A man weighing 700 NN and a woman weighing 440 NN have the same momentum. What is the ratio of the man's kinetic energy KmKmK_m to that of the woman K

Answer:

r = 5.08 m

Explanation:

The electric force of attraction or repulsion is given by :

[tex]F=\dfrac{kq_1q_2}{r^2}[/tex]

We need to find how far above the electron would the proton have to be if you wanted to hold up an electron against the force of gravity by the attraction of a fixed proton some distance above it.

So, the force from the proton is balanced by the mass of the electron.

[tex]\dfrac{kq_pq_e}{r^2}=mg[/tex]

r is distance

[tex]r=\sqrt{\dfrac{kq_pq_e}{mg}} \\\\r=\sqrt{\dfrac{9\times 10^9\times (1.6\times 10^{-19})^2}{9.11\times 10^{-31}\times 9.8}} \\\\r=5.08\ m[/tex]

So, proton have to be at a distance of 5.08 meters above the electron.

Answer:

a) 3×10^18 Hz

b) The electromagnetic wave is an x-ray

Explanation:

We know that the speed of an electromagnetic wave is given by;

c= λf

Where;

c= speed of electromagnetic waves = 3×10^8 ms-1

f= frequency of electromagnetic waves= the unknown

λ = wavelength of the electromagnetic wave= 1 ×10^-10 m

Hence;

f = c/λ= 3×10^8/ 1×10^-10

f= 3×10^18 Hz

b) The electromagnetic wave is an x-ray.

(a) The frequency of the electromagnetic radiation is [tex]3\times 10^{18} \ Hz[/tex]

(b)  The electromagnetic radiation is ultra violet ray.

The given parameters;

The frequency of the electromagnetic radiation is calculated as follows;

[tex]c =f \lambda \\\\f = \frac{c}{\lambda} \\\\f = \frac{3\times 10^8}{1\times 10^{-10}} \\\\f = 3\times 10^{18} \ Hz[/tex]

The frequency range of ultra violet ray is between 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁸ m.

Thus, the electromagnetic radiation is ultra violet ray.

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Answer:

d. 3

Explanation:

x = cos(4377π) + 8 sin(750°)

A full circle is 2π radians or 360°.

x = cos(4377π − 4376π) + 8 sin(750° − 720°)

x = cos(π) + 8 sin(30°)

x = -1 + 8 (1/2)

x = 3

Explanation:

Analog signals :

Digital signals :

Answer:

Analog -

They flow continuously

They may pick up unwanted noise

They copy the original sound

Digital -

They do not flow continuously

They reduce unwanted noise.

They change sound into numbers.

Answer: The planet Mars is terrestrial.

Terrestrial planets are made of rock, earth, or a solid substance. Your other options, Jupiter, Saturn, and Uranus, are all made up of a mixture of gases.

Hope this helps!

The answer is Mars.

Terrestrial planets are Earth-like planets made up of rocks or metals with a hard surface. Terrestrial planets also have a molten heavy-metal core, few moons, and topological features such as valleys, volcanoes, and craters.

Terrestrial planets are smaller, closer to the Sun, and formed from the rock around a molten metal core. They have secondary atmospheres, fewer moons, and a slower spin. Jovian planets are larger, further from the Sun, and formed from gases around a solid metal and hydrogen core.

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#SPJ2

Answer:

Option C, The object cannot be directly observed.

Explanation:The temperature of sun is extremely high due to which it is almost impossible to land on its surface and explore the depth of it. Thus a prototype of it is required to predict its probable internal structure and associated feature which effect our planet "earth".

This prototype/model is based on the deduction arrived after analyzing the  satellite information available in the form of  high resolution images.

Hence, option C is correct

Answer:

The answer is c the object cannot be directly observed.

Explanation:

I took the test and got it right.

Answer:

B. T

Explanation:

This is because the mass of the Bob does no relate to the period as given by the relationship

T = 2π(√L/g) so double mass is still T

Answer:

The correct option is (B).

Explanation:

The time period of a pendulum is given by :

[tex]T=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{l}{g}}[/tex]

l is the length of the pendulum

g is acceleration due to gravity

It is very clear that the time period is independent of the mass of the bob. If the mass of the bob is doubled, the time period of the pendulum remains the same i.e. T. Hence, the correct option is (B).

Explanation:

(a) The total energy is the elastic potential energy at maximum displacement.

E = ½ kx²

E = ½ (40.0 N/m) (0.0500 m)²

E = 0.05 J

(b) At this displacement, there is both elastic potential energy and kinetic energy.

E = EE + KE

0.05 J = ½ kx² + ½ mv²

0.05 J = ½ (40.0 N/m) (0.0200 m)² + ½ (0.060 kg) v²

v = 1.18 m/s

(c) E = EE + KE

0.05 J = ½ kx² + ½ mv²

0.05 J = ½ (40.0 N/m) (0.0250 m)² + KE

KE = 0.0375 J

(d) EE = ½ kx²

EE = ½ (40.0 N/m) (0.0250 m)²

EE = 0.0125 J

Answer:

To prove that the electron is negatively charged, first we orient the direction of the magnetic field of the permanent magnet to enter into this computer screen.

Next we focus the beam of electrons to cut across the magnetic field perpendicularly, flowing from the right side of this screen to the left side.

If the electron beam is deflected upwards, then the electrons in the electron beam are negatively charged.

To check, we know that Lorentz left hand rule for a negatively charged particle moving through a magnetic field states that "if the left hand is held out with the fingers parallel to one another, and the thumb at a 90° angle to the rest of the fingers, then the fingers represents and points in the direction of the magnetic field, and the thumb represents and points in the direction of the negative charge through the magnetic field. The palm of the left hand will push in the direction of the force on the negatively charged particle."

Answer:

The velocity of the particle is 30 m/s.

Explanation:

The velocity can be found using Lorentz force:

[tex] F = q*v \times B [/tex]

Where:

q: is the charge of the particle = 0.002 C

v: is the velocity of the particle

B: is the magnetic field = 0.25 T

F: is the magnetic force = 0.015 N

Since the magnetic field and the particle's velocity are orthogonal, the cross product is equal to the product of the absolutes values of v and B.

We have:

[tex] F = q|v||B| [/tex]

[tex] v = \frac{F}{qB} = \frac{0.015 N}{0.002 C*0.25 T} = 30 m/s [/tex]

Therefore, the velocity of the particle is 30 m/s.

I hope it helps you!        

Answer:

D, both A and B

Explanation:

2168 mV is the SI unit for potential difference and the Voltmeter.

The primary unit is Volt, represented as V. Due to the fact that there can be a much higher reading, or an even much more smaller one, comes the need for variants of the same unit.

10^-3 is called milli and represented as m

10^3 is called killo and represented as k

10^-6 is called micro and represented as µ

10^6 is called mega and represented as M

and even much higher variants of up to 10^12 and 10^-12

As we can see from the aforementioned example, 10^-3 is milli and represented as m

And our question gave us the unit in mV, which stands for millivolts.

Also, if we look at option B, it states, 2.168 volts. This 2.168 volts is also the same thing as A. Take a look at it this way, I said mV is 10^-3, right?

So, 2168*10^-3 is also 2168/100 which is 2.168. The only difference here is, once we make this conversion from mV, we have to drop the milli tag, because we have already made a conversion, and thus, leave it as V.

2168 mV = 2.168V

Hence why we picked option D, Both A & B as the right one

Answer:

v = 6.38 m/s

Explanation:

discharge Q = 500 L / 6.5 min

flow through pipe is 1.6 cm x (1 m/100 cm ) = 0.016 m

using the flow rate formula Q = A * v

where A = area, v = velocity

the speed of water in the pipe = v = Q / A

      500 L        1 m³          1 min           π (0.016 m)²

v = ----------   x  --------  x ------------    ÷  --------------------

      6.5 min       10³ L       60 sec                 4

v = 6.38 m/s

The speed of the water is "12.95 m/s".

According to the question,

Volume,

           = [tex]500\times 10^{-3} \ m^3[/tex]

Time,

          = [tex]3.2\times 60[/tex]

          = [tex]192 \ s[/tex]

Diameter,

           = 0.016 m

As we know,

Area of cross-section of pipe will be:

→ [tex]A = \pi (\frac{d}{2} )^2[/tex]

      [tex]= 3.14\times (\frac{0.016}{2} )^2[/tex]

      [tex]= 2.01\times 10^{-4} \ m^2[/tex]

Flow rate is:

→ [tex]\frac{V}{t} = Av[/tex]

   [tex]v = \frac{V}{At}[/tex]

      [tex]= \frac{500\times 10^{-3}}{2.01\times 10^{-4}\times 192}[/tex]

      [tex]= 12.95 \ m/s[/tex]

Thus the above approach is right.          

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Answer:

344Hz

Explanation:

First we need to more that the frequency will inky resonate in the portion not containing water. If the total length is 1m and the filled with water up to 75cm, the length of the air column will be 100cm - 75cm = 25cm

Fundamental frequency of a closed pipe fo = V/4L

V is the velocity of sound in air

L is the length of the air column

Given V = 344m/s

L = 25cm = 0.25m

fundamental resonant frequency = 344/4(0.25)

= 344/1

= 344Hz

Answer:

Hey there!

Because you are compressing the spring, these are compressional waves.

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer: [tex]\frac{K_{A}}{K_{B}}[/tex] = 1

Explanation: Average molecular kinetic energy for monatomic idela gases is given by:

[tex]E=\frac{3}{2}RT[/tex]

where

R is gas constant of ideal gas

T is temperature

Which means kinetic energy depnends only on temperature.

Since gas A and gas B are at the same temperature, kinetic energy will be the same. Therefore:

[tex]\frac{K_{A}}{K_{B}}[/tex] = 1

Ratio of this average molecular kinetic energy is 1.

Answer:

True! First step is to make objective observations.

Answer:

Approximately [tex]2.7\times 10^{4}\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Explanation:

The two colliding objects would be stuck to each other if the collision is perfectly inelastic. While kinetic energy is conserved only in elastic collisions, momentum is conserved in all types of collisions. Therefore, the momentum of the truck and the car right after the collision will be equal to the vector sum of their momentum right before the collision.

Momentum of the car right before the collision:

[tex]\vec{p}(\text{car, before}) = m \cdot \vec{v} = 800\; \rm kg \times 18\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}= 14400\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Momentum of the truck right before the collision:

[tex]\vec{p}(\text{truck, before}) = m \cdot \vec{v} = 1500\; \rm kg \times 15 \; \rm m \cdot s^{-1} = 22500\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Note that these two momentum are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their vector sum should be found using the Pythagorean theorem:

[tex]\begin{aligned}&\left|\vec{p}(\text{sum, before})\right| \\ &= \left|\vec{p}(\text{car, before}) + \vec{p}(\text{truck, before})\right| \\ &= \left(\sqrt{14400^2 + 22500^2}\right)\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1} \approx 2.7\times 10^{4}\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1} \end{aligned}[/tex].

Because momentum is conserved, the sum of the momentum of the car and the truck right after the collision should be equal to the sum right before the collision. In other words:

[tex]\vec{p}(\text{sum, after}) = \vec{p}(\text{sum, before})[/tex].

Therefore:

[tex]\left|\vec{p}(\text{sum, after})\right| = \left|\vec{p}(\text{sum, before})\right| \approx 2.7 \times 10^{4}\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Answer:

E. 3h

Explanation:

We know that

u = 0 m/s.

velocity after t = 1s

v = u+gt = 0+9.81 x 1s= 9.81 m/s

distance covered in 1st sec

= =>> ut+0.5 x g x t²

=>>0 + 0.5x 9.81 x 1 = 4.90m

Let 4.90 be h

distance travelled in 2nd second will now be used

So velocity after t = 1s

=>>1 x t+ 0.5 x g x t²

=>9.81x 1 + 0.5 x 9.81 x 1 = 3 x 4.90

So since h= 4.90

Then the ans is 3x h = 3h

Explanation:

Use SOH-CAH-TOA.

Sine = Opposite / Hypotenuse

Cosine = Adjacent / Hypotenuse

Tangent = Opposite / Adjacent

For example, in 2(a), we are given an angle and the hypotenuse.  We want to find the side adjacent to the angle.  Therefore, we should use cosine.

cos 58° = y / 32.3

y = 32.3 cos 58°

y ≈ 17.1

In 3(a), we are given the adjacent side and opposite side.  We want to find the angle.  So use tangent.

tan θ = 3.6 / 6.2

θ = tan⁻¹(3.6/6.2)

θ = 30.1°

In 4(a), we are given an angle and the hypotenuse.  We want to find the side opposite of the angle.  Therefore, we should use sine.

sin 47° = x / 29

x = 29 sin 47°

x ≈ 21.2

Answer:

The  compression is  [tex]x = 0.05 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The first velocity is  v

     The  compression of the spring is  [tex]d = 1.0 \ cm = 0.01 \ m[/tex]

      The  second velocity is  4v

Generally according to the law of  energy conservation

   The  kinetic energy of the block is equal to the energy stored in the spring that is  

       [tex]\frac{1}{2} * m* v^ 2 = \frac{1}{2} * k * d^2[/tex]

For  first speed

      [tex]m* v^ 2 = k * 0.01^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]m* v^ 2 = k * 0.0001[/tex]

=>  [tex]k = \frac{ m v^2 }{ 0.0001}[/tex]

For second  speed

       [tex]\frac{1}{2} * m* (5v)^ 2 = \frac{1}{2} * k * x^2[/tex]

=>    [tex]12.5mv^2 = 0.5 k x^2[/tex]

substituting for k

=>    [tex]12.5mv^2 = 0.5 (\frac{mv^2}{0.0001} ) x^2[/tex]

=> [tex]12.5 = 5000x^2[/tex]

=>  [tex]x = 0.05 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

423v

Explanation:

Using

E= -N ∆န/ ∆ t

= ( -1) X (-83 - 82)/0.39

= 423volts

Answer:

The net force on the ball is zero.

Explanation:

Newton's first law of motion states that an object will remain in the same state of motion or at rest unless a resultant force acts on it, and if the net force on an object is zero, then that means that the object will keep moving at the same acceleration or the object stays stationary.

So, the truth about the net forces acting on the ball is that the net force on the ball is zero.

Answer:

The gravitational force is greater than the drag.

Explanation:

I took the quick check and got it wrong when I chose The net force on the ball is zero but I was right the first time with the third answer choice listed in the question.

Answer:

7.1 J

Explanation:

From the question,

Work done by the mover  = work done in pushing the crate + work done against friction

W = W'+Wf................. Equation 1

W = mgd+mgμd............ Equation 2

W = mgd(1+μ)................ Equation 3

Where m = mass of the crate, g = acceleration due to gravity, d = distance, μ = coefficient of  friction.

Given: m = 46 kg, d = 10.5 mm = 0.0105 m, μ = 0.5

constant: g = 9.8 m/s²

Substitute these values into equation 3

W = 46×9.8×0.0105(1+0.5)

W = 7.1 J

Answer:

Explanation:

When two coherent light beams travel different paths and arrive at a point , there will be difference in the length of path travelled by them . If this difference is zero then both will reinforce each other and their brightness will add up . Hence there will be constructive interference .

If their path difference is not zero but it is equal to odd multiple of their half wavelength like λ / 2 , 3 λ / 2 , 5 λ /2 , 7 λ /2 etc , then instead of reinforcing each other , they will destroy each other . This is called destructive interference . As a result of it , darkness will prevail at the point where they meet or interfere.

Answer:

h is 0.27metres without breaking their leg

Explanation:

A body jumping from any heights has potential energy mgh and maximum energy which can be converted by human body from the jump is 200J derived from experiment so using

200J = mgh

h = 200/ 9.8* 75

h= 0.27 m

Explanation:

Answer:

a) the correct answer is 1 , b) x=0   F=0, a=0

x= 0.050    F= -7.5 N,  a= -15 m/s²

x= 0.150     F= 22.5 N,  a=- 45 m/s²

Explanation:

a) In a mass - spring system the force is given by the Hooke force,

          F = - k x

Analyzing this equation we see that the outside is proportional to the elongation from the equilibrium position, therefore the force is zero when the spring is in its equilibrium position

the correct answer is 1

b) we assume that the given values ​​are from the equilibrium position of the spring.

Let's calculate the force

x = 0

      F = 0

x = 0.050

      F = - 150 0.050

      F = - 7.50 N

x = 0.150

      F = - 150 0.150

      F = - 22.5 N

let's use Newton's second law to find the acceleration

      F = m a

      a = F / m

x = 0 m

      a = 0

x = 0.050 m

      a = -7.50 / 0.50

      a = - 15 m / s²

x = 0.150 m

      a = - 22.5 / 0.50

      a = - 45 m/s²

TRASLATE

a) En un sistema masa – resorte  la fuerza es dada por la fuerza de Hoke,  

          F= - k x

analizando esta ecuación vemos que la fuera es proporcional a la elongación desde la posición de equilibrio, por lo tanto la fuerza es cero cuando el resorte esta en su posición de equilibrio

la respuesta correcta es  1

b)suponemos que los valores dados son desde la posición de equilibrio del resorte.

Calculemos la fuerza  

x=0  

              F= 0

x=0.050  

              F = - 150 0.050

              F= - 7.50 N

x= 0.150  

                F= - 150 0.150

                F= - 22.5 N

usemos la segunda ley de Newton para encontrar la aceleración

          F = m a

          a = F/m

x =0  m

        a = 0

x= 0.050 m

         a = -7.50/ 0.50

          a =- 15 m/s²

x= 0.150 m

          a= - 22.5 / 0.50

          a= - 45 m/s²

Complete question:

A 40-turn coil has a diameter of 17 cm. The coil is placed in a spatially uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.40 T so that the face of the coil and the magnetic field are perpendicular. Find the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil (in V) if the magnetic field is reduced to zero uniformly in the following times.  (a) 0.10 s, (b) 1.0 s, and (c) 60 s.

Answer:

(a) E = 3.632 V

(b) E = 0.3632  V

(c) E = 6.053 mV

Explanation:

Given;

number of turn of the coil, N = 40 turn

diameter of the coil, d = 17 cm = 0.17 m

radius of the coil, r = d /2 = 0.17 /2 = 0.085 m

initial magnitude of magnetic field, B₁ = 0.4 T

final magnitude of magnetic field, B₂ = 0

The induced emf in the coil is given by;

[tex]E = -N\frac{dB}{dt} A = \frac{-NA(B_2 - B_1)}{dt} =\frac{NA(B_1-B_2)}{dt} =\frac{NAB_1}{t}[/tex]

A is area of the coil = πr² = π(0.085)² = 0.0227 m²

(a) when the time is 0.1 s

[tex]E= \frac{40*0.0227*0.4}{0.1} = 3.632 \ V[/tex]

(b) when the time is 1 s

[tex]E = \frac{40*0.0227*0.4}{1} \\\\E = 0.3632 \ V[/tex]

(c) when the time is 60 s

[tex]E = \frac{40*0.0227*0.4}{60} \\\\E = 6.053 \ mV[/tex]

Answer:

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to analyze the following situation: for a fixed observer, the two balloons are launched at the same time.

If the observer is mobile moving towards the positive side of axis ax we have several

possibilities when starting the movement

* the observer is to the left of the two balloons

* the observer is between the two balloons

* the observer is to the right of the two baloomls

The time it takes for the signal to arrive to know which ball goes first is

             v = d / t

             t = d / v

If the signal goes at the speed of light, the speed is a constant and the time will depend only on the distance, so we see that the trigger changes depending on the relative position between a given ball and the observer.

Consequently, it will be seen which comes out first, depending on the relative position with the observer.

The correct answer is C

Answer:

17047.54 years or 17048 y

Explanation:

From;

0.693/t1/2 = 2.303/t log (Ao/A)

Where;

t1/2=half-life of the carbon-14 =5670 years

t= time elapsed

Ao= activity of living C-14

A= activity if the sample under study

But A= 1/8 Ao

Hence;

0.693/5670= 2.303/t log(Ao/1/8Ao)

1.22×10^-4 = 2.303/t log 8

1.22×10^-4 = 2.0798/t

t= 2.0798/1.22×10^-4

t= 17047.54 years

Explanation:

Kepler's third law gives the relationship between the orbital radius and the orbital period of the planet. Its mathematical form is given by :

[tex]T^2=\dfrac{4\pi ^2}{GM}a^3[/tex]

Here,

G is gravitational constant

M is mass of sun

It means that the mass of Sun is constant for all planets orbiting the sun, assuming circular orbits.