A nurse is working at a health fair screening people for liver cancer. Asian Americans population group should the nurse monitor most closely for liver cancer.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
A set of illnesses known as cancer involve abnormal cell proliferation and have the ability to invade or spread to different bodily regions. These stand in contrast to benign tumors, which remain stationary. A lump, unusual bleeding, a persistent cough, unexplained weight loss, and a change in bowel habits are all potential warning signs and symptoms. These signs of cancer may be present, but there may be other causes as well. Humans are susceptible to over 100 different malignancies. About 22% of cancer fatalities are related to tobacco usage. Another 10% of cases are brought on by obesity, a bad diet, a lack of exercise, or excessive alcohol consumption. Other concerns include exposure to ionizing radiation, certain diseases, and environmental contaminants.
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A nurse is working at a health fair screening people for liver cancer. Which population group should the nurse monitor most closely for liver cancer?
a. Hispanic
b. Asian Americans
c. Non-Hispanic Caucasians
d. Non-Hispanic African-Americans
which action will the nurse include when discussing the need to respect patients wishes and detrmine patient preferences related to culture regarding activities of daily living
The capacity to provide patients with the greatest medical treatment while exhibiting cultural knowledge of their beliefs, race, and values is referred to as cultural competence in nursing.
Which nurse intervention exemplifies client care that is culturally appropriate?By using their last names and introducing themselves, the nurse can show professionalism and provide care that is sensitive to cultural norms. In order to build trust, he or she should give requests extensive follow-up, respect the client's privacy, and refrain from asking direct questions in the beginning.
Which of the following displays a nurse's regard for a patient's autonomy?Observing autonomy The choice of the patient is not influenced by the nurses. Examples of nurses doing this include getting the patient's consent for treatment with informed consent, being understanding when the patient declines medication, and keeping confidentiality.
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when preparing a client who is scheduled for a pulmonary function test (pft) because of possible adult-onset asthma, which action would the nurse take ?
The nurse would take several actions to prepare the client for a Pulmonary Function Test (PFT).
First, the nurse would assess the client current respiratory status, including oxygen achromatism position, respiratory rate and breath sounds. The nurse would explain the procedure to the customer, addressing any questions or enterprises. The nurse would also ask the customer to refrain from eating, drinking and smoking for two hours.
prior to the test. The nurse would also check for any specifics that the client is taking, as some may affect the results of the test. Incipiently, the nurse would insure that the client is wearing comfortable apparel and has voided his or her bladder previous to the test.
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T/F the endurance limit is the stress level above which an infinite number of loading cycles can be applied without causing fatigue failure
The given statement is false. Because endurance limit is the stress level below which an infinite number of loading cycles can be applied without causing fatigue failure.
Fatigue failure is still a possibility even if the stress level is below the endurance limit, due to other factors such as surface defects, corrosion, and so on. The endurance limit is a theoretical concept used to describe the behavior of materials under repeated loading.
The endurance limit is a measure of the material's resistance to fatigue and is an important factor in the design of structures subjected to cyclic loading, such as aircraft and bridges. Above the endurance limit, fatigue failure will eventually occur after a certain number of loading cycles, even if the stress is kept below the ultimate tensile strength of the material.
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an asymptomatic client questions the nurse about mitral regurgitation and inquires about continuing exercises. which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
The nurse should explain to the asymptomatic client that mitral regurgitation is a condition in which the heart's mitral valve does not close tightly therefore the correct option is A.
An asymptomatic client questions as the nurse about mitral regurgitation and inquires about continuing exercises. which is the most applicable response by the nurse allowing some of the blood to flow backward in the heart. The nurse should also explain that while the customer may not be passing any symptoms,
it's important to limit physical exertion and avoid any heavy lifting or emphatic exercise. The nurse should emphasize that if physical exercise is necessary, the client should consult with his/ her doctor and follow the doctor's advice.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
an asymptomatic client questions the nurse about mitral regurgitation and inquires about continuing exercises. which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
a heart's mitral valve does not close tightly.
b heart's mitral valve close tightly.
c None
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a 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. which education would the nurse provide the parent about the measles, mumps, and rubella (mmr) vaccine?
Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine is generally not recommended for immunosuppressed individuals, including a 12-month-old infant undergoing chemotherapy.
This is because individuals who are immunosuppressed may not respond adequately to the vaccine, and there is also a risk that the vaccine could cause harm to the immunocompromised person.
In such circumstances, the nurse would instruct the parent on the MMR vaccine as follows:
Describe the reason behind not giving the vaccine: The nurse would inform the parent that the infant's immunodeficiency has been compromised by chemotherapy, making them more prone to infections. Therefore, at this time, the MMR vaccination is not advised.
Alternative measures of defence: The nurse may advise different measures of defense against measles, mumps, and rubella, such as avoiding contact with infected people and getting medical help if the newborn exhibits signs of these diseases.
Future MMR vaccine scheduling: Considering the infant's chemotherapy regimen and general health state, the nurse would talk with the parent about the ideal time for future MMR vaccinations.
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the nurse is teaching a class on the perception of pain. what will the nurse teach as being the second step in processing pain stimuli? 1) thalamus 2) limbic system 3) cerebral cortex 4) reticular system
The correct option is C ; Cerebral cortex , The second stage of the nursing process is diagnosis. The American Nurses Association has also classified it as the second Standard of Practice.
The nursing diagnosis is the second phase in the nursing process. The nurse will review all of the information obtained and diagnose the client's condition and requirements.
Practical nursing license (LPN) LPNs, also known as licensed vocational nurses (LVNs), are in charge of a variety of patient care tasks. They keep track of patients' health and provide basic treatment.
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because the mediterranean diet is recognized as being low in meat, rich in fresh fruit and vegetables, low in added sugar, and low in saturated fat, it has been recommended as a sustainable alternative to the myplate dietary pattern. a. true b. false
The statement on Mediterranean diet as a low in meat, rich in fresh fruit, low in saturated fats, and recommended as a sustainable alternative to the my plate dietary pattern is true.
Mediterranean diet is rich in fresh fruits and vegetables which are important to keep the body fit and healthy, and consists of whole grain and certain sea foods which provide additional micronutrients to the body.
It is traditionally derived from Greece, Italy and nations close to Mediterranean sea. It is specifically rich in plant based food items. Some healthy and veg items included in it are yogurt, berries, nuts, olive oil and fresh fruits which acts as anti oxidants. Brown rice is also part of it.
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the nurse working on the rehabilitation unit is examining the shoulders of a client during a detailed musculoskeletal assessment. which four motions should be included during this examination?
Four movements—flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation—should be examined during this examination.
An abduction movement is what?Introduction. Abduction is typically defined in anatomical terms as both the movement of both a limb as well as appendage away from either the body's midline. Arm abduction here refers to the movement of the arms away from the physique while they are still in the plane of such torso (sagittal plane).
What is abduct a woman?The lady is, in a sense, the victim of sexual assault. Without even the least warning to the girl's family, friends, or relatives, the would-be kidnapper gathers a gang of family members and close friends to abduct her.
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chromium and boron supplements would be an example of which major classification of nutritional supplement?
Supplements containing boron and chromium dietary supplements primarily fall within the mineral category.
What exactly are dietary supplements?Something ingested as part of a diet. An oral nutritional supplement typically has one or more dietary constituents. Dietary components can include anything from vitamins and minerals to herbs, enzymes, amino acids, and even herbs.
Which is an illustration of a dietary supplement?Typical supplements consist of: Vitamins (such as multivitamins or specific vitamins like vitamin D and biotin) (such as multivitamins or individual vitamins like vitamin D and biotin). Minerals (such as calcium, magnesium, and iron) (such as calcium, magnesium, and iron). herbal plants or plants (such as echinacea and ginger). But there are certain hazards associated with using dietary supplements, particularly for those who are receiving cancer therapy.
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which is the most important factor for the nurse to consider when selecting nursing measures to promote attachment during the immediate postpartum period?
The most important factor for the nurse to be consider when selecting nursing measures to promote attachment during the immediate postpartum period is the immediate postpartum period.
Postpartum period is the individual requirements of the mother and baby. Attachment is a complex process involving the physical, cerebral, and emotional connection between a mama and her baby. A successful postpartum period requires that the nanny understands the unique requirements and circumstances of the mama and baby.
For illustration, the nanny should consider factors similar as the mother's once behaviour with parenthood, her position of comfort with her baby, her physical health, and her emotional state when opting nursing measures to promote attachment. The nanny should also consider the baby's age, health, and experimental position.
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the nurse is preparing to discharge a patient whose calcium level was low but is now just barely within the normal range (9 to 10.5 mg/dl [2.25 to 2.63 mmol/l]). which statement by the patient indicates the need for additional teaching?
The correct option is A, that is, the use of dairy products, seafood, almonds, broccoli, and spinach, all of which are excellent sources of dietary calcium, should be recommended for clients with low calcium levels. The other three choices show that calcium treatment is correctly understood.
Calcium is a mineral that is most frequently linked to strong bones and teeth, but it also plays a critical role in blood clotting, assisting with muscular contraction, and maintaining regular heartbeats and nerve activity. The body stores around 99% of its calcium in the bones, with the remaining 1% being present in blood, muscle, and other tissues. The body tries to maintain a consistent level of calcium in the blood and tissues in order to carry out these essential everyday processes. The bones will release calcium into the circulation when blood calcium levels get dangerously low, according to parathyroid hormone.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client whose calcium level was low but is now just barely within the normal range (9 to 10.5 mg/dL [2.25 to 2.63 mmol/L]). Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?
A. "I will avoid dairy products, broccoli, and spinach when I eat."
B. "I will take my calcium citrate pill every morning before breakfast."
C. "I will make sure to take my vitamin D with my calcium each day."
D. "I will call my doctor if I experience muscle twitching or seizures."
What nursing diagnosis can result from imbalanced nutrition?
Less than Body Requirements, Overweight, Obesity, Risk of Obesity, Readiness for Enhanced Nutrition, and Impaired Swallowing are all nursing diagnoses that can come from poor nutrition.
Optimizing the patient's oral intake, providing oral nutrition supplements, and delivering enteral and parenteral nourishment are all examples of nutrition therapies. Nurses play a critical role in the implementation of these treatments. Imbalanced nutrition is defined as nourishment that is either greater than or less than the body's requirements and metabolic demands. Dietary deficiencies or excesses, obesity and eating disorders, and chronic illnesses such as cardiovascular disease, hypertension, cancer, and diabetes mellitus are examples.
One of the most prevalent disorders caused by iron deficiency is anaemia. Fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath are additional symptoms of iron deficiency. Iron is an essential mineral for the production of haemoglobin in the blood.
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1. in your first job as a pharmacist in the hospital, a physician prescribes a medication in a dose that may be harmful to that patient. you notify the physician of the possibility for harm, but the physician asserts that the dose is correct and you should dispense as ordered. what would you do?
As a pharmacist, it is your professional responsibility to ensure that medications are prescribed and dispensed safely. If you have concerns about the safety of a medication, you have a duty to bring those concerns to the attention of the prescribing physician and to take appropriate action to protect the patient.
In this matter you should:
Discuss the matter with the physician: Explain your concerns and provide any relevant information, such as the patient's medical history, current medications, and the potential risks of the medication at the prescribed dose.
Consult relevant resources: Review the medication information, including the package insert, to determine the recommended dose range and any safety warnings. You may also consult other pharmacists, toxicologists, or references, such as the formulary or a drug database.
Document your concerns: Document the conversation with the physician, the information you have reviewed, and the rationale for your concerns.
Consider alternative options: If you are still concerned about the safety of the medication, consider alternative options, such as changing the dose, switching to a different medication, or monitoring the patient closely for adverse effects.
Evaluate your options: If the physician still insists that the dose is correct, you must evaluate your options, taking into account the patient's safety, your ethical and legal responsibilities, and the risk of harm to the patient.
In some cases, you may need to escalate the matter to a higher authority, such as the patient's primary care physician, a specialist, or the hospital's ethics committee. However, the ultimate goal is to ensure that the patient receives safe and effective medication therapy.
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a nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. the nurse places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?
Because bowel noises tend to be high pitched, just use diaphragm end piece in the right lower quadrant.
If the nurse wants to listen for bowel sounds just at ileocecal valve, where ought to the stethoscope be placed?The right lower abdomen quadrant, where the ileocecal valve is located, is where the nurse starts to auscultate because stool noises are always heard there ordinarily. The nurse presses the diaphragmatic endpiece of a stethoscope lightly on the skin.
Which method is most effective for evaluating bowel sounds while inspecting this patient's abdomen?The midsection of the intestinal wall is located in the belly to the side of the umbilicus, so listen for bowel noises there.Listen to each of the four quadrants after that.Listen for small bowel obstruction to the right of a umbilicus when auscultating patient abdomen, and then listen for other abdominal sounds.
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discuss the definitions of health presented in this chapter in terms of their implications for the health care delivery system.
The definitions of health presented in this chapter have important implications for the health care delivery system. The World Health Organization defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease or infirmity".
The World Health Organization with the primary thing of controlling the spread of complaint and perfecting global health. WHO works to promote health mindfulness and help the spread of conditions by furnishing specialized backing to countries, promoting exploration and development, and furnishing advice on public health issues.
It also works to ameliorate access to health services, drugs, and vaccines. WHO also works to gather data and cover the health of people each over the world, and give information about health issues and trends. also, WHO works to insure the safety of food, water, and other environmental factors that can affect health.
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a nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pain. which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of pain management? group of answer choices
The official medical escort is reliable and liable to woo successfully selling with the patient's hassle via evaluation, intercession, and stoic hype. also, non-pharmacological interventions to stem the patient's eminent bother. The correct option(B).
Persistent torment for the most part doesn't disappear, however, you can oversee it with a blend of methodologies that work for you. Current persistent torment medicines can diminish an individual's aggravation score by around 30%.
Torment is an indication that something has occurred, that something is off-base. Intense torment happens rapidly and disappears when there is no reason, however, persistent agony endures longer than a half year and can proceed when the injury or sickness has been dealt with.
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Q-A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pain. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of pain management?
a."This patient says the pain is a 5 but is not acting like it. I am not going to give any pain medication."
b."I need to reassess the patient's pain for 1 hour of oral pain medication."
c. "It wasn't time for the patient's medication, so when it was requested, I gave a placebo."
d. "The patient is sleeping, so I pushed the PCA button."
Offline, create a complete pictogram that represents:
1. The various sources of energy.
2. The percentage of global consumption for each as shown in the video.
3. What each source is used for (electricity, transportation, heat).
Use the illustration from the video as a guide.
Upload your completed pictogram.
I cannot create a pictogram for you, but, I can suggest some tips on how to create such a pictogram:
Research and gather images or icons that represent each source of energy, such as a wind turbine for wind energy, a solar panel for solar energy, etc.Use a pie chart to represent the percentage of global consumption for each source of energy. Label each slice of the pie chart with the corresponding percentage.Use arrows or labels to indicate what each source of energy is used for (electricity, transportation, heat).Once you have created the pictogram, you can scan or take a photo of it and upload it to your desired platform.What is a Pictogram?A pictogram, also known as a pictogramme, pictograph, or just "picto," as well as an icon in computer usage, is a graphic symbol that communicates its meaning by having a visual likeness to a real-world object.
The pictogram would be immensely valuable as you seek to understand the various sources of energy and other prompts listed above.
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four newborns are in the newborn nursery, none of whom are crying or in distress. which of the babies should the nurse report to the neonatologist?
Any baby who is 25 hour old and that has not voided yet is the one whom the nurse should report to the neontologist.
If the newborn does not cry and stress after 25 hours, the nurse should refer the baby to a neonatologist for immediate and better treatment.
Neonatology is a subspecialty of pediatrics that cares for newborns, especially those who are ill or premature. It is a hospital specialty most commonly found in neonatal intensive care units (NICUs).
Newborn sobs and frustration are common symptoms after birth. No crying or stress indicates that the baby is very sick.
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a client does not like milk and does not want to take supplements. how can this healthy adult ensure that she is getting enough vitamin d daily?
To get enough vitamin D every day, bask in the sun in the morning or consume egg yolks and oatmeal.
What is vitamin D?Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin. This means that vitamin D can be stored in the body for a long time. There are two main types of vitamin D, namely vitamin D2 and vitamin D3. Vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol) comes from plants and can be found in several mushrooms.
Meanwhile, vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) can be found in fish, fish oil, egg yolks, and sunlight. However, limited exposure to sunlight, and dark skin color, can prevent the formation of vitamin D in the skin.
Vitamin D deficiency is usually found in certain conditions, such as:
Breastfed babyObesityElderlyCrohn's diseaseCeliacThe benefits of vitamin D3 also help overcome bone-related diseases in children and adults, including rickets, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis.
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the staff educator is teaching emergency department nurses about hypertensive crisis. the nurse educator should explain that a hypertensive emergency differs from hypertensive urgency in what way?
A hypertensive emergency always results in elevated blood pressure. A hypertensive emergency is a condition in which both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure are elevated.
How are hypertension-related emergencies and urgents treated?By progressively lowering blood pressure with oral antihypertensives, hypertensive emergencies can be treated as an outpatient procedure. Contrarily, hypertensive situations call for more urgent care and IV antihypertensives administered in a hospital setting.
In a hypertensive crisis, what should nurses do?Help the patient understand the warning signs and symptoms of hypertensive crises and delayed sequelae; stress the value of adhering to arterial hypertension medication; and instruct the patient on how to monitor their blood pressure at home.
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what is the relationship between efficacy and potency of a drug? a. potency is the strongest, non-harmful effect produced by a drug. b. potency is the minimum dose of a drug required for efficacy. c. efficacy is the amount of a drug needed to produce optimal results. d. efficacy is the range of impacts produced by the lowest potency.
The relationship between efficacy and potency of a drug is option a. potency is the strongest, non-harmful effect produced by a drug.
Potency is a pharmacological term used to describe the amount of a substance that is needed to create an effect of a specific strength. A substance with high potency causes a specific reaction at low concentrations, whereas a substance with low potency causes the same reaction only at higher concentrations.
A medicine that is effective in clinical trials is frequently ineffective when used as directed. For instance, a medicine may be highly effective at lowering blood pressure but be less beneficial overall because of all the negative effects it has. The phrase "potency" describes a drug's activity in terms of the concentration or quantity of the medication needed to achieve a specific effect, whereas the term " efficacy" assesses a medicine's therapeutic efficacy in humans.
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a nurse is auscultating for vesicular breath sounds in a client. of which quality would the nurse expect these normal breath sounds to be?
The nurse would expect normal vesicular breath sounds to be soft, low-pitched, and blowing in quality. These sounds are usually heard over the lung fields and are created by air moving through the air spaces in the lungs.
What is the normal breath count?The normal breath count per minute for an adult at rest is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. This number can vary depending on age, physical activity level, and overall health.
What does it mean when the breath count increases suddenly?A sudden change in breath count outside the normal range could indicate a respiratory problem and warrant medical attention. It's important to monitor breathing and keep track of any changes, as this can provide valuable information to healthcare professionals.
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How can a diet deficient in vitamin A impair vision?
Night blindness results from a lack of vitamin A, which prevents the formation of these pigments.
How might a diet lacking in vitamin A damage your vision?For good vision, you need vitamin A. For your retinas to function properly, your eyes must produce particular pigments. Your eyes' capacity to produce these pigments is hampered by a deficiency in vitamin A, which can cause night blindness. In other words, vitamin A is necessary for night vision.
Why Is Vitamin A Vital For Vision?Reducing the risk of macular degeneration and vision loss is one of vitamin A's most significant advantages for our eyes. Additionally, it strengthens the immune system, relieving eye inflammation and lowering our risk of getting an infection in our eyes.
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a patient has an immune deficiency. while the nurse obtains the patient's history, which finding is typical
While the nurse is gathering the patient's history, the patient has an immunological deficit. severe, persistent infection
Which historical finding is typical of someone who has a weakened immune system?Clinically, immune-deficient patients are typically identified by a history of recurrent infections. Which aspect of the immune system is weak can be determined by the type of infection.
What is acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?KWY-erd IH-myoo-noh-deh FiH-shun-see Sin-drome The sickness brought on by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A higher risk of infections and various cancers, which usually only affect those with weakened immune systems, exists in people with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. also called AIDS.
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The complete question is: What findings are typical for a patient with an immune deficiency?
a 45-year-old client has presented to the emergency department with a report of nausea and vomiting and severe pain just under the right rib cage. which response(s) should the nurse prioritize? select all that apply.
Responses that should be prioritized by the nurse with severe pain just below the right rib:
“Can you tell me more about the nausea and vomiting?""I am going to apply some pressure to your abdomen to see exactly where the pain is.""How long have your eyes had the yellow tint?"Pain under the ribs on the right can indeed be part of the symptoms of cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder). Often, cholecystitis will not only cause pain, but also nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, fever, and various other symptoms. This cholecystitis can appear not only because of gallstones but can also be due to tumors, scar tissue or twisting of the bile ducts, infections, to blood clotting disorders.
One of the causes of yellow eyes is obstruction of the flow of Bilirubin due to bile duct stones. So, the nurse can ask the client about this.
If severe nausea, vomiting, and pain under the right ribs, the client has symptoms of cholecystitis.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been on complete bed rest for the past week. as the nurse assists the client to sit in the chair, the client becomes dizzy when the legs are dangled over the side of the bed. which action by the nurse is the priority?
When the oxygen saturation of a client with pneumonia is at 89% to 90% while using a nonrebreather mask, the nurse would anticipate that the healthcare provider (HCP) would order additional oxygen therapy to improve the client's oxygenation.
One possible collaborative action that the nurse could anticipate would be an order to increase the oxygen flow rate on the nonrebreather mask, up to the maximum flow rate of 15 L/min. If this does not adequately improve the client's oxygen saturation, the HCP may order additional oxygen therapy, such as a high-flow nasal cannula or mechanical ventilation.
In addition to oxygen therapy, the nurse would also anticipate other collaborative interventions, such as administering antibiotics as prescribed to treat pneumonia and providing supportive care to help the client breathe more comfortably. The nurse would also continue to monitor the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation levels and communicate any changes or concerns to the healthcare team.
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the nurse includes which parameters in ongoing focused assessment of patients receiving positive inotropic medication for heart failure? select all that apply. monitor serum electrolytes check apical pulse auscultate lung sounds obtain daily weights review red blood cell count
For a patient receiving a positive inotropic drug the nursing assessments that should be performed are to obtain daily weights, check apical pulse, ausculatate lung sounds, and monitor serum electrolytes.
It is important for the nurse to perform these assessments in order to monitor the patient's response to the positive inotropic medication and detect any potential adverse effects. Obtaining daily weights can help monitor for fluid accumulation, checking the apical pulse can help assess for changes in heart rate and rhythm, auscultating lung sounds can help detect any changes in respiratory status, reviewing the red blood cell count can help monitor for anemia, and monitoring serum electrolytes can help ensure that levels remain within normal range.
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The given question is incorrect. The correct question is as follows:
For a patient receiving a positive inotropic drug, which nursing assessments should be performed? (Select all that apply.)
A. Obtain daily weights.
B. Check apical pulse.
C. Auscultate lung sounds.
D. Review red blood cell count.
E. Monitor serum electrolytes.
which characteristics does the nurse observe in a client with dementia pugilistica? select all that apply.
Dementia pugilistica is a form of dementia caused by repeated head trauma, and is characterized by memory loss, cognitive impairment, personality changes, speech and language impairment, motor impairment, behavioral changes, and psychiatric symptoms.
What is dementia pugilistica?Dementia pugilistica is a kind of dementia induced by recurrent head trauma, such as boxers endure. It is classified as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). The following are some of the characteristics of dementia pugilistica:
1. Memory Loss: The most prevalent symptoms of dementia pugilistica are memory loss and cognitive impairment. The individual may have difficulties recalling recent occurrences as well as recalling old events.
2. Personality Changes: Personality changes are typical in dementia pugilistica. Individuals may become angry, rash, or irritated.
3. Speech and Language Impairment: Individuals suffering with dementia pugilistica may struggle to understand and use language.
4. Motor Impairment: Another typical sign of dementia pugilistica is motor impairment. People may struggle with coordination, balance, and motor abilities.
5. Behavioral Changes: Dementia pugilistica is often characterized by behavioral abnormalities. Individuals may grow indifferent and disinterested in formerly appreciated hobbies. They may also acquire obsessive tendencies, such as repetitive actions or statements.
6. Psychological Symptoms: Dementia pugilistica patients may develop mental symptoms such as despair, anxiety, and paranoia.
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The complete question is: What characteristics does the nurse observe in a client with dementia pugilistica?
which guide would the associate nurse use to provide client care within the primary nursing delivery model
The aide nurse should provide care using the plan of care developed by the primary nurse.
What is Nursing delivery model?The nursing delivery model involves the use of a team leader and team members to provide various aspects of nursing care to a group of patients, where nursing, medications may be given by a nurse while under supervision by a nursing assistant. Bathing and body care is taken care of by of a nurse team leader.
There are four nursing work methods which are identified:
Functional nursingIndividual nursingTeam nursingPrimary nursingThus, the aide nurse should provide care using the plan of care developed by the primary nurse.
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which patient would the charge nurse assign to the step-down unit nurse who was floated to the intensive care unit for the day?
Although dependent on a ventilator, the COPD patient is the most stable of the group and should be given the float nurse from the step-down unit.
Which task should the unlicensed assistive persons (UAP) be given by the nurse?Generally speaking, easy, commonplace activities like changing empty beds, monitoring patient ambulation, assisting with cleanliness, and feeding meals can be delegated. Work closely with the UAP or provide the care yourself if the patient is frail, severely obese, or recovering from surgery.
Which nursing task will the registered nurse delegate to a licensed practical nurse when caring for a patient with a long-term tracheostomy?For stable patients, licensed practical nurses (LPNs) may do suctioning and provide tracheostomy care. The registered nurse should perform these procedures in patients who need an ET or tracheostomy tube due to acute airway issues (RN). Patients who are unstable: evaluate the
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