and detect any potential issues. It's important for clients with an ICD to understand the necessary precautions and restrictions, such as avoiding strong magnetic fields or staying away from certain electrical devices. However, being able to return to activities such as playing football is a positive sign and can help improve the client's quality of life. Scheduling an appointment for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the knee is also important, as clients with ICDs need to take special precautions when undergoing certain medical procedures. The healthcare provider should be informed of the ICD discharge prior to the procedure and a decision made on whether the procedure can be safely performed.
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what is reproductive health services
Answer:
Explanation:
The term “reproductive health services” means reproductive health services provided in a hospital, clinic, physician's office, or other facility, and includes medical, surgical, counselling or referral services
Which two terms are opposites?
Multiple Choice
anesthesiologist and endarterectomy
exacerbation and remission
postictal and subdural
The two terms that are opposites are exacerbation and remission.
What is exacerbation and remission?Exacerbation and remission are medical terms used in the context of chronic diseases such as asthma, multiple sclerosis, and Crohn's disease. Exacerbation refers to a worsening or intensification of symptoms, usually to the point of a flare-up of the condition.
Remission refers to a reduction or disappearance of symptoms and a period of relative improvement in the patient's health status. All signs and symptoms of cancer have disappeared in complete remission, though cancer may still be present in the body.
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After completing J.M.'s assessment, you develop an individualized plan of care based on nursing diagnoses appropriate to her assessment findings. You would give the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?a. Risk for injury related to altered sensoriub. Impaired verbal communication related to decreased LOCc. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to poor skin turgord. Decreased cardiac output related to excessive ECF losses
Although this patient is a good candidate for all of these nursing diagnoses, cardiovascular stability should come first. Keep in mind the ABCs of setting priorities.
What sort of nursing diagnosis would that be?Lowered cardiac output, potential for reduced liver function, urinary retention, and disturbed sleep patterns are a few examples of nursing diagnoses. In contrast, a doctor or other qualified healthcare practitioner makes a medical diagnosis.
What is the diagnostic of a nurse?Diagnosis. The nurse's clinical assessment of the client's reaction to current or potential health issues or needs constitutes the nursing diagnosis. Mild concussion was the official diagnosis. His physician initially gave him a pneumonia diagnosis. The committee's examination of the problems urban schools face was made public.
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Men are generally stronger than women because they typically have larger bodies, and a more significant proportion of their total body mass is made up of muscle. However, when strength is expressed per unit of the cross-sectional area of muscle tissue, men are only 1-2% stronger than women in the upper body and equal to women in the lower body. Explain two factors that explain these disparities.
Men are stronger than women because the female body uses its energy in reproductive tasks.
Why do males are stronger than females?Men are, nevertheless, noticeably bulkier and bigger than women. Men are clearly superior to women in terms of absolute strength due to their larger bodies.
In order to evaluate gender variations in strength, it is crucial to compare data based on body weight and/or composition.
On average, male upper bodies are stronger and have 75% greater muscle mass than female ones. Therefore, males are stronger than females.
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