The neurotransmitter that causes chloride channels to open on the postsynaptic membrane is most likely gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system and functions by hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic neuron, making it less likely to fire an action potential.
The opening of chloride channels by GABA allows negatively charged chloride ions to enter the postsynaptic neuron, leading to hyperpolarization and a decrease in its excitability. This plays a crucial role in regulating the overall activity of neural networks and contributes to processes such as relaxation, sedation, and anxiety reduction.
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What are the metabolic effects of alcohol ingestion and metabolism, in terms of redox balance and pyruvate-lactate equilibrium
The metabolic effects of alcohol ingestion and metabolism on redox balance and pyruvate-lactate equilibrium include increased NADH production, altered redox balance, and a shift towards lactate production.
1. Alcohol (ethanol) is metabolized primarily in the liver through a series of enzymatic reactions.
2. First, ethanol is converted to acetaldehyde by the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH), using the cofactor nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) which gets reduced to NADH.
3. Acetaldehyde is then converted to acetate by the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH), also using NAD+ and producing more NADH.
4. The increase in NADH production leads to a higher NADH/NAD+ ratio, altering the redox balance in the cell.
5. This altered redox balance favors the conversion of pyruvate to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) to regenerate NAD+, as the cell tries to restore the redox balance.
6. The increased conversion of pyruvate to lactate leads to a shift in the pyruvate-lactate equilibrium, resulting in increased lactate production.
In summary, alcohol ingestion and metabolism have significant effects on redox balance and pyruvate-lactate equilibrium. The increase in NADH production alters the redox balance in the cell, leading to a shift towards lactate production to restore the equilibrium.
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If the alleles of two different genes are present on the same chromosome, the closer they are to each other the more likely they are to
The closer two different genes are to each other on the same chromosome, the more likely they are to be inherited together.
The physical distance between genes on a chromosome affects the likelihood of them being separated during meiosis and inherited independently. Genes that are close together on a chromosome are more likely to be inherited together as a unit, which is known as linkage. This can complicate the prediction of offspring genotypes and phenotypes, as traits that are not expected to be inherited together may be linked due to their physical proximity on the same chromosome.
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Walter is comparing samples of muscle tissue that are taken from the body of a mouse. Which pair of sample muscle tissues can be expected to be most similar to each other
When comparing samples of muscle tissue taken from the body of a mouse, the most similar pair of samples can be expected to come from two muscles that have similar functions or are located in similar regions of the body. For example, the biceps and triceps muscles in the upper arm would be more similar to each other than the biceps muscle and the quadriceps muscle in the leg.
Additionally, the age, sex, and health status of the mouse can also affect the similarity of the samples. If the mouse is healthy and of the same age and sex, then the samples are more likely to be similar to each other. However, if the mouse is unhealthy or of a different age or sex, then the samples may differ more from each other.
It's also important to consider the method of sample collection and preparation, as different techniques can affect the composition of the tissue samples. Therefore, it's important to ensure that the samples are collected and prepared using standardized methods to minimize any differences between them.
Overall, to determine the most similar pair of muscle tissue samples from a mouse, it's important to consider factors such as the muscle function, location, age, sex, health status, and method of sample collection and preparation.
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B cell receptors are NOT: Group of answer choices formed in response to an encounter with an antigen complimentary in shape to a specific antigenic d
B cell receptors are not randomly formed and are instead specific to a particular antigen.
B cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system. They produce antibodies that can bind to specific antigens and neutralize them. The B cell receptors on the surface of B cells are responsible for recognizing and binding to these antigens.
Unlike T cells, which recognize antigens only when they are presented on the surface of other cells, B cells can recognize antigens in their native form. This is because B cell receptors are able to bind directly to antigens, thanks to their complementary shape.
Each B cell has a unique receptor that is specific to a particular antigen, and this specificity is not randomly generated. Instead, it is the result of a complex process of genetic recombination and selection that occurs during the development of B cells.
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The autonomic nervous system would receive sensory information from a ______. Multiple choice question. taste receptor on the tongue tactile receptor on the skin of the fingers stretch receptor in the wall of the heart pain receptor in the knee
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for regulating involuntary functions in the body, such as heart rate, digestion, and breathing. Based on the given multiple-choice options, the ANS would receive sensory information from a "stretch receptor in the wall of the heart."
1. Taste receptor on the tongue: This option is incorrect because taste receptors are related to the gustatory system, which is a part of the somatic sensory system rather than the autonomic nervous system.
2. Tactile receptor on the skin of the fingers: This option is also incorrect because tactile receptors are responsible for touch sensation and are part of the somatic sensory system, not the autonomic nervous system.
3. Stretch receptor in the wall of the heart: This option is correct. Stretch receptors in the heart monitor changes in blood pressure and help regulate the heart's functions, which are involuntary and thus part of the autonomic nervous system.
4. Pain receptor in the knee: This option is incorrect because pain receptors are associated with the somatic sensory system, which detects pain and relays that information to the brain, rather than the autonomic nervous system.
So, the correct answer is: "The autonomic nervous system would receive sensory information from a stretch receptor in the wall of the heart."
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A cross between two individuals with different phenotypes that resulted in approximately 50% of each type of offspring would indicate the cross was ________.
The cross described in the question indicates a typical outcome of a heterozygous cross or a monohybrid cross. This type of cross involves the breeding of two individuals with different alleles for a single trait, resulting in offspring that show a 3:1 ratio of phenotypic expression.
In this case, approximately 50% of each type of offspring indicates that both phenotypes are equally represented, which would only occur if the two parents are heterozygous for the trait. For example, if the parents were both heterozygous for flower color (one parent with purple flowers and the other with white), the offspring would have a 50% chance of inheriting the dominant purple allele and a 50% chance of inheriting the recessive white allele, resulting in a 1:2:1 ratio of PP: Pp: pp.
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When a G protein-coupled receptor binds a signal molecule, it activates a G protein. The active G protein is bound to a molecule of
A G protein is activated when a G protein-coupled receptor binds a signal molecule. The G protein that is actively coupled to a GTP molecule can activate another target protein while it is in this active state. Hence (d) is the correct option.
The majority of cellular reactions to inputs from the environment are mediated by G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). When a ligand activates the receptor, it binds to a heterotrimeric G protein partner and encourages the exchange of GTP for GDP, which causes the G protein to split into the and subunits that mediate downstream signals. Any variety of second messengers can be produced as a result of the activation of G proteins brought on by the binding of a signalling molecule to a GPCR.
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When a G protein-coupled receptor binds a signal molecule, it activates a G protein. The active G protein is bound to a molecule of _______, and in its active state can _________.
Choice A., GDP; inactivate another target protein
Choice B., GTP; inactivate another target protein
Choice C., GDP; activate another target protein
Choice D., GTP; activate another target protein
The skeleton of a shark is made of cartilage interspersed with granules of calcium carbonate. Relative to other types of skeletons, this particular composition results in a skeleton which is particularly and .
The skeleton of a shark is made of cartilage interspersed with granules of calcium carbonate. Relative to other types of skeletons, this particular composition results in a skeleton which is particularly lightweight and flexible.
Compared to other vertebrates with bony skeletons, sharks have a unique type of skeleton made of cartilage interspersed with granules of calcium carbonate. This composition makes the shark skeleton particularly lightweight and flexible, which is advantageous for their aquatic lifestyle. Unlike bony skeletons, cartilage does not undergo ossification or mineralization, making it more flexible and shock-absorbing. The addition of calcium carbonate granules helps to reinforce the skeleton and prevent it from collapsing under the weight of the shark's body. This unique skeleton allows sharks to swim faster and more efficiently, maneuver better, and have a greater range of motion. Additionally, the lack of bone marrow allows sharks to be more buoyant and enables them to maintain their position in the water column with less energy expenditure.
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Anopheles mosquitoes can pick up ______, which causes malaria, from the blood of an infected person and transmit the protozoan to an uninfected person.
Anopheles mosquitoes can pick up the Plasmodium protozoan, which causes malaria, from the blood of an infected person and transmit it to an uninfected person. The mosquitoes become infected by feeding on the blood of an infected person and the Plasmodium protozoan develops in the mosquito's gut.
When the mosquito bites an uninfected person, it injects saliva containing the Plasmodium protozoan into their bloodstream, thus transmitting the disease. Malaria is a serious and potentially life-threatening illness that affects millions of people worldwide, especially in areas where Anopheles mosquitoes are prevalent. To prevent malaria, measures such as using insecticide-treated bed nets, spraying insecticides, and taking antimalarial drugs are recommended. It is essential to control the population of Anopheles mosquitoes to reduce the transmission of malaria.
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DNA is negatively charged at physiological pH. A protein Z binds to DNA through noncovalent ionicinteractions involving lysines. What will be the effect of acetylation of the lysine side chains in protein Z on thestrength of this binding
Acetylation of lysine side chains in protein Z will reduce the strength of its binding to DNA.
Protein Z binds to DNA through noncovalent ionic interactions involving lysines, which are positively charged amino acid residues. DNA is negatively charged at physiological pH. Acetylation of lysine side chains neutralizes their positive charge by adding an acetyl group (-COCH3) to the ε-amino group of the lysine residue, thus reducing the positive charge of lysines in protein Z.
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Nucleic acid blotting is widely used in recombinant DNA technology. In a Southern blot, one generally ________.
In a Southern blot, DNA fragments are separated based on size using gel electrophoresis, which transfers the fragments onto a membrane and hybridizes the membrane with a labeled probe to detect the presence of a specific DNA sequence.
In a Southern blot, DNA fragments are transferred from an agarose gel to a nitrocellulose membrane, and then detect specific DNA sequences using a labeled DNA probe. Here's how it is done -
1. First, DNA samples are digested with restriction enzymes, which cut the DNA at specific sequences.
2. The digested DNA fragments are then separated by size through electrophoresis on an agarose gel.
3. After electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments are transferred from the agarose gel to a membrane, typically made of nylon or nitrocellulose. This process is called "blotting."
4. The membrane is then incubated with a labeled DNA probe that is complementary to the specific DNA sequence of interest.
5. The probe hybridizes with the target DNA sequence on the membrane.
6. Lastly, the membrane is washed, and the labeled DNA probe bound to the target sequence is detected, often through autoradiography or chemiluminescence.
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What kind of technique could identify a specific bacterium in a mixed culture, and why would this technique work but a culture based technique like enterotube fail with a mixed culture
Identifying a specific bacterium in a mixed culture is done through molecular techniques such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or DNA sequencing.
These techniques target specific genetic markers of the bacteria, allowing for their identification even in a mixed culture.
A culture-based technique like enterotube may fail with a mixed culture because it relies on the growth and identification of bacteria based on their biochemical properties.
In mixed culture, different bacteria may have similar biochemical properties, making it difficult to distinguish between them using this method. Additionally, some bacteria may not grow well in the conditions provided by the enterotube, further limiting its usefulness in identifying specific bacteria in a mixed culture.
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If a large city such as Atlanta, Georgia, were to cover the roofs of most buildings with natural grasses and convert large regions of buildings into grassy parks with abundant trees, we would expect that __________.
If a large city such as Atlanta, Georgia, were to cover the roofs of most buildings with natural grasses and convert large regions of buildings into grassy parks with abundant trees, we would expect that these parks and green roofs would create a more attractive and pleasant environment for citizens.
Covering the roofs of buildings in Atlanta with natural grasses and converting large regions of buildings into grassy parks with abundant trees would have numerous environmental and health benefits. Firstly, the grasses and trees would provide shade and reduce the urban heat island effect, meaning less energy would be needed to cool buildings and the city as a whole.
Additionally, the grasses and trees would absorb air pollutants like ozone and nitrogen dioxide, reducing air pollution and improving air quality. This would reduce health risks such as respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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If a pathogen (like a bactera or virus) is able to get through the body's first line of defense, and then overwhelms the second line of defense, and is only slowed briefly by the third line of defense before it too is overwhelmed, what is the body's next defense
If a pathogen is able to get through the body's first, second, and third lines of defense, the body's next defense is the immune system's fourth line of defense. This involves the activation of specific immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, which work together to produce antibodies and eliminate the pathogen.
The immune system's response may also involve the release of inflammatory molecules, which can help to recruit more immune cells to the site of infection. Additionally, the immune system's memory cells will remember the specific pathogen and mount a quicker response if the body encounters it again in the future. It is important to note that the immune system's response can vary depending on the specific pathogen and the individual's overall health and immune status.
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Microorganisms can grow on a variety of organic compounds other than glucose, including polysaccharides, proteins, and lipids. How do they accomplish this
Microorganisms can grow on a variety of organic compounds other than glucose, including polysaccharides, proteins, and lipids.They accomplish this by producing specific enzymes that break down these complex molecules into simpler forms.
Polysaccharides are broken down by enzymes such as amylases, cellulases, and pectinases. Proteins are degraded by proteases and peptidases, which hydrolyze peptide bonds, while lipids are decomposed by lipases, which cleave ester bonds in triglycerides. These enzymes are secreted extracellularly or located on the microbial cell surface, facilitating the conversion of complex substrates into smaller, easily absorbed units. The resulting monomers, such as monosaccharides, amino acids, and fatty acids, can then enter the microorganism's metabolic pathways, providing energy and building blocks for growth and reproduction.
This metabolic versatility allows microorganisms to survive and thrive in diverse environments with varying nutrient sources. So, therefore microorganisms can grow on various organic compounds like polysaccharides, proteins, and lipids by producing specific enzymes that break down these complex molecules into simpler forms, which can then be used as energy and nutrient sources.
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taphylococcus epidermis is best described as: Group of answer choices an opportunistic pathogen a mutualist symbiotic partner resident microbiota
Staphylococcus epidermis is best described as a resident microbiota, which means that it is a normal part of the human skin microbiome and typically does not cause harm or disease. However, in certain circumstances, it can become an opportunistic pathogen and cause infections. It is not typically considered a mutualist symbiotic partner.
It can become an opportunistic pathogen in certain situations, such as when it enters the bloodstream through a breach in the skin barrier or during medical procedures such as surgery or the placement of medical devices like catheters or prosthetic joints. In those cases, it can cause infections, such as bloodstream infections or surgical site infections.
A pathogen is any organism or agent, such as a virus or bacterium, that can cause disease or illness in a host organism. Pathogens can be transmitted through various means, including direct contact, contaminated food or water, airborne particles, and vectors like mosquitoes or ticks. They can cause a range of illnesses, from mild infections to serious and life-threatening diseases.
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Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. If a normal man marries a woman who is a carrier, what fraction of their sons will have hemophilia
And when it comes to sons, one is healthy and the other is sick. The proper response is thus that 50% of boys will develop haemophilia. Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive gene condition. A woman who is a carrier has a 50% probability of passing the illness to her daughter.
A sex-linked recessive condition, haemophilia. The X chromosome is home to the hemophilia-causing defective gene. Males have a single X and a single Y chromosome.
Each son has a 50% chance of having haemophilia, and each daughter has a 50% chance of having one changed factor gene, making her either a carrier or having haemophilia, if the mother has one altered factor gene and the father does not have the disease.
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Between days 100 and 160, the Daphnia population dropped below the predicted carrying capacity before rising back up to it. What is the best biological explanation for why the population stayed below the carrying capacity between days 100 and 160
The best biological explanation for why the Daphnia population stayed below the carrying capacity between days 100 and 160 is that the population was unable to sustain itself with the resources available.
This is likely due to a combination of factors such as competition for resources, predation, and environmental stress. As the population grows, resources become limited and competition for food and space increases.
This can lead to a decrease in the total number of individuals in the population as some will be unable to compete or survive due to limited resources.
Additionally, predation by predators in the environment can reduce the number of individuals in the population as some will be eaten by predators. Finally, environmental stress can cause individuals to die off due to changes in the environment such as temperature, humidity, and other abiotic factors. All of these factors can result in a population staying below the carrying capacity for a period of time.
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Several hominin species belonging to the genus _________________ are known from Africa between about 4.2 MYA and the appearance of Homo just after 2 MYA.
Several hominin species belonging to the genus Australopithecus are known from Africa between about 4.2 MYA and the appearance of Homo just after 2 MYA.
Hominin species known as Australopithecus is a genus of hominids that lived approximately 4.2 million years ago during the Pliocene epoch. Its brain was also relatively small, with a volume of around 400-500 cubic centimeters. However, Australopithecus afarensis had some human-like characteristics as well, such as a more upright posture and a more developed pelvis. 2 million years ago, the genus Homo appeared and started to diversify. Homo habilis is known for its relatively larger brain size, with a volume of around 500-800 cubic centimeters, and for being one of the first toolmakers. Later Homo sapiens appeared which is the only surviving species of the genus Homo today.
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A group of unspecialized embryonic cells is transplanted from a leg bud to a wing bud in a chick embryo and develops into toes. Which term best describes this phenomenon
The term that best describes this phenomenon is "cell differentiation." Cell differentiation is the process in which unspecialized cells become specialized and take on specific functions, such as the development of toes in this case.
The phenomenon you described, where unspecialized embryonic cells from a leg bud are transplanted to a wing bud in a chick embryo and develop into toes, is best described as "determination." This term refers to the process by which embryonic cells become committed to develop into a specific cell type or structure. In this case, the cells were determined to form toes even when placed in a different location.
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A single common ancestor evolving into the current 28 species of silversword plants found among the Hawaiian islands is an example of
A single common ancestor evolving into the current 28 species of silversword plants found among the Hawaiian islands is an example of adaptive radiation.
In this process, a single ancestral species diversify into multiple new species, each adapting to different environments and filling various ecological niches within their habitats.
Adaptive radiation occurs when a single ancestral species evolves into various forms adapted to specific environmental niches. In the case of the silversword plants in Hawaii, the common ancestor evolved into 28 species with unique adaptations to the different environmental conditions found on the various islands.
This is an example of how evolution can result in species diversification, leading to the development of new species with specialized characteristics that allow them to survive in specific environments.
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select the abcc11 gene, the earwax gene. a mutation in this gene determines whether a person has wet earwax or dry earwax. looking at the template strand, what type of mutation occurs?
The ABCC11 gene is responsible for determining the type of earwax a person has. A mutation in this gene can lead to either wet or dry earwax. When examining the template strand, a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) is the type of mutation that occurs.
The ABCC11 gene is responsible for determining the type of earwax a person has. A mutation in this gene can lead to either wet or dry earwax. When examining the template strand, a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) is the type of mutation that occurs, specifically causing a change in the amino acid sequence and ultimately influencing the earwax consistency.
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If a non-professional antigen-presenting cell that lacks co-stimulatory molecules presents peptide: MHC complexes to a T cell specific for that peptide, then
If a non-professional antigen-presenting cell that lacks co-stimulatory molecules presents peptide: MHC complexes to a T cell specific for that peptide, then the APC acts as an antigen-presenting bridge.
In the absence of co-stimulatory molecules, a non-professional antigen-presenting cell (APC) can still present peptide: MHC complexes to a T cell specific for that peptide.
In this situation, the APC acts as an antigen-presenting bridge, facilitating the encounter between the peptide and the T cell. Without the presence of co-stimulatory molecules, however, the T cell will not become activated and will not proceed to mount an immune response.
The T cell will only become activated if the APC is able to provide a signal that is strong enough to overcome the inhibitory signal that is generated when the peptide binds to the MHC complex. This signal can be provided by the APC's costimulatory molecules.
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Which membrane potential occurs because of the influx of Na through chemically gated channels in the receptive region of a neuron
The membrane potential that occurs due to the influx of Na through chemically gated channels in the receptive region of a neuron is called the excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
When a neurotransmitter binds to chemically gated Na channels in the receptive region of a neuron, the channels open and allow positively charged Na ions to flow into the cell.
This influx of positive charge depolarizes the neuron, reducing the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell and making the neuron more likely to fire an action potential. This depolarization is called an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
The EPSP can summate with other EPSPs and/or inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) in the cell body and dendrites of the neuron to determine whether or not the neuron fires an action potential. If the depolarization is strong enough to reach the threshold voltage, an action potential will be generated and propagated down the axon of the neuron.
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In the hypothesis that C. stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B. balanoides (another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species? The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different.
The fundamental niche of a species is the range of environmental conditions in which it could potentially exist, while the realized niche is the range of conditions in which it actually survives.
In this hypothesis, C. stellatus is being competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B. balanoides. This suggests that the fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are identical, meaning that the environmental conditions that it can survive in are the same as the conditions it currently inhabits.
In contrast, the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different, meaning that there are environmental conditions in which it could potentially survive, but not in the lower intertidal zone where B. balanoides is present. This suggests that C. stellatus cannot compete with B. balanoides in this environment, and therefore has been excluded.
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What variable responded to thyroid hormone level (the independent variable), and what are the units for this variable
The units for this variable, which relates the oxygen consumption rate of liver cells to thyroid hormone level, are nmol O2/min and mg cells. The majority of test kits produce measurements that are inaccurate by roughly 5% for both [TSH] and [FT4].
Different considerations apply to measurement sensitivity. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which is secreted by the hypothalamus, stimulates the pituitary gland to create thyroid stimulating hormone. The thyroid gland produces thyroxine and triiodothyronine as a result of this hormone's stimulation. Adults should have a total T3 level between 80 and 220 ng/dL. Free T3 assays are rarely used to evaluate thyroid function since they are frequently inaccurate.
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What variable responded to thyroid hormone level (the independent variable), and what are the units for this variable?
What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a Mendelian monohybrid cross involving individuals who have the following genotypes: Ww x Ww?
The anticipated phenotypic ratio would be 100% homozygous recessive (ww) in a Mendelian monohybrid cross involving individuals with the genotypes Ww x Ww.
This is due to the fact that the genotype Ww denotes two copies of the recessive gene for a particular characteristic, and that when two homozygous recessive individuals are bred, all of the offspring will be homozygous recessive and exhibit the recessive trait as well.
Any characteristic that is governed by a single gene with two alleles, such as eye colour, hair colour, or flower colour, might be the recessive trait in this scenario. A monohybrid cross is made up of two individuals that have homozygous genotypes and produce the opposite phenotype for a certain genetic characteristic. Two monohybrid traits (TT and tt) were crossed.
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The QRS complex represents: a. depolarization of the atria. b. repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles. c. depolarization of both the atria and ventricles. d. repolarization of the ventricles.
The QRS complex represents the depolarization of both the atria and ventricles. the QRS complex is a series of electrical waves that occur during the contraction of the heart's ventricles.
These waves are generated as a result of the spread of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, which causes the depolarization of both the atria and ventricles. Repolarization of the ventricles occurs during the T wave. The QRS complex is a component of an electrocardiogram that indicates the electrical activity within the heart.
Specifically, the QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles, which is the process by which the electrical charges within the ventricular muscle cells change to initiate contraction. This is crucial for the proper functioning of the heart, as it allows the ventricles to pump blood throughout the body. The correct answer is option b. repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles.
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Which type of impression is taken to produce a reproduction of the occlusal relationship of the maxilla and mandible teeth when in centric occlusion
The type of impression taken to produce a reproduction of the occlusal relationship of the maxilla and mandible teeth when in centric occlusion is called an occlusal impression.
This impression records the biting surface of the teeth and their relationship when the jaw is closed in a natural and relaxed position. It is usually taken using a special tray that fits over the teeth and is filled with impression material. This type of impression is crucial for creating restorations such as crowns or bridges, as it allows the dentist to accurately reproduce the bite and ensure proper occlusion. Occlusal impressions are also used for the fabrication of appliances such as mouthguards, nightguards, and orthodontic retainers.
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When a person becomes infected with the influenza virus, cell-mediated immunity is activated. 4 points
a. Why would the influenza virus activate cell-mediated immunity?
b. Describe the process of cell-mediated immunity (Pro Tip: Use these words to earn a good score: Helper T Cells, Cytotoxic T Cells, Memory T Cells.)