Answer: B. A natural disaster occurred that separated squirrels.
Explanation: Based on the given options, the event that is most likely to have caused the population of squirrels to diverge into two different species over a long period of time is a natural disaster that occurred and separated the squirrels.
A natural disaster, such as an earthquake or flood can physically separate populations of squirrels by creating geographical barriers. These barriers can prevent gene flow between the two groups, leading to genetic isolation and divergence over time.
When populations of squirrels are separated by these barriers, it limits their ability to interact and breed with one another. This lack of gene flow between the two groups can lead to genetic isolation. Over time, the isolated populations may accumulate different genetic variations and undergo genetic changes through mechanisms such as genetic drift and natural selection. These changes can eventually result in the formation of new species.
18. Which of the following organisms do NOT produce gametes?
Spiders
Bacteria
Humans
Giraffes
In a population there are 400 AA, 400 Aa, and 200 aa individuals. (a) Calculate allele frequencies. f(A) = 0.6 if(a) = 0.4 (b) Calculate predicted HWE genotype frequencies. f(AA) = 0.36 f(Aa) = 0.48 f(aa) = 0.16 (c) Is this population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Provide a chi-square value and p-value, and your statistical and biological decision. chi-square value = 15.23 X (round up your answer nearest 100th) 0.1 x > p-value > 0.05 IX Statistical decision: reject (reject / fail to reject) Biological decision: This population is not (is / is not) in HWE.
Based on the chi-square value and p-value, the statistical decision is to reject the null hypothesis that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The biological decision is that this population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Chi-square value: 15.23
P-value: 0.05
Statistical decision: Reject
Biological decision: This population is not in HWE.
Step 1: Calculate allele frequencies
To calculate allele frequencies, we need to know the total number of alleles in the population. In this case, there are 400 AA, 400 Aa, and 200 aa individuals, for a total of 1200 alleles. Since there are two alleles (A and a), we can calculate the frequency of each allele by dividing the total number of each allele by the total number of alleles:
f(A) = 400/1200 = 0.6
f(a) = 800/1200 = 0.4
Step 2: Calculate predicted HWE genotype frequencies
Using the allele frequencies, we can calculate the predicted HWE genotype frequencies using the equation:
f(AA) = f(A)*f(A) = 0.6*0.6 = 0.36
f(Aa) = 2*f(A)*f(a) = 2*0.6*0.4 = 0.48
f(aa) = f(a)*f(a) = 0.4*0.4 = 0.16
Step 3: Calculate chi-square value and p-value
The chi-square value is calculated by comparing the observed and expected frequencies of the genotypes in the population. In this case, the observed frequencies are 400 AA, 400 Aa, and 200 aa individuals, while the expected frequencies are 0.36 AA, 0.48 Aa, and 0.16 aa individuals. The chi-square value is then calculated as follows:
chi-square value = 15.23
The p-value is calculated by comparing the chi-square value to a chi-square table with 1 degree of freedom. In this case, the p-value is greater than 0.05.
Step 4: Make a statistical and biological decision
Based on the chi-square value and p-value, the statistical decision is to reject the null hypothesis that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The biological decision is that this population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
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if trans-2-bromocyclohexanol is treated with sodium hydroxide what is the major product?
Trans-2-cyclohexanol would be the main byproduct of treating trans-2-bromocyclohexanol with sodium hydroxide.
As a strong base, sodium hydroxide (NaOH) interacts with trans-2-bromocyclohexanol to deprotonate the alcohol and produce the appropriate alkoxide ion. Trans-2-cyclohexanol and hydrobromic acid are created when the hydroxide ion displaces the bromine atom in trans-2-bromocyclohexanol.
It's important to note that the reaction of trans-2-bromocyclohexanol with NaOH requires an excess of NaOH to be completely deprotonate the alcohol, and in case there is not enough NaOH, the product may not be the major product, but a mixture of different products.
The specific mechanism of the reaction of trans-2-bromocyclohexanol with NaOH is called an elimination reaction. The reaction begins with the deprotonation of the alcohol by the hydroxide ion. This results in the formation of the alkoxide ion, which is a much better leaving group than the bromine atom.
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Scientists sometimes say that we know less about the oceans than the far side of the Moon. Why is it so difficult to learn about the oceans?
We know more about the moon because we have more tools to get there and when it comes to the ocean we don't have to tools to get there yet to even learn about it.
What type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus? a. ependymal cell
b. astrocyte c. oligodendrocyte d. Schwann cell
Ependymal cell is the type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus.
The central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricles of the brain are lined by ependymal cells, which produce cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). These cuboidal to columnar cells circulate and absorb CSF with the help of cilia and microvilli on their surfaces.
Ependymal cells have a role in the distribution of hormones and neurotransmitters related to the central nervous system, depending on their location. Additionally, the ependymal cells' microvilli have the ability to absorb CSF, control its flow, and allow specific chemicals to enter and exit the brain. The ependyma, like most glial cells, helps to osmotic homeostasis in the brain by regulating glucose and ions.
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At present, which hypothesis regarding white-nose syndrome seems to be supported by the most evidence?
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
Answer choices
opportunistic hypothesis
viral spread hypothesis
novel pathogen hypothesis
mutation hypothesis
The majority of the evidence appears to support the novel pathogen hypothesis for white-nose syndrome.
Unknown respiratory pathogens: what are they?There may be cause for concern if a newly discovered respiratory pathogen, often known as an emerging and novel respiratory pathogen, causes severe acute respiratory illnesses.
What's the point of it?In literary language, a book is a lengthy narrative work. Both entertainment and story-telling are goals of narrative prose. A group of characters, a location, and an outcome are all described in the description of a series of events. Depending on the genre, the majority of publishers favor novels that are between 80,000 and 120,000 words long.
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6.
Which of the following BEST describes the function of mRNA?
A.it stays in the nucleus and is copied by DNA
B.it carries amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain
C.it makes up the ribosomes and provides the site for protein synthesis
D.it is transcribed from the DNA and carries the information to the ribosome
Answer:
D.it is transcribed from the DNA and carries the information to the ribosome
Explanation:
Answer BreakdownChoice D is the best answer. mRNA or messenger RNA transfers genetic information from genes to ribosomes to synthesize proteins. Choice A is incorrect. hnRNA or the pre-mRNA transcript stays in the nucleus and is copied by DNA. These kinds of mRNA serve as precursors for mRNAs and other types of RNA.Choice B is incorrect. tRNA or transfer RNA carries amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain. Choice C is not the best answer. rRNA or ribosomal RNA makes up the ribosomes and provides the site for protein synthesis ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST Question 3 of 5
What is one way that poor air quality can create problems for humans in the
United States?
A. The loss of trees damages the surrounding ecosystem.
B. Some people lose their vision.
C. The process leads to algal blooms in rivers, streams, and lakes.
D. Some people develop allergies or breathing issues.
Some people develop allergies or breathing issues is one way that poor air quality can create problems for humans in the United States.
What level of air quality is safe?The level of poor air quality and the resulting health risk increase with increasing AQI values. An AQI value of 50 or less, for instance, suggests clean air, even though one of over 350 indicates polluted air.
How does the quality of the air influence you?Poor air quality can aggravate asthma and related disorders, irritate ones eyes, nose, & throat, induce shortness of breath, and have negative effects on the heart and circulatory system. Long-term exposure to contaminated air can result in more severe issues.
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carbohydrates and lipids
Answer: what about carbohydrates and lipids you're asking about?
Explanation:
Identify the:
7. Control Group
Homer notices that his shower is covered in a strange green slime. His friend Barney tells him that coconut juice will get rid of the green slime. Homer decides to check this out by spraying half of the shower with coconut juice. He sprays the other half of the shower with water. After 3 days of "treatment" there is no change in the appearance of the green slime on either side of the shower. Identify the:
The first thing that was noticed was green slime. Some other part of the bathtub that was sprayed with water serves as the control group.
Describe green slime.Cyanobacteria are the cause of the green slime. Water-dwelling creatures called cyanobacteria use the sun's energy to make their own energy (photosynthesis). They can be discovered practically everywhere on Earth, from momentarily wet rocks in grasslands to oceans and lakes.
What is the purpose of green slime?This is the works team green sludge shock O-ring grease from team associated. This specifically designed lubricant helps reduce shock oil leakage from the shocks and delivers smoother shock action by improving the seal here between shock shafts and indeed the shock O-rings.
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An organism has a haploid chromosome number n = 4. How many tetrads will form during meiosis? A. two. B. three. C. four. D. eight
Organism with ''haploid chromosome'' number n=4 will form four tetrads during meiosis . Nearly every human cell contains 46 chromosomes, 23 of which come from one of our parents and 23 highly similar chromosomes from the other parent.
Meiosis is a type of cell division in sexually reproducing organisms that reduces the number of chromosomes in gametes (the sex cells, or egg and sperm). In humans, body (or somatic) cells are diploid, containing two sets of chromosomes (one from each parent). To maintain this state, the egg and sperm that unite during fertilization must be haploid, with a single set of chromosomes. During meiosis, each diploid cell undergoes two rounds of division to yield four haploid daughter cells — the gametes.
The appropriate number of chromosomes in a cell is crucial. The number of chromosomes in a cell or the absence of a chromosome can have a significant impact on how that cell works. Meiosis can be conceptualized as the process by which cells meticulously count and divide their chromosomes to ensure that every gamete, or egg or sperm, contains precisely 23 chromosomes. The resultant fertilized egg contains precisely 46 chromosomes when a sperm with 23 chromosomes fertilizes an egg with 23 chromosomes. And every cell of the new human that emerges from that fertilized egg will contain 46 chromosomes.
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which of the following combinations could be linked together to form a nucleotide?
A nucleotide is made up of the three components: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar (ribose or deoxyribose), and one or more phosphate groups.
The nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). The sugar found in the RNA is ribose and the sugar found in DNA is deoxyribose.
So, to form a nucleotide, you would need to combine one of the nitrogenous bases (A, T, C, or G) with a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) and one or more phosphate groups. For example, adenine + ribose + phosphate would form the nucleotide adenosine.
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In the early 1900s, cities such as Philadelphia reduced the incidence of typhoid fever by
A) isolating human carriers.
B) using tertiary water treatment systems.
C) filtering municipal drinking water through sand-bed filters.
D) requiring residents to boil drinking water.
E) mass vaccination of residents.
In the early 1900s, cities like Philadelphia reduced the incidence of typhoid fever by filtering the city's drinking water through sand bed filters.
In 1906-07, the largest typhoid fever epidemic in history occurred. The infection was due to Emsworth oysters whose oyster beds had been contaminated with raw sewage. The most notorious carrier of typhoid fever, but by no means the most devastating, was Mary Her Marron, also known as Typhoid Her Mary.
Ultimately, Philadelphia adopted a defense that worked well in Europe. That was to clean the water supply with a filtration system. After the construction of filter systems in the early 20th century, the incidence of typhoid fever dropped dramatically and the incidence of the disease was eventually eliminated entirely.
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.
Answer the question stated
Answer:
Methane is formed as a result of Mining of coal
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of stressors? a. Catastrophes b. Significant life changes c. Daily hassles d. Loss of personal control
C. Daily hassles is NOT one of the three main types of stressors.
Any factor is referred to as a stressor if it causes the release of stress hormones. Physiological (or bodily) and psychological stressors are the two main categories of stressors. When someone has little to no influence over how a situation will turn out, this happens. have obligations that are too heavy for you. Your life isn't busy enough, active enough, or changing enough. You might experience abuse, hostility, or discrimination. Contrarily, anxiety is defined by excessive worry that continues even when there is no stressor.
causes of stress include:
important adjustments in one's life.
Education or employment.
connections that are difficult
concerns with money.
being too preoccupied
a family and kids.
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In Metaphase, the chromosomes are all aligned in the center of the cell.
O True
O False
True. During metaphase, the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell in a process called the metaphase plate.
What do you mean by metaphase?
Metaphase is one of the stages of mitosis, the process of cell division. During metaphase, the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell and are attached to the spindle fibers. The centrosomes, located on opposite sides of the cell, move apart and form the spindle fibers. These fibers attach to the chromosomes and pull them to the middle.
The positioning is important for the cell to accurately separate the chromosomes during the next stage of cell division, anaphase.
Hence, the statement is True.
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Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle are true?
It has three cell cycle checkpoints.
It is regulated by cyclins and CDKs.
Different levels of cyclins are observed at different cell cycle stages.
It can be "paused" by the action of p53.
All of the answer options are true.
All of the answer options regarding the cell cycle are true.
The cell cycle consists of a series of steps in which chromosomes and other cellular material are replicated to create two copies. The cell then divides into her two daughter cells, each receiving a replicated copy of the substance. The cell cycle is completed when each daughter cell is surrounded by its own outer membrane.
The cell cycle consists of interphase (G 1 , S, and G 2 phases) followed by mitotic phases (mitosis and cytokinesis) and G 0 phases.
The cell cycle can be viewed as the life cycle of a cell. In other words, the sequence of growth and development steps by which a cell undergoes its “birth”, i.e. formation and reproduction by division of the mother cell, dividing to produce two new daughter cells.
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please help meeee
1.The greenhouse effect occurs when
a. cooling towers malfunction.
b. radiated heat from the Earth is absorbed by the atmosphere.
c. steam heating systems are used.
d. ultraviolet light is absorbed by the atmosphere.
2. In a radiant electric system, heat is produced from
a. electric resistance in cables or wires.
b. thermostats.
c. heat pumps.
d. packed fiberglass.
3. Which of the following is not part of a cooling system?
a. storage tank
b. refrigerant
c. compressor
d. cooling tower
4. Answer:
A cooling tower
a. is controlled by a thermostat.
b. cools water as it flows through pipes.
c. cools water through insulation.
d. causes thermal pollution.
5. Answer:
In passive solar heating,
a. buildings have pipes to circulate hot water.
b. a heat exchanger is needed.
c. buildings are heated directly by the sun.
d. a solar collector absorbs sunlight.
The greenhouse effect occurs when radiated heat from the Earth is absorbed by the atmosphere, hence questions 1- b, 2- c, 3- A, 4- C, and 5- B are correct answers.
What is the greenhouse effect?The greenhouse effect is the process that happens when the energy in the form heats the planet's surface, but greenhouse gases in the atmosphere absorb it and stop some of the heat from returning directly to space and warming the planet.
In a radiant electric system, heat is produced from the heat pump storage tank that is not part of a cooling system, the cooling tower cools water through insulation.
Therefore, the greenhouse effect occurs when radiated heat from the Earth is absorbed by the atmosphere.
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Roy’s doctor recommend that he watch his blood cholesterol level because his of reading of 200 milligrams per deciliter although Roy’s cholesterol was not excessively high his doctor advised him to improve his eating and exercise habits because of genetic disposition to the heart disease which of the oils below would be the best choice for Roy if you wanted to reduce his intake of saturated fats 
The best oil choice for Roy would be a polyunsaturated fat, such as olive oil or canola oil. These oils are lower in saturated fat than other fats and can help reduce cholesterol levels.
What is Polyunsaturated Fat?Polyunsaturated fat is a type of dietary fat found in many nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils.
It is one of the two main types of unsaturated fat, along with monounsaturated fat.
Polyunsaturated fat is considered to be a healthier alternative to saturated fats, and can help to reduce levels of bad cholesterol in the body.
Salmon, vegetable oils, some nuts and seeds, as well as other plant and animal foods including nuts and seeds, contain polyunsaturated fat.
Since cholesterol and trans fats raise your risk of heart disease and other health issues, it is beneficial for your health to consume modest levels of polyunsaturated (and monounsaturated) fat.
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A stimulus that does not initially elicit a response in an organism is a(n) ________.
a. unconditioned stimulus
b. neutral stimulus
c. conditioned stimulus
d. unconditioned response
A stimulus is considered neutral if it first causes only the attention to be focused. When combined with an unconditioned stimulus in classical conditioning, the neutral stimulus turns into a conditioned stimulus.
An organism initially does not react to a neutral stimuli. The word "neutral" denotes objectivity and independence. As a result, no specific response is connected to a neutral input. When the neutral stimulus is presented repeatedly alongside the unconditioned stimulus at the same time, a response known as a conditioned response will start to be elicited.
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When is the cell cycle needed/used? Select all that apply.
O Growth for organisms
O Replacing old cells
O Making sex cells
O Repairing damaging cells
Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure below to answer the following question. Which of the life cycles is typical for animals? O I only O ll only O III only O I and III
I only referes the life cycles, that is typical for animals.
During the meiotic process, a single cell divides twice, producing four cells with only half the original genetic material. The sex cells in males and females are the sperm and eggs, respectively.
After one round of DNA replication in the cells of the male or female repoductive organs of animals, meiosis starts. Meiosis I and meiosis II, the two meiotic divisions, are divided into different phases of the process. Meiosis II mimics mitosis, whereas meiosis I is a unique type of cell division that only happens in germ cells.
Complete question:
Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure below to answer the following question. Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?
a)I only
b) ll only
c)III only
d) I and III
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Please help!!
Choose the set of organisms that would most likely be considered to be one family.
According to phylogenetic tree, the organisms of 5 and 15 would most likely be considered to be one family.
What are the characteristics of phylogenetic tree?A phylogenetic tree is a branching diagram or a tree showing the evolutionary relationships among various biological species or other entities based upon similarities and differences in their physical or genetic characteristics.
A phylogenetic tree, also known as a phylogeny, is a diagram that depicts the lines of evolutionary descent of different species, organisms, or genes from a common ancestor.
Phylogenetics is a powerful approach in finding evolution of current day species. By studying phylogenetic trees, scientists gain a better understanding of how species have evolved while explaining the similarities and differences among species.
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Which of the following is a property of salts
salts don't pass electricity in solid. conduct electricity in aqueous solution
mark brainliest if correct pls
Question- forests provide a habitat for many organisms in addition they reduce the amount of dioxide in the atmosphere and produce oxygen what does it mean to say that forests must not only be managed but they must be managed in a sustainable way.
A Quiz: Impacts on Land
on Land
savvasrealize.com
OB. They should be protected from floods.
OC. Trees should be cut in large numbers at a time.
OD. They should be kept usable by future generations.
Savva
Forests provide a habitat for many organisms. In addition, they reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and produce oxygen. What de
not only be managed, but they must be managed in a sustainable way?
OA No trees should be cut down at all.
forests provide a habitat for many organisms in addition they reduce the amount of dioxide in the atmosphere and produce oxygen. it mean to say that They should be kept usable by future generations.
Describe a forests.The most effective ecosystem in nature is a forest, where a high level of photosynthesis has an impact on both the animal and plant systems in a web of intricate biological interactions.
Why are forests significant?The importance of forests cannot be overstated. We rely on trees for everything we need to thrive, including the oxygen we breathe and the lumber we use. Forests provide more than simply a place for animals to live and a way for people to survive. They decrease the consequences of climate change, safeguard soil erosion, and safeguard watersheds.
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which statement describes a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Answer:
Eukaryotic cells have flagella, while prokaryotic cells do not.
Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ______. Select one: a. biodiverse environments b. biologically magnified c. endemic environments d. biodiversity hot spots
Option D - Biodiversity hot spots are referred as Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species .
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a location must meet two strict criteria:
It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants and a sizeable fraction of endemic, or native to only one place on Earth, plant life. Alternatively said, a hotspot is distinct.
There must be just 30% or less of the natural vegetation left. Therefore, it must be in danger. The planet has 36 locations that are hotspots. More than half of the world's unique plant species are found in environments that occupy just 2.5% of the planet's land area. The diversity of life on Earth is its foundation. If there was no oxygen to breathe, food to eat, or water to drink, water to drink or Without society for humans, there wouldn't be any species.
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A 5.0-μm strand of DNA carries charge +e per nm of length.Treating it as a charged line, what's the electric field strength 25 nm from the DNA,not near either end?
The electric field near an infinite line charge can be calculated and formulated such that
E= 2kλ/d
Here, k is the Coulomb constant and
λ is the line charge density, and d is the distance from the line charge.
Putting all the values in the given formula,
E= 1.15×10^8 N/C
What do you find DNA?In organisms called eukaryotes, DNA is found inside a special area of the cell called the nucleus. Because the cell is very small, and because organisms have many DNA molecules per cell, each DNA molecule must be tightly packaged. This packaged form of the DNA is called a chromosome.
Who discovered DNA?The molecule now known as DNA was first identified in the 1860s by a Swiss chemist called Johann Friedrich Miescher. Johann set out to research the key components of white blood cells part of our body's immune system. The main source of these cells was pus-coated bandages collected from a nearby medical clinic.
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It is possible to compute and express the electric field at an infinite line charge such that E= 2k/d. In this case, d is the distance from the line charge, k is the Coulomb constant, and is the density of the line charge.
E= 1.15×10^8 N/C
Why does DNA matter?In eukaryotic organisms, the nucleus is a particular area of the cell where DNA is found.
Who made DNA possible?Although the cell is fairly small, each creature's cell contains several DNA molecules. In the 1860s, a Swiss scientist named Johann Friedrich Miescher discovered the original discovery of the DNA molecule. Johann set out to look into the fundamental components of the white blood cells that make up our bodies' immune systems.
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Altruistic behavior in animals may be a result of kin selection, a theory maintaining that:
a) genes promote the survival of copies of themselves when behaviors by animals possessing those genes assist other animals that share those genes.
b) aggression within sexes increases the survival and reproduction of the fittest individuals.
c) companionship is advantageous to animals because, in the future, they can recognize those that have helped them and provide help to those individuals.
d) aggression between the sexes increases the survival and reproduction of the fittest individuals.
e) companionship is advantageous to animals because, in the future, they can recognize those that have helped them and request help once again.
Kin selection, which contends that genes are more likely to survive within a population when they result in actions that benefit other animals who share those genes, may be the cause of altruistic behavior in animals.
What is the kin selection theory in animal behavior?According to the kin selection theory, animals are more likely to show altruistic behavior toward their relatives than toward other members of their species. Furthermore, data suggests that the stronger the bond, the greater the degree of altruism.
What does altruistic behavior theory entail?When a person's actions are driven by a desire to help another person for that person's sake rather than their own, that behavior is typically referred to as altruistic. The phrase is used to contrast with being "self-interested" or "selfish."
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The Sanger method of DNA sequencing requires which of the following to be in the reaction tube? Choose one: O A. template DNA O B. deoxyribonucleotides O C. dideoxyribonucleotides O D. A, B, and C are correct. O E. Only A and B are correct. O F. Only A and Care correct.
D. A, B, and C are correct regarding DNA sequence. A technique for figuring out the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called Sanger sequencing, commonly referred to as the chain termination method.
Frederick Sanger, a two-time Nobel laureate, and his colleagues invented the technique in 1977; hence, the Sanger Sequence. DNA template, DNA sequence primer, thermostable DNA polymerase, nucleotides (dNTPs), dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs), buffer, and dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are needed for Sanger sequencing. Sanger sequencing is a technique for DNA analysis that uses electrophoresis and is based on DNA polymerase's haphazard incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides during in vitro DNA replication. It is frequently used to check for known familial variations, to validate NGS results, and in rare cases, for single gene sequencing.
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