A heat engine with 0.100 mol of a monatomic ideal gas initially fills a 3000 cm3 cylinder at 800 K. The gas goes through the following closed cycle Isothermal expansion to 5000 cm3 ?
Part A How much work does this engine do per cycle? Express your answer with the appropriate units. sochoric cooling to 200 K -Isothermal compression to 3000 cm3. - Isochoric heating to 800 K Value Units
Part B What is its thermal efficiency? Express your answer with the appropriate units.

Answer:

The final speed is 5.78 m/s.

Explanation:

mass, m = 375 g = 0.375 kg

initial velocity, u = 4 m/s

Distance, s = 2.5 m

Angle, A = 30 degree

Force, F = 1.5 N

let the final velocity is v.

Use the work energy theorem

Work done = change in kinetic energy

[tex]W= 0.5 m(v^2 - u^2)\\\\F s cos A= 0.5 m (v^2 - u^2)\\\\1.5\times 2.5\times cos30= 0.5\times 0.375\times (v^2 - 16)\\\\v = 5.78 m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Một ô tô có khối lượng m=1000kg đang chạy với vận tốc 18km/h thì hãm phanh.​Biết lực hãm là 2000N. Tính quãng đường xe còn chạy thêm trước khi dừng ... Chiếu phương trình của định luật II Newtơn mà →F=m. ... chuyển động ta có F=m​a, suy ra gia tốc chuyển động của xe ( với F=2000N) ...

Explanation:

Explanation:

Glasses or Contacts. You might not realize it, but if you wear glasses or contact lenses, this is light refraction at play. ...

Human Eyes. Human eyes have a lens. ...

Prism. ...

Pickle Jar. ...

Ice Crystals. ...

Glass. ...

Twinkling Stars. ...

Microscope or Telescope.

Answer: 90

Explanation: a=Fnet/M

=27/0.30

=90

the acceleration is 90

Answer:

The acceleration of the ball is 83.333ms2 [forward].

Explanation:

i hope it helps :)

Answer:

A hypothesis is a limited explanation of a phenomenon; a scientific theory is an in-depth explanation of the observed phenomenon. A law is a statement about an observed phenomenon or a unifying concept

Answer:

Explanation:

will try 2 explain fact, hypothesis, theory n law

fact is the starting pt: e.g. apple falls from tree

hypothesis tries 2 explain a fact: e.g. there is a force pulling down apple

theory is a complete explanation w/ equations n stuff: e.g. Newton came up w/ theory of gravitational attraction force

law is a theory dat has been proven right through tests n experiments: Newton's gravity theory had been proven right in many many tests.

Answer:

I’ll try my best!

Answer: [tex]3.816\ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Given

Mass of Henry is 95 kg

Normal weight of Henry is [tex]mg=95\times 9.8=931\ N[/tex]

The scale reads the weight as 830 N for first 3.6 s i.e. less than the normal weight i.e. Elevator is moving downwards

Apparent weight is given by

[tex]\Rightarrow 830=m(g-a)\quad [a=\text{acceleration of elevator}]\\\Rightarrow 830=95(9.8-a)\\\Rightarrow 8.736=9.8-a\\\Rightarrow a=1.06\ m/s^2[/tex]

After 3.6 s weight becomes 930 N which is approximately equal to normal weight. It implies elevator starts moving with constant velocity i.e. no acceleration.

If elevator starts from rest, it velocity after 3.6 s is

[tex]v=u+at\\\Rightarrow v=0+1.06(3.6)\\\Rightarrow v=3.816\ m/s[/tex]

This velocity will remain continues as after 3.6 s, elevator starts moving with constant velocity.

Answer:

By measure the effective length and the time period of the pendulum.

Explanation:

Let the student take the oscillating pendulum at the planet.

He measure the time period of the pendulum  by using the stop watch or the ordinary watch.

Then measure the effective length of the pendulum which is the distance between the center of gravity of the bob and the point of suspension of the pendulum.

Now, use the formula of the time period of the pendulum,

[tex]T =2\pi\sqrt\frac{L}{g}[/tex]

Here, L is the effective length of the pendulum, g is the acceleration due to gravity at the planet and T is time period of the pendulum.  

By rearranging the terms, we get

[tex]T =2\pi\sqrt\frac{L}{g}\\\\T^{2}=4\pi^2\times\frac{L}{g}\\\\g =\frac{4\pi^2L}{T^2}[/tex]

Here, by substituting the values of L and T, the student get the value of acceleration due to gravity at that planet.

Answer:

wool and fibers

Explanation:

Answer:

  I = ⅓ m L²

Explanation:

They tell us to use the parallel axes theorem

         I = [tex]I_{cm}[/tex] + M d²

The moment of inertia of a rod with respect to the center of mass is

         I_{cm} = [tex]\frac{1}{12}[/tex]  m L²

the distance from the center of mass that coincides with its geometric center to the ends of the rod is

         d = L / 2

we substitute

       I =[tex]\frac{1}{12}[/tex]  m L² + m (L/2)²

       I = m L² (  [tex]\frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{4}[/tex] )

       I = m L² ( [tex]\frac{1+3}{12}[/tex] )

       I = ⅓ m L²

Answer:

The downwards acceleration is 3.53 m/s2.

Explanation:

Let the true weight is m g.

The reading of the balance, R = 0.64 mg

Let the acceleration is a.

As the apparent weight is less than the true weight so the elevator goes down wards with some acceleration.

Use Newton's second law

m g - R = m a

m g - 0.64 m g = m a

0.36 g = a

a = 3.53 m/s2

Answer:

The acceleration of the object is -69.78 m/s²

Explanation:

Given;

postion of the particle:

[tex]x = 32t - 38\frac{t^3}{3} \\\\[/tex]

The velocity of the particle is calculated as the change in the position of the  particle with time;

[tex]v = \frac{dx}{dt} = 32 - 38t^2\\\\when \ the \ particle \ is \ at \ rest, \ v = 0\\\\32-38t^2 = 0\\\\38t^2 = 32\\\\t^2 = \frac{32}{38} \\\\t = \sqrt{\frac{32}{38} } \\\\t = 0.918 \ s[/tex]

Acceleration is the change in velocity with time;

[tex]a = \frac{dv}{dt} = -76t\\\\recall , \ t = 0.918 \ s\\\\a = -76(0.918)\\\\a = -69.78 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

F = 7.72 N

Explanation:

The magnetic force on the charge can be given by the following formula:

[tex]F = qvB Sin\theta[/tex]

where,

F = magnetic force = ?

q = magnitude of charge = 9.7 C

v = speed of charge = 0.75 m/s

B = magnetic field = 1.5 T

θ = angle = 45°

Therefore,

[tex]F = (9.7\ C)(0.75\ m/s)(1.5\ T)Sin45^{o}[/tex]

F = 7.72 N

Answer:

a) True. The battery obeys ohm's law, it is formed by an ideal source with a fixed internal resistance

c) True. Ohm's law is V = iR therefore voltage and current are proportional

Explanation:

In this problem let's analyze the load of the system, when a resistance is placed the current is 80 mA, if we place two resistors in parallel the voltage remains the same, but the current is divided between each resistance (bulb), therefore the current in the battery it must be 160 mA

Let's analyze the answers

a) True. The battery obeys ohm's law, it is formed by an ideal source with a fixed internal resistance

b) false

c) True. Ohm's law is V = iR therefore voltage and current are proportional

d) False

e) False. The current coming out of the battery is proportional to the load placed

Answer:

Explanation:

Kinetic energy is at an absolute max when the potential energy is 0. At the ball's highest point, at its most absolute highest point, the velocity of the ball is 0, making KE = 0 and PE the only energy the ball has. So if this isn't a trick question, the wording is off.

(a) 2.001N

(b) 2.001N

A sketch of the scenario has been attached to this response.

Since only the force vector F₁ is required, the only force shown in the sketch is F₁.

As shown in the sketch;

The x-component of the force vector F₁ = [tex]F_{x}[/tex]

The y-component of the force vector F₁ = [tex]F_{y}[/tex]

The magnitude of F₁ as given in the question = 2.83N

The angle that the force makes with respect to the x-axis = 45.0°

Using the trigonometric ratio, we see that;

(a) cos 45.0° = [tex]\frac{F_x}{F_1}[/tex]

=>  [tex]F_{x}[/tex] =  F₁ cos 45.0°

=> [tex]F_{x}[/tex] =  2.83 cos 45.0°

=> [tex]F_{x}[/tex] =  2.83 x 0.7071

=> [tex]F_{x}[/tex] =  2.001N

(b) Also;

sin 45.0° = [tex]\frac{F_y}{F_1}[/tex]

=>   [tex]F_{y}[/tex] =  F₁ sin 45.0°

=>  [tex]F_{y}[/tex] =  2.83 sin 45.0°

=>  [tex]F_{y}[/tex] =  2.83 x 0.7071

=>  [tex]F_{y}[/tex] =  2.001N

Therefore, the x-component and y-component of the force vector F₁ is 2.001N

The x and y component of vector F1 is mathematically given as

F_x =  2.001N

F_y=  2.001N

Question Parameters:

Generally, the equation for the x-component  is mathematically given as

x=Fsin\theta

Therefore

F_x =  F₁ cos 45.0°

F_x =  2.83 x 0.7071

F_x =  2.001N

For y component

x=Fcos\theta

F_y =  F₁ sin 45.0

F_y =  2.83 x 0.7071

F_y=  2.001N

Read more about Cartesian

https://brainly.com/question/9410676

Answer:

an unconscious needs rooted in childhood are the foundation of psychoanalytic theory.

Explanation:

Answer:

F is non-conservative.

If F were conservative no work would be done in moving back to the original point.       F dot S = W     if the net distance is zero the work done is zero for a conservative force

An object acted on by a constant force F moves from point 1 to point 2 and back again. The work done by the force F in this round trip is 60 J. Force, F is non-conservative.

A force is an effect that can alter an object's motion according to physics. An object with mass can change its velocity, or accelerate, as a result of a force. An obvious way to describe force is as a push or a pull. A force is a vector quantity since it has both magnitude and direction.

Moving back to the initial point wouldn't need any labor if F were a conservative function. Given that F.S = W, a conservative force does not exert any effort if the net distance is zero.

An object acted on by a constant force F moves from point 1 to point 2 and back again. The work done by the force F in this round trip is 60 J. Force, F is non-conservative.

To learn more about force refer to the link:

brainly.com/question/13191643

#SPJ2

Answer:

θ = 12.5 rotations

Explanation:

The number of rotations can be found by using the second equation of motion:

[tex]\theta = \omega_i t + \frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2\\\\[/tex]

where,

[tex]\theta[/tex] = angular displacement = ?

ωi = initial angular speed = 0 rad/s

t = time = 5 s

α = angular acceleration = 2π rad/s²

Therefore,

[tex]\theta = (0\ rad/s)(5\ s)+\frac{1}{2}(2\pi\ rad/s^2)(5\ s)^2\\\\\theta = 78.54\ rad[/tex]

converting it to no. or rotations:

[tex]\theta = (78.54\ rad)(\frac{1\ rotation}{2\pi\ rad})[/tex]

θ = 12.5 rotations

Answer:

d electric current is the flow of electrons in a circuit

Answer:

The metallic conductors

Explanation:

The metallic conductors has more free electrons that are movable, thus they conduct electricity better.

Answer:

= 0.257

Explanation:

Applied force on the safe by Bonnie and Clyde is F= 387 N + 341 N

= 728 N

Given safe slides with constant speed .So, force of friction =applied force

= 728 N

μ*normal force = 728 N

from this the safes coefficient of kinetic friction on the bank floor is

μ = 728 N / normal force

= 728 N / Mg

= 728 N / ( 289 * 9.8 )

= 0.257

Two connection methods are used for brushless DC motors. One method is to connect the coils in a loop as we compared it with the rotor winding of DC motors in Fig. 2.27. This method is called a Δ (delta) connection.

CORRECT ME IF IM WRONG!!

>>> JAZMINE

Answer:

The range of the photon energies is between:

2.652 x 10⁻²⁵ J    to    4.973 x 10⁻²⁵ J

Explanation:

The energy of a photon is calculated using the following equation;

E = hf

where;

h is Planck's constant = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ Js

f is frequency of the photon

[tex]E = h \frac{c}{\lambda} \\\\where;\\\\\lambda \ is \ the \ wavelength\\\\c \ is \ the \ speed \ of \ light \ = 3\times 10^8 \ m/s\\\\When \ \lambda = 400 \ mm = 400 \ \times 10^{-3} \ m\\\\E = \frac{(6.63 \times 10^{-34})(3\times 10^8)}{400 \times 10^{-3}} \\\\E = 4.973 \times 10^{-25} \ J[/tex]

[tex]When \ \lambda = 750 \ mm = 750 \ \times 10^{-3} \ m\\\\E = \frac{(6.63 \times 10^{-34})(3\times 10^8)}{750 \times 10^{-3}} \\\\E = 2.652 \times 10^{-25} \ J[/tex]

The range of the photon energies is between:

2.652 x 10⁻²⁵ J    to    4.973 x 10⁻²⁵ J

Answer:

The Escape Velocity Of Earth is

11.19 km/s

Explanation:

Hope it Helps!

Answer:

A) 3.367 × 10^(-6)

B) 2.97 × 10^(7) N/C

C) Upwards

Explanation:

We are given;

Mass of bee; m = 100 mg = 100 × 10^(-6) kg

Charge on bee;q=33 pC = 33 × 10^(-12)C

Electric field strength; E = 100 N/C

A) Formula for weight of bee; W = mg = 100 × 10^(-6) × 9.8 = 9.8 × 10^(-4) N

Electric force on Bee; F = qE = 33 × 10^(-12) × 100 = 33 × 10^(-10) N

ratio of the electric force on the bee to the bee's weight; F/W = (33 × 10^(-10))/(9.8 × 10^(-4)) = 3.367 × 10^(-6)

B) For the bee to be suspended in the air, it means the weight of the bee must be equal to the electric force. Thus;

mg = qE

100 × 10^(-6) × 9.8 = 33 × 10^(-12) × E

E = (100 × 10^(-6) × 9.8)/(33 × 10^(-12))

E = 2.97 × 10^(7) N/C

C) From Newton's law, sum of forces = 0.

Thus;

F_n + F + W = 0

Where F is the normal force.

Thus;

F_n = -(F + W)

F_n = - ((33 × 10^(-10)) + (9.8 × 10^(-4)))

F_n = -9.8 × 10^(-4) N

Thus, applied electric field is;

E_a = F_n/q = (-9.8 × 10^(-4))/(33 × 10^(-12)) = -2.97 × 10^(7) N/C

This is negative and so it means the direction will be opposite the Earth's electric filed which is upwards.

Answer:

Example:Opening of a bottle cap by tool

when we hold a tool and open the bottle cap this is because , force x tool force .

The load arm is usually shorter than the effort arm in second order levers. Moving a large weight hence requires less effort. A force multiplier lever or effort multiplier lever is the name for this kind of lever. A boat's oars, for instance, can increase the force.

Second-order levers are devices with the input force farthest from the fulcrum and the output force on the same side of the fulcrum. A wheelbarrow is an excellent illustration of a second-order lever.

A second-order lever will have an output force greater than an input force, similar to first-order levers. The output journey, however, will be shorter than the input length. Both the input and output forces in this situation will move in the same direction.

Learn more about lever here:

https://brainly.com/question/18937757

#SPJ2

#CarryOnLearning

Answer:

Attached below

Explanation:

The plot showing the potential as a function of distance from the center of the sphere is attached below

note : The Potential inside the sphere will remain constant as potential remains constant on surface and it start to decrease as 1/r