A nurse is preparing a blood transfusion for a client who has type A blood. The nurse should know that the client can safely receive blood from blood group O because
A. type O blood contains no A antigens.
B. type A blood contains O antibodies.
C. type O blood contains no A antibodies.
D. type A blood contains O antigens.

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse should know that the client can safely receive blood from blood group O because type O blood contains no A antigens. So the correct option is A.

In blood transfusions, compatibility between the donor and recipient blood types is essential to prevent adverse reactions. Type A blood contains A antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which can potentially trigger an immune response if given to a recipient with incompatible blood type. However, type O blood is considered the universal donor because it does not contain A or B antigens. Therefore, individuals with type A blood can safely receive blood from type O donors without the risk of an immune reaction due to the absence of A antigens in the type O blood. It is crucial for healthcare professionals, including nurses, to understand blood type compatibility to ensure safe and effective transfusions for their patients.

Type A blood contains A antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which can elicit an immune response if transfused to a recipient with incompatible blood type. However, type O blood is considered a universal donor as it lacks both A and B antigens, making it safe for individuals with type A blood to receive type O blood without the risk of an immune reaction.

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Related Questions

a coal miner suffers from constipation

Answers

A coal miner experiences constipation. The correct answer is 'col'. Col is the mnemonic for colon.

 

The mnemonic "COL" stands for colon, which is the part of the digestive system responsible for the elimination of feces. Constipation is a common condition that can occur when the colon is not able to properly move feces through the digestive system. This can be caused by a variety of factors, such as a lack of fiber in the diet, dehydration, or certain medications. In the context of a coal miner, the cause of constipation may be related to the conditions of their work environment, such as exposure to dust and pollutants or a lack of physical activity.

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The average adult body contains approximately ________ liters of blood.

Answers

The average adult body contains approximately 5 liters of blood.

Blood is a bodily fluid in the circulatory system of humans and other animals that moves metabolic waste products away from cells while delivering vital chemicals such as nutrition and oxygen to them. Blood in the circulatory system is also known as peripheral blood, as are the blood cells it contains.

Blood is made up of blood cells suspended in plasma. Plasma, which makes up 55% of blood fluid, is largely water (92% by volume) and contains proteins, carbohydrates, mineral ions, hormones, carbon dioxide (plasma is the primary medium for excretory product transfer), and blood cells themselves. The most abundant protein in plasma is albumin, which maintains blood colloidal osmotic pressure.

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A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A. total loss of function in a bone.
B. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
D. break in the continuity of the bone.

Answers

Answer:

d

Explanation:

An orthodontic tooth positioner is not used:

Answers

Orthodontic tooth positioners are not used in clients who do not have a change in tooth structure.

What is orthodontics?

Orthodontics is a specialist that deals with the process of correcting or correcting the position of teeth that are not neat, teeth that are too advanced, and other matters related to the tooth structure with the aim of restoring the function of the teeth as well as making the appearance more attractive.

There are several types of braces that can be used for orthodontic treatment, adjusted to the case and patient's needs, such as metal braces, ceramic braces, self-ligating braces, and lingual braces.

Orthodontic tooth movement is a combination of bone resorption and deposition on the compression and tensile sites, both of which will influence the cellular response.

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which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum? which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum? pericardial sac stomach small intestine spleen lung

Answers

lung spleen pericardial sac stomach small intestine. pericardial sac.  the following structures is located within the mediastinum.

What does intestine do to your body?

It helps to further digest food coming from the stomach. It absorbs nutrients (vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, fats, proteins) and water from food so they can be used by the body. The small intestine is part of the digestive system.

What is intestine food called?

chyme, a thick semifluid mass of partially digested food and digestive secretions that is formed in the stomach and intestine during digestion. In the stomach, digestive juices are formed by the gastric glands; these secretions include the enzyme pepsin, which breaks down proteins, and hydrochloric acid.

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escherichia coli o157:h7 is mainly associated with ground poultry. T/F

Answers

Answer:

false

Explanation:



Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT:

A. completing a detailed written report.
B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival.
C. restocking any disposable items you used.
D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except giving a verbal report to the triage clerk, hence option D is correct.

How to deliver a patient to the hospital?

When a patient is delivered to the hospital it should include the information about his medical report, and all the information about you to the dispatcher.

There are some activities when delivering a patient to the hospital:

Informing the dispatcher of your arrival.Completing a detailed written report.Restocking any disposable items you used.

All the rules must be followed by the person when delivering the patient to the hospital and the criteria for admission.

Therefore, the information given in the question all are correct except for giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

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25. The nurse observes a dient prepare a meal in the Kitchen of a rehabilitation faciley prior to
discharge. Which behaviors indicate the dient understands how to maintain balance saltel
(Select all that apply)
ngs a heavy can dose to body before Witing
b. Locks knees while preparing food on the counter
C. Widens stance while working near the sink
6.
Bends from the waist to pick trash off the floor
Leans forward to pull a pan from a high shelf,

Answers

The nurse observes a client prepare a meal in the Kitchen of a rehabilitation facility prior to discharge. the behaviors that  indicate the client understands how to maintain balance safely is Locks knees while preparing food on the counter.

What is a rehabilitation facility ?

After the acute medical illnesses have stabilized of patients , the patients with a variety of neurological, musculoskeletal, orthopedic, and other diseases are treated in rehabilitation facilities, also known as inpatient rehabilitation facilities. A rehabilitation facility is a business that offers programs and services to help people who have been hurt or are ill recover from their conditions.

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which of the following nurisng instructions relate to photosensitivty is important for the client reeiving sulfanomide

Answers

Use a high SPF sunblock which decreases the risk of photosensitive reactions is the nursing instructions related to photosensitivity important for the client receiving sulfonamide.

Sulfonamide is a functional group that serves as the foundation for various medication classes known as sulphonamides, sulfa medicines, or sulpha pharmaceuticals. The first antibacterial sulfonamides are sulfonamide-containing synthetic antimicrobial agents.

Sulfanilamide, a streptococcal infection treatment, has been proved to have remarkable curative results and had been used safely in tablet and powder form for some time. Sulfonamides are synthetic bacteriostatic antibiotics with a broad spectrum of activity against most gram-positive and many gram-negative bacteria. Many strains of a single species, however, may be resistant. Sulfonamides include sulfadiazine, sulfamethizole (Thiosulfil Forte), sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol), sulfasalazine (Azulfidine), sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin), and numerous high-strength combinations of three sulfonamides.

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CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: -is self-placed and brief. -involves hands-on practice. -is delivered by computer. -occurs every 24 months.

Answers

Answer:

Please mark brainliest

Involves hands-on practice

Explanation:

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the prion that causes mad cow disease?
A.It can survive traditional cooking temperatures.
B.It is found in tissue of the central nervous system of infected animals.
C.Ground meats are most often contaminated.
D.It is concentrated in the milk and muscle meat of animals.

Answers

Answer:

I think A is the correct option.

Pls mark me as brainliest

What is cetirizine hydrochloride and pseudoephedrine hydrochloride?

Answers

Cetirizine hydrochloride and pseudoephedrine hydrochloride are drugs for allergies, usually used to treat colds due to allergies.

What is cetirizine?

Cetirizine is an antihistamine drug. This drug works by blocking histamine, which is a compound that increases in the number and causes allergic symptoms when the body is exposed to an allergen (allergy-triggering substance). In addition, cetirizine can also be used to treat rhinitis or cold cough symptoms that are not caused by allergies.

Please note that cetirizine cannot cure allergies. The best way to prevent an allergic reaction is to avoid exposure to allergens. Cetirizine is generally only used when symptoms are present and can be discontinued after symptoms improve or disappear.

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A good nursing decision maker is one who:

Answers

A good nursing decision-maker is one who uses colorful models to guide the process grounded on the circumstances of the situation.

The first step is to make sure that the nanny director has an accurate understanding of the problem of conflict. The quality of the outgrowth of resolving a problem depends on proper recognition and identification of the problem or issue.

The nanny leader is working on resolving conflicts between platoon members. Which action indicates that the nanny is involved in the formative conflict? Making use of authentic or genuine communication may help in resolving conflict between platoon members.

The mortal relations proposition is the most useful to nanny directors because it stresses the significance of the existent as well as the group relationship. It emphasizes the part of psychology and sociology in the understanding of an individual as well as group geste in an association.

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two ways that hostility can affect the body are through stress on the heart and

Answers

Answer: cardiovascular reactivity

Explanation:

According to Burns, the results suggest that hostility may operate in concert with dimensions of job stress to affect cardiovascular reactivity, and presumably CHD. Various theories have been proposed to explain the development of hostility, including parental behavior that is overly strict, critical and demanding of conformity.

Colligative Properties

Follow the directions in the lab write up. Record the requested data below to submit for your lab. Only report the information asked for. Do NOT add rows to the data tables. "Be careful with your significant figures! Recall that you are to record all of the known digits and then one estimated digit for all analog devices. All digital devices, you record only the digits provided.**

Data Table 1. Dialysis Tubing Results or Egg results (3pts)
INSERT A PICTURE OF YOUR DIALYSIS TUBING ON THE SCALE after 1 hour. I need to be able to read your scale for credit. (3 pts)
Time; Mass of Dialysis Tubing and Contents
0 minutes; 51.4g
30 minutes; 67.9
60 minutes; 82.0

Questions (4pts)
A. In your experiment, is the light corn syrup in the dialysis tubing (or outside the egg) hypertonic or hypotonic? Explain your reasoning.

Answers

Water will flow in the other way since the egg contains significantly more water than the syrup. This indicates that the egg will shrink in size. Corn syrup, like the egg, is a hypertonic liquid, which means it is extremely concentrated and contains minimal water.

The transfer of a solvent via a semipermeable membrane that separates two solutions with different solute concentrations is known as osmosis. During osmosis, solvent travels from a lower solute concentration solution to a higher solute concentration solution.

The shell will be gone in one day, and water will begin to move into the egg. Osmosis is the passage of water across a semi-permeable membrane from a greater concentration of water (vinegar) to a lower concentration of water (egg). While the first two treatments caused the eggs to gain bulk, the syrup caused the eggs to lose mass. This demonstrates that the syrup was hypertonic to the solution inside the egg, forcing water to diffuse out of the egg in an attempt to achieve equilibrium.

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Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching on sleep hygiene?
A. "I'm going to do my exercises before I eat dinner."
B. "I'm going to go to bed every night at about the same time."
C. "I set my alarm to get up at the same time every morning."
D. "I moved my computer to the bedroom so I could work before I go to sleep."

Answers

Answer: D. "I moved my computer to the bedroom so I could work before I go to sleep." ✅

Explanation:

This statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching on sleep hygiene. Having electronic devices such as computers, TVs, or smartphones in the bedroom, can negatively affect sleep quality. This is because the blue light emitted by these devices can disrupt the body's production of melatonin, a hormone that regulates sleep. Therefore, it is recommended to not have electronic devices in the bedroom and to avoid using them before bedtime to improve the quality of sleep. ✅

which of the following is true about the factors that contribute to autism spectrum disorder (asd)?

Answers

a sibling who is autistic. possessing a disorder caused by a chromosome or genetic variation, such as tuberous sclerosis or fragile X syndrome. giving birth to a baby with problems. birth parents who are older

What among the following describes an ASD characteristic?

Communication and social interaction issues, as well as repetitive or limited actions or interests, are common in people with ASD. Additionally, people with ASD could move, pay attention, or learn in unusual ways.

The Indian Scale for Identification of Autism (ISAA) is an instrument that has been standardised and has high psychometric qualities. When used to diagnose people with autism, it is a trustworthy and reliable tool.

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If you consume gram of each of the following: which will yield the most ATP O glucose
O protein O fat
O starch

Answers

If you consume gram of each of the following: protein will yield the most ATP

What is the ATP yield that is highest?

The highest potential production of ATP for the aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule is 38. Explain how this number is derived in terms of substrate-level phosphorylation, oxidative phosphorylation, and the component processes involved.

The most effective method of ATP production is aerobic metabolism, which generates 18 times more ATP per molecule of glucose than anaerobic metabolism. Although carbohydrates are the main source of ATP in aerobic metabolism, fatty acids and protein may also be utilised as ATP fuel.

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After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:

O determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.

O identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

O look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.

O find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

Answers

To identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. This is the secondary assessment of a patient which will not focus on the main injury but on the effects of the injury on other body parts.

A lab test is the first step. A patient will provide a sample of their DNA, in this case body fluids. It could be saliva, mucus, urine and usually a blood sample. Afterwards, it is mixed with a special substance that reacts chemically with the blood to show the presence of disease or none thereof.

The process looks from head to toe of an injured person identifying all injuries. Mostly used when the signs and symptoms were not clear during the primary assessment.

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A patient's urinalysis shows her urine is pH 4.5. Will the kidneys be able to compensate any further her acidosis

Answers

Yes, The  kidneys will be  suitable to compensate for the acidosis caused by a pH of4.5,

Though not to the same degree as when the pH is advanced. The  feathers are  suitable to excrete  redundant acid or base in the urine in order to maintain the pH balance in the body. When the pH is lower, the  feathers aren't  suitable to excrete as important acid, and so the body won't be  suitable to  fully  relieve itself of the  redundant acid. This means that the acidosis will still be present, indeed if the  feathers are  suitable to compensate. In order to completely correct the acidosis, other treatments,  similar as sodium bicarbonate, may be necessary in order to bring the pH back to a normal  position. A case with a pH of4.5 should be covered  nearly for signs of acidosis and other complications.

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During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing:

Answers

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

Fingertips should be used for palpation, and the intensity of the pulse should be graded from 0 to 4 +: 0 indicates that there is no palpable pulse; 1 + that there is a faint but detectable pulse; 2 + that there is a slightly reduced pulse than normal; 3 + that there is a normal pulse; and 4 + that there is a bounding pulse.

When there is a rupture in the skin, external bleeding occurs. Blood leaving the body naturally through an orifice, such as the mouth, might also indicate blood loss from injured tissue.

Acne, clogged skin follicles that produce oil, germs, and dead tissue buildup in your pores are a few of the most prevalent skin conditions. Alopecia areata, which causes patchy hair loss. Eczema caused by allergies, dry, itchy skin.

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What code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant? a Z48.22 b Z48.22, Z94.0 C. N18.6 d. Z94.0'

Answers

a Z48.22 code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant.

How do aftercare codes work?

When the original course of treatment for an illness has been completed but the patient still needs ongoing care for the duration of the healing or recovery process or for the long-term effects of the condition, aftercare visit codes are provided.

For patients getting ongoing treatment during the healing process or for the long-term effects of a condition, the aftercare codes (Z47-Z48) are utilised. Reminder: For following encounters, code to the individual injury with the seventh character rather than using these codes with the injury codes.

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exemption from immunizations for reasons of conscience

Answers

Exemption from immunizations for reasons of conscience refers to the legal provision that allows individuals to opt out of receiving vaccinations for religious or personal beliefs.

 

This exemption may vary depending on the country's or state's laws. In some cases, the exemption may only be allowed for religious reasons, while in others it may also be allowed for personal or philosophical reasons. However, it's important to note that exemptions from vaccinations can pose a risk to public health by decreasing the overall herd immunity, making it easier for diseases to spread. Some studies have shown that exemptions can contribute to the outbreak of vaccine-preventable diseases. 

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Match the phrase with the term.
When you're still breathing hard after you finish exercising, it's called EPOC
When you can't breathe in fast enough to get all the oxygen your muscles need, it's called
When you're breathing in all the oxygen your muscles need, it's called oxygen deficit
What is it that produces lactic acid?
No lactic acid is being produced or
Extra oxygen that helps get rid of th
NEXT QUESTION
steady state
EPOC
oxygen deficit
AM
lled

Answers

Red blood cells and muscle cells are the principal producers of lactic acid. When oxygen levels are low, it develops when the body metabolises carbohydrates for energy. Your body's oxygen level may become reduced at the following times: during a vigorous activity.

Which fungus is used to produce lactic acid?

Rhizopus fungus can grow and ferment in simple media with a variety of carbon sources, including starch and cellulose, making it an ideal candidate for the manufacture of lactic acid, which serves as the structural component of polylactic acid, the base material for green plastic.

Even though the blood lactate content rises while exercising hard, the lactic acid molecule itself separates and is recycled to make additional ATP.

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A nurse is caring for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate who has continuous bladder irrigation in place. The client's urinary output has changed from pink to bright red with clots. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Answers

The sudden change in the color and consistency of the urinary output could indicate a possible complication of the surgery.

Bladder irrigation helps to remove and also thr prevent blood clots in the bladder. A blood clot prevents urine from flowing through the catheter. Urine accumulates in the bladder, and the pain increases as the bladder fills. Bladder irrigation may be necessary after bladder or prostate surgery. CBI should not be painful. However, if a person experiences pain, they should notify a medical professional immediately. Pain may indicate that the catheter needs to be repositioned or that fluids that irritate the bladder are not draining, usually due to blood clots. However, complaints may arise.

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the nurse is preparing a teaching tool that focuses on elder abuse. which type of abuse will the nurse highlight as being the most common?

Answers

The type of abuse which the nurse will highlight as being the most common is neglect.

Elder abuse is any deliberate action or inaction that harms or places an older adult at peril. Those people who are 60 or older are considered senior adults. The elder is abused by a carer or someone they have confidence in.

The inability of a caretaker to supply basic needs like food, housing, or medical assistance or to stop another person from doing so is considered neglect. An older adult may no more be able to execute necessary self-care due to physiological, psychological, or cognitive decline.

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General claims information??

Answers

In healthcare, a general claim is a request for payment for services rendered. It typically includes information such as the date of service, the provider of the service, and the cost of the service.

Claims are typically submitted by healthcare providers, such as hospitals, doctors, and other medical professionals, to insurance companies, government programs, or other payers. The insurance company or payer will then review the claim to determine if it is eligible for payment and, if so, how much they will pay. Claims can be denied if they do not meet the criteria set by the insurance company or payer, if they are not properly coded, or if they are duplicates. 

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How do i get my dad to come back with the milk

Answers

Answer:

By telling him to come back from the store with milk.

Explanation:

?

A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene a) may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot. b) stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis. c) only activates enzymes in a cell that allows metastasis. d) inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle. e) promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.

Answers

d) inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene.

What distinguishes a proto-oncogene from an oncogene?

Genes called proto-oncogenes generally aid in cell growth and division to produce new cells or to maintain the viability of existing cells. A proto-oncogene can get switched on (activated) when it shouldn't be when there are too many copies of it, at which time it becomes an oncogene and is known as such.

Tumor suppressor genes produce loss-of-function effects, whereas oncogenes are those whose changes result in gain-of-function consequences, which contribute to the malignant phenotype.

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dissolution of a nerve medical term:

Answers

Answer:

Neurolysis

Explanation:

You're welcome

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