A truck with the mass of 8 ton travels at a velocity of 60km/h and collides
with a truck with a mass of 5 tons travelling in the same direction at 40km/h.
After the collision the two trucks move together.
Calculate the final common velocity if the TWO trucks in m/s after the
collision?
​

Answer:

see explanation

Explanation:

Answer:

a. 13.22 m/s

b. 16.32

c. 1.664 s

d. 13.58

e. 3.328

f. 40.0m

Explanation:

This is basically what the guy said, i dunno if you saw the letters, but he added some at the end of every answer.

Answer:

The angle between the electric field and the axis of the filter is 54⁰

Explanation:

Apply the equation for intensity of light through a polarizer.

[tex]I = I_oCos^2 \theta[/tex]

where;

I is the intensity of the transmitted light

I₀ is the intensity of the incident light

θ is the incident angle

If only 35 % of the intensity of a polarized light wave passes through a polarizing filter, then the ratio of the intensity of the transmitted light to that of the intensity of the incident light is given by;

[tex]\frac{I}{I_o} = Cos^2 \theta\\\\\frac{35}{100} = Cos^2 \theta\\\\Cos^2 \theta = 0.35\\\\Cos\theta = \sqrt{0.35} \\\\Cos\theta = 0.5916\\\\\theta = Cos^{-1}(0.5916)\\\\\theta = 54 ^0[/tex]

Therefore, the angle between the electric field and the axis of the filter is 54⁰

The angle between the electric field and the axis of the filter for the polarized light wave which passes through a polarizing filter is 54°.

The electric field is the field, which is surrounded by the electric charged. The electric field is the electric force per unit charge.

From the Malus's law, the intensity of the polarized beam can be calculated with the following formula.

[tex]I=I_o\cos^2\theta[/tex]

Here, (I₀) is the intensity of the polarized beam incident on the observer θ is the angle of incident.

It is given that only 35 % of the intensity of a polarized light wave passes through a polarizing filter.

The angle between the electric field and the axis of the filter can be found out using the above formula as,

[tex]35\%=(100\%)\cos^2\theta\\\theta=\cos^{-1}\sqrt{\left(\dfrac{35}{100}\right)}\\\theta=54^o[/tex]

Hence, the angle between the electric field and the axis of the filter for the polarized light wave which passes through a polarizing filter is 54°.

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Answer: length,  luminous intensity,mass, time, temperature, electric current, amount of a substance.

Explanation:

Answer:

7 * 10^-4Wb

Explanation:

The magnetic flux is the product of the inductance and current

Magnetic flux = LI

L is the inductance = 3.5mH

I is the current = 2.0A

Number of turns N = 2A

Since for a 10-turn solenoid, L = 3.5mH

For a one-turn solenoid, L = 3.5/10 = 0.35mH

magnetic flux = 0.35mH * 2

magnetic flux = 0.35 * 10^-3 * 2

magnetic flux = 0.7* 10^-3

Magnetic flux = 7 * 10^-4Wb

Hence the magnetic flux through each turn is 7 * 10^-4Wb

The magnetic flux through each turn is 7 ×10⁻⁴ Wb. The magnetic flux is the product of the inductance and current.

The surface integral of the normal component of the magnetic field B across a surface is the magnetic flux through that surface. It is commonly indicated by the letters B.

The weber is the SI unit for magnetic flux, while the maxwell is the CGS unit.

The given data in the problem is;

[tex]\rm \phi[/tex] is the magnetic flux =?

L is the inductance = 3.5mH

I is the current = 2.0A

N number of turns of solenoid  = 2A

The inductance for the one turn is found by;

For a 10-turn solenoid, L = 3.5mH

For a one-turn solenoid, L = 3.5/10 = 0.35mH

The megnetic flux through each turn is found by;

[tex]\rm \phi = L \times I \\\\ \rm \phi = 0.35 \times 10^{-3}\times 2\\\\ \rm \phi =7 \times 10^{-4}[/tex]

Hence the magnetic flux through each turn is 7 ×10⁻⁴ Wb.

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Answer:

D

Explanation:

Answer: True

Explanation: Guessed on A p E x and it was correct

Answer:

True

Explanation:

a p e x

Please tell us the question and we will try to answer.

Answer:

Is always towards the center of the Earth

Explanation:

Answer:

When one person applies force f1 = 60 N at one end, the other person applies f2 = 160 - 60 = 100 N. The torques about the center must balance. Thus the distances from the center d1 and d2 must be such that f1*d1 = f2*d2, or 60*1.5 = 100*d2, so d2=0.9. Thus f2 must be applied at a point 1.5 + 0.9 = 2.4 m from the end where f1 is applied.

Answer:

The acceleration of the particle as it travels one semicircle is

[tex]a= \frac{\pi R}{t^2}[/tex]

Explanation:'

Kindly see attached a sketch of a semi-circle

Step one:

given data

velocity =v

let the time taken be t

The path PQM is the distance covered

so distance [tex]d= \pi R[/tex]

we know that time= distance/velocity

t= πR/v

step two:

velocity =distance/time

[tex]velocity=\frac{\pi R}{t}[/tex]

also, we know that acceleration is velocity/time

[tex]a= \frac{\pi R}{\frac{t}{t} }[/tex]

[tex]a= \frac{\pi R}{t}*\frac{1}{t}[/tex]

[tex]a= \frac{\pi R}{t^2}[/tex]

Answer:

the correct answer is E

Explanation:

Work is defined by the expression

        W = F. d

Where the bold indicates vectors, we can make the dot product explicit

         W = F d cos θ

We can see that this definition of work the two men apply a force, but the wall does not move, so if there is no displacement the work is zero.

When checking the correct answer is E

Explanation:

The anomalous expansion of water is an abnormal property of water whereby it expands instead of contracting when the temperature goes from 4o C to 0o C, and it becomes less dense. ... The density becomes less and less as it freezes because molecules of water normally form open crystal structures when in solid form.

Answer:

ionic

ionic

covalent

covalent (i think)

Explanation:

ionic= donate electrons (gain/lose)... (results in ions that have +/- charge, are no longer neutral)

covalent= share electrons

Answer:

I think it's c

Explanation:

The brick's mass, helps to hold it under the water but brick A is being held up. If you dropped the brick, it would sink to the bottom. You need a stronger force to hold it up.

Hope this helps you! x

Buoyancy force is needed to hold brick B in place.

A force is an effect that can alter an object's motion according to physics. An object with mass can change its velocity, or accelerate, as a result of a force. An obvious way to describe force is as a push or a pull. A force is a vector quantity since it has both magnitude and direction.

Upthrust, often known as buoyancy, is an upward force applied by a fluid against the weight of an object that is partially or completely submerged. The weight of the fluid on top causes pressure in a fluid column to rise with depth. The brick's mass, helps to hold it under the water but brick A is being held up. If you dropped the brick, it would sink to the bottom. You need a stronger force to hold it up.

Buoyancy force is needed to hold brick B in place.

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#SPJ6

Explanation:

trip 3 ( 9 minutes)

If the ferry is moving at a faster speed, it will travel the same distance in a shorter time. The ferry crossed the river the fastest on Trip 3 because it took the shortest amount of time on that trip.

Answer:

The answer is the Pluto.

Answer: Your correct answer would be the second option; axial and appendicular. The axial region makes up the axis of the human body, this includes your head, neck, etc. The appendicular region makes up the parts of the human body that connects to the axial region, for example limbs and appendages.

Answer:

knee extension is the muscle function that will be difficult to perform.

Explanation:

Barb was kicked in the anterior thigh. Now, the thigh muscles performs a combined operation of moving the knee and leg and they reside in the following compartments.

- Anterior compartment which is composed of knee joint extension and thigh flexion.

- Lateral Compartment which is composed of the tensor fasciae latae, which is a tiny muscle that abducts and centrally will make the thigh to rotate.

-Medial compartment which involves thigh addiction which is rotating of the thigh around the hips.

- Posterior compartment which involves knee joint flexion and high extension.

Thus, from the different compartments listed above, we can see that the muscles that extend the knee and flex the thigh all lie in the anterior compartment of the upper leg.

Thus, we can conclude that knee extension is the muscle function that will be difficult to perform.

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the Newtons law of motion;

[tex]\sum Fx = ma_x\\Fm - Ff = ma_x[/tex]

Fm is the moving force = 400N

Ff is the frictional force = μR

μ is the coefficient of kinetic friction

R is the reaction = mg

m is the mass

a is the acceleration

The equation becomes;

[tex]Fm - \mu R = ma_x\\Fm - \mu mg = ma_x\\400- \mu (25)(9.8) = 25(9)\\400 - 254.8 \mu = 225\\- 254.8 \mu = 225 - 400\\- 254.8 \mu = -175\\ \mu = \frac{-175}{- 254.8} \\\mu = 0.69[/tex]

Hence the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and floor is 0.69

The coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor is 0.714.

Friction: This can be defined as the force that tends to oppose two surfaces in motion.

The question above can be solved using the formula

F-ma = mgμ................. Equation 1

Where F = Force applied to push the box, m = mass of the box, a = acceleration of the box, μ = coefficient of kinetic friction, g = acceleration due to gravity.

make μ the subject of the equation

μ = (F-ma)/mg................ Equation 2

From the question,

Given: F = 400 N, m = 25 kg, a = 9 m/s²,

Constant: g = 9.8 m/s²

Substitute these values into equation 2

μ = [400-(25×9)]/(25×9.8)

μ = (400-225)/245

μ = 175/245

μ = 0.714

Hence, the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor is 0.714.

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Answer:

212 I think

Explanation:

I looked it up

Answer:

868.5 g

Explanation:

Mass= Density x Volume

Mass= 19.3 x 45

=868.5

Answer:

675.5g

Explanation:

The formula for density is: D = m/V.

To solve this problem, we need to rearrange this formula to solve for mass:

m = D x V.

Next, we plug the given values in for density, D, and volume, V:

m = 19.3 g/cm3 x 35 cm3

So, m = 675.5 g

Answer:

Tension = 0.012 N

Explanation:

If the black widow spider is hanging vertically motionless from the ceiling above. Then, the weight of the spider must be balancing the tension in the spider web. Therefore,

Tension = Weight

Tension = mg

where,

m = mass of spider = 1.27 g = 0.00127 kg

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

Therefore,

Tension = (0.00127 kg)(9.8 m/s²)

Tension = 0.012 N

Answer:

heat pressure, neutron degeneracy, electron degeneracy,nothing.

Explanation:

In main sequence star, gravity's inward pull is greatly balanced by the heat pressure. In the white dwarf, gravity is mainly balanced by the electron degeneracy pressure that arises from the fact that the electrons are fermions and they obey the Pauli's exclusion principle.  So there is no two electrons that have the same the four quantum numbers.

While in neutron star, the neutron degeneracy pressure obeys the Pauli's exclusion principle that gives rise to the degeneracy pressure and noting pushes against the gravity in the black hole. Therefore the correct option is the heat pressure, neutron degeneracy, electron degeneracy and nothing.

Answer:

Twice as much work

Explanation:

The answer is 45J

Don’t know how to explain sorry

Answer:

The value is [tex]\epsilon = 3.24 \ V[/tex]  

Explanation:

From the question we are told  that

    The number of turns is  n =  65

    The diameter is  [tex]d = 14 \ cm = 0.14 \ m[/tex]

    The magnetic field is  [tex]B_1 = 0.65 \ T[/tex]

    The time taken for the magnetic field to be reduced to [tex]B_2 = 0 \ T[/tex] is [tex]\Delta t = 0.2 s[/tex]

Generally the magnitude of the induced emf is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\epsilon = N * \frac{B_1 - B_2}{\Delta t } * A[/tex]

Here A is the area of the coil which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]A = \pi * \frac{d^2}{4}[/tex]

=>     [tex]A = 3.142 * \frac{0.14^2}{4}[/tex]

=>     [tex]A = 0.0154 \ m^2[/tex]

So

        [tex]\epsilon = 65 * \frac{0.65 - 0 }{0.2 } * 0.01534[/tex]  

=>    [tex]\epsilon = 3.24 \ V[/tex]  

Correct question is;

In an RC parallel circuit, Et = 480 V, R = 50kΩ, and XC = 47 kΩ. What is the reactive power?

Answer:

P_r = 4.9 VARs

Explanation:

We are given;

Total voltage: Et = 480 V

Resistance; R = 50kΩ = 50000 Ω

Capacitive reactance; XC = 47 kΩ = 47000 Ω

Formula for current across the capacitor is;

Et = I_c • XC

I_c = Et/XC

l_c = 480/47000

I_c = 0.01021 A

Formula for reactive power is;

P_r = (I_c)² × XC

P_r = 0.01021² × 47000

P_r = 4.9 VARs

Explanation:

so sorry

don't know but please mark me as brainliest please

Answer:

a. the density will not change

b. D' = 0.125 D

So, the density will change by a factor of 0.125

Explanation:

a.

Density is the material property and the value of density is constant for all solid materials. So, when the dimensions of the a solid are increased, while the material is same, then the material must be added to the object for increasing its dimensions. So, with the increase in the volume, the mass of the object also increases. And as a result the density of the object remains constant.

Since, here the material remains the same.

Therefore, the density will not change

b.

Density = mass/Volume

D = m/V   ------------ equation (1)

Now,

V = LWH   ----------- equation (2)

Now, if each dimension increases by a factor of 2, the volume becomes:

V' = (2L)(2W)(2H)

V' = 8 LWH

using equation (2)

V' = 8 V

So, for constant mass, density becomes:

D' = m/V'

D' = m/8V

using equation (1)

D' = D/8

D' = 0.125 D

So, the density will change by a factor of 0.125

(a) The density of the object will be reduced by one-eighth times on increasing the dimension by a factor of two and keeping the material constant.

(b)  With constant mass and increasing the dimensions by a factor of 2, the density will reduce by the factor of 1/8.

The degree measure of the compactness of an object is known as the density of an object. Mathematically, it is expressed as the ratio of the mass of the object to its volume.

(a)

Let us consider an object of dimension 'a'. As per the above definition, the density of an object is,

[tex]\rho = \dfrac{m}{V}[/tex]

Here,

m is the mass of the object.

V is the volume of the object. And its value is, [tex]V = a^{3}[/tex].

So the density becomes,

[tex]\rho = \dfrac{m}{a^{3}}[/tex]  ..............................................................(1)

Now, if the dimensions of the object is increased by a factor of 2. Then, new density becomes,

[tex]\rho' =\dfrac{m}{(2a) \times (2a) \times (2a)}\\\\\\ \rho' =\dfrac{m}{8a^{3}}\\\\[/tex]

Substitute the value of equation (1) in the above expression as,

[tex]\rho' =\dfrac{1}{8} \times \dfrac{m}{a^{3}}\\\\\rho' =\dfrac{1}{8} \times \rho[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the density of the object will be reduced by one-eighth times on increasing the dimension by a factor of two and keeping the material constant.

(b)

The density of the material is equal to the ratio of the mass of the object (m) and the volume of the object (V). So, if the mass remains unchanged and the dimensions increased by the factor of 2, then the result will remain same as the above part.

Thus, we can conclude that with constant mass and increasing the dimensions by a factor of 2, the density will reduce by the factor of 1/8.

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