A food item is considered high in a nutrient if it provides at least ______ % of the Daily Value for that nutrient.
a.) 20
b.) 10
c.) 5
d.) 15

Answers

Answer 1

A food item is considered high in a nutrient if it provides at least A) 20 % of the Daily Value for that nutrient.

In general ,%DV is used  to state and tell about the serving of the food whether it is high or low in an individual nutrient. As per the general guidelines  5% DV or less of a nutrient per serving is considered low. While a 20% DV or more of a nutrient per serving is considered high.

Hence , an Egg yolks  is considered as one of the most nutritious foods on earth . If we consume a Whole eggs this will provide you with all the nutrition  which is required by our body . Egg yolks contains vitamins, minerals and various powerful nutrients, including choline.

Hence , A is the correct option

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Related Questions

Can dogs have mandarin orange juice?

Answers

Yes, as long as they are just given the flesh of the mandarin orange. The flesh of satsumas, tangerines, and clementines can also be given to dogs.

Can Dogs Have Oranges?

Orange flesh can be eaten by dogs, although your dog might not like it. A few little pieces of orange flesh as a treat are fine for a dog if they enjoy the taste; 1 to 2 slices at most is a reasonable rule of thumb to follow. They are full of healthy nutrients including vitamin C, potassium, and fibre. Oranges, being a citrus fruit, are strong in acid and natural sugars, so overweight dogs and canines that have diabetes shouldn't eat them.

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Benedict's reagent starts out aqua-blue. As it is heated in the presence of reducing sugars, it turns yellow to orange. True/False?

Answers

It is true that Benedict's reagent starts out aqua-blue. As it is heated in the presence of reducing sugars, it turns yellow to orange.

Benedict's reagent is a chemical reagent composed of sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and pentahydrate copper(II) sulphate. It is widely used in place of Fehling's solution to identify the presence of reducing sugars. The addition of other reducing chemicals yields a good outcome as well. It is named after Stanley Rossiter Benedict, an American scientist.

Benedict's test, in general, identifies the presence of aldehydes, alpha-hydroxy-ketones, and hemiacetals, including those seen in some ketoses. Although ketose fructose is not precisely a reducing sugar, it is an alpha-hydroxy-ketone and produces a positive test because the base in the reagent transforms it to the aldoses glucose and mannose.

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how to reverse prediabetes naturally

Answers

Blood sugar levels that are higher than normal but not high enough to be categorised as diabetes are called prediabetes. Strive for 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity exercise, such as brisk walking.

Blood sugar levels that are higher than normal but not high enough to be categorised as type 2 diabetes are called prediabetes. It raises the risk of type 2 diabetes and is a symptom that the body's capacity to control blood sugar levels is compromised. Because prediabetes frequently has no symptoms, many people might not be aware that they have it. Being overweight or obese, having a family history of diabetes, being physically sedentary, having high blood pressure or high cholesterol are all risk factors for developing prediabetes. Weight loss, regular exercise, and a nutritious diet can help reverse prediabetes and stop the formation of type 2 diabetes.

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A left atrial pressure of approximately 25 mm Hg increases pulmonary capillary pressure enough to produce pulmonary edema. True/False?

Answers

The given statement is true that "a left atrial pressure of approximately 25 mm Hg increases pulmonary capillary pressure enough to produce pulmonary edema" because the flow of the valve increases which increases the pressure.

Pulmonary pressure is a form of high blood pressure that particularly affects the arteries of the lungs and the right side of the heart. These arteries are responsible for carrying oxygen poor blood from the heart to the lungs.

Pulmonary Edema is the condition of swelling in the lungs due to accumulation of fluids in the air sacs. Breathing becomes very difficult for a person suffering from pulmonary edema.

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How many calories are in a slice of PAPA JOHNS pizza?

Answers

One slice (117.000g) of PAPA JOHN'S 14" Pizza, Original Crust contains 304 calories. 32% of the calories come from fat, 50% from carbs, and 18% from protein.

Is pizza thought to be healthy?

It is also unhealthy. Pizza can range in nutritional value from being a diet disaster to being a great choice, depending on the kind of crust, the quantity of cheese, and the toppings chosen. Pizzas, even the healthiest ones, contain a significant amount pf sodium from the cheese and tomato sauce, so if you're limiting you salt intake, then should consume cautiously.

How many calorie are there in two large pizza slices?

While two large slices of cheese pizza might appear to be a tasty treat, they really contain 475 calories, or about 25% of the daily recommended intake. You may help guarantee you were getting all the necessary nutrients for just a balanced diet by paying attention to the% Daily Value in particular items.

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A website sponsored by which of the following is likely to provide accurate and thorough information?

Answers

Information from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services(U.S. HHS) is probably accurate and comprehensive.

What is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services?

HHS implements social service, civil rights, and healthcare security programs in addition to offering human services. The Centers of Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Food and Drug Agency (FDA) are two of the HHS's most well-known departments (FDA).

What is the role of the US Department of Health Services?

The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' (HHS) goal is to improve and maintain the health and welfare of any and all Americans. For excellent health and human services, together with our support of advancements in global health.

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Which patient is most at risk of developing permanently impaired mobility?A. A 72-year-old woman hospitalized for anemia associated with diabetic nephropathy (kidney disease)B. A 55-year-old woman with mental illness who had become malnourishedC. An 11-year-old boy who sustained a fractured pelvis during a fall from his tree houseD. A 79-year-old man recovering from surgery to release a contracture of the connective tissue in his hand

Answers

Hospitalised for anaemia linked to diabetic nephropathy was a woman, 72. (kidney disease). Hence option 'A' is correct.

Anemia: what is it?

When you have anaemia, your body doesn't produce sufficient healthy 'red blood cells' to supply your tissues with enough oxygen. Being anaemic, or having low haemoglobin, can leave you feeling exhausted and frail. Anemia can have many different forms, each with a unique aetiology.

What effects does anemia have on a person?

Your body does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood if you have anemia. You may feel exhausted or weak due to a lack of oxygen. Additionally, you can get headaches, nausea, or shortness of breath.

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is a model for designing an exercise program that is often
shortened to the acronym FITT.
A. Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
B. Fitness Is The Ticket
C. Frequency In Tough Training
D. Fast Intense Training Together

Answers

Answer:

option A

Explanation:

what is bloves sauce recipe

Answers

Fresh onions, garlic, butter, and spices such as garlic powder, paprika, black pepper, cayenne pepper, onion powder, lemon pepper, chili powder, cajun seasoning, and old bay seasoning are used in the recipe for Bloves sauce.

The sauce has a strong smokey taste. That doesn't taste how I expected it to. It tastes more like a chili or barbeque sauce than pizza sauce. Although it tastes excellent, I wouldn't eat it with fish. Blove's Sauce is a spice-packed fish sauce flavoring blend. Blove, a video maker renowned for Mukbang videos in which artists devour massive amounts of food in front of a live audience, created it.

It's generally served with seafood, and our favorite way to eat it is with this air fryer catfish. But, bloves sauce is also delicious on potatoes, poultry, veggies, and a variety of other foods.

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Panera Bread Nutrition Facts: What to Order & Avoid

Answers

If you are looking for Panera Bread Nutrition facts, it is important to consider what items to order and which ones to avoid. When it comes to nutrition, it is important to make informed choices about what you eat.

Here are some tips on what to order and avoid at Panera Bread:
Order:
- Salads: Many of the salads at Panera Bread are packed with nutrition. Opt for salads with plenty of vegetables, lean protein, and healthy fats.
- Whole grain bread: Choose whole grain bread instead of white bread for added fiber and nutrition.
- Broth-based soups: Soups made with broth are generally lower in calories and fat than cream-based soups.
Avoid:
- Sugary drinks: Many of the drinks at Panera Bread are loaded with sugar. Opt for water or unsweetened tea instead.
- High-calorie sandwiches: Some of the sandwiches at Panera Bread can be high in calories and fat. Choose a sandwich with lean protein and plenty of vegetables instead.
- Pastries and desserts: While they may be delicious, pastries and desserts are often high in calories, sugar, and fat. Choose a piece of fruit or a small serving of yoghurt for a healthier option.
Overall, it is important to pay attention to the nutrition facts at Panera Bread in order to make informed choices about what to order and avoid.

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What is ORIF medical abbreviation?

Answers

ORIF stands for Open Reduction Internal Fixation. This is a medical procedure that is used to fix a broken bone. It involves the use of metal plates, screws, or pins to hold the bone in place while it heals.

This procedure is typically performed under general anaesthesia and requires a surgical incision to access the broken bone.

ORIF is often used for fractures that are too severe to be treated with a cast or splint. The goal of ORIF is to restore the normal alignment and function of the broken bone.

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What is the medical abbreviation blood pressure

Answers

"BP" is the acronym used in medicine for blood pressure. When referring to blood in medical records or lab test results, the acronym "Bld" or "Bl" may be used.What is the medical abbreviation blood pressure

An abbreviation is a condensed version of a word or phrase that serves as a substitute for the longer version. Abbreviations are extensively used in numerous sectors, including medical, research, and technology. The initial letter of each word of a phrase, such as "NASA" for "National Aeronautics and Space Administration," the abbreviation "Dr." for "Doctor," or symbols, such as "" for "about," can be used to create them. While abbreviations can be helpful for saving time and space, if their meanings are unclear, they can also cause misunderstanding and poor communication.

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Question 1 (Mandatory) (5 points)
How do you achieve wellness?
*Include the definition of wellness in your answer and give examples.

Answers

Wellness refers to the state of being in good physical and mental health and involves taking a proactive approach to maintain and improve one's health and wellbeing, examples include eating a balanced diet, exercising, etc.

What is wellness?

It can be gained by several methods, such as engaging in regular physical activity, which can help improve cardiovascular health; relaxation techniques such as meditation, deep breathing, etc., which improve the mental status; and avoiding risky behaviors such as smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, etc., which would lead to wellness.

Hence, it is a state of being in good physical and mental health and involves taking a proactive approach to maintain and improve one's health and wellbeing, an examples include eating a balanced diet, exercising, etc.

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What are the 4 parts in order for abdominal assessment?

Answers

The four parts in order for abdominal assessment are as follows:

Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation.

Inspection include looking for any apparent anomalies in the abdomen, such as scars, distention, lumps, or visible pulsations.

Auscultation is the process of listening to bowel noises with a stethoscope. Bowel sounds can offer information regarding bowel movement, and the absence or hyperactivity of bowel sounds may suggest underlying gastrointestinal disorders.

Percussion is a technique that includes tapping on the abdomen to examine the density and resonance of the underlying organs. The ensuing noises can aid in the identification of organ location and size, as well as the detection of fluid or air in the abdominal cavity.

Palpation is the process of feeling the belly with the hands for any anomalies such as lumps, discomfort, or organ enlargement. Palpation can also be used to evaluate the consistency and texture of the abdominal organs, as well as to identify any regions of pain or discomfort.

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Use the Seasons & Limits menu to visit the Deer Seasons and Bag Limits page, and then use the chart provided to locate the section for deer. What is the daily bag limit and what is one difference between Zone A and Zone B?

Answers

Deer Seasons and Bag Limits page:

Zone A

Archery season: DMU A2: July 30 – Aug. 7, DMU A3: July 30 – Aug. 14

Crossbow season: DMU A2: July 30 – Aug. 7, DMU A3: July 30 – Aug. 14

Youth deer hunt weekend: DMU A2 and DMU A3: Sept. 10–11 1

General gun season: DMU A2: Nov. 19–20, DMU A3: Nov. 19–22

Zone B

Archery season: Oct. 15 – Nov. 13

Crossbow season: Oct. 15 – Nov. 13

Youth deer hunt weekend: Nov. 26–27 1

General gun season: Dec. 30 – Jan. 1

Daily bag limit: 2 deer

Deer may be caught with or without antlers throughout the periods of the archery and crossbow seasons when this is permitted.There can only be one deer without antlers during antlerless deer seasons (see Deer Management Units).Only antlered deer are permitted to be taken in all other seasons. Only antlerless deer tags or permits may be used to harvest antlerless deer.

Hence above given is a correct answer.

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How does hand washing prevent infection?

Answers

Answer:

Hand washing prevents infection by washing not only killing the germs and bacteria in a wound but also washing them away.

Explanation:

What are the health benefits of eating vegetarian?

Answers

Answer:

A well-balanced vegetarian or vegan diet can provide many health benefits, such as a reduced risk of chronic diseases, including:

•obesity.

•coronary heart disease.

•hypertension (high blood pressure)

•diabetes.

•some types of cancer.

Explanation:

Hope this helps! :)

What is the ICD-10 code for history of MRSA infection?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for a history of MRSA infection is Z86.14. This code is used to indicate a diagnosis of personal history of MRSA infection.

The ICD-10 code is a standardized code used by healthcare professionals to classify and code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures. It is important to accurately document and code a patient's medical history in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.

In this case, the ICD-10 code Z86.14 is used to indicate a history of MRSA infection, which is important information for healthcare providers to know in order to prevent future infections and provide appropriate treatment.

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what is acute bronchitis icd 10?

Answers

Code J20.9 is the diagnosis code used for Acute Bronchitis.

Short-term bronchitis, sometimes known as a chest cold, is inflammation of the bronchi (large and medium-sized airways) of the lungs. Coughing is the most prevalent symptom. Coughing up mucus, wheezing, shortness of breath, fever, and chest pain are some of the other symptoms. The infection might persist anywhere from a few days to 10 days. After then, the cough may last for many weeks, with the overall length of symptoms generally being approximately three weeks.

One of the most frequent ailments is acute bronchitis. The best way to avoid lung cancer is to quit smoking and avoid other lung irritants. When acute bronchitis is caused by pertussis, there is an exception. Honey and pelargonium may aid alleviate symptoms, according to preliminary research.

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What does it mean to be Egocentrism?

Answers

Narcissistic: restricted in standpoint or worry to one's own exercises or needs. : being narcissistic or narrow-minded. egocentrically.

Playing find the stowaway is an extraordinary illustration of egocentrism. A preschool-matured kid will "stow away" from you - however some of the time not successfully. For instance, you could see them groveled down in a corner with their eyes covered, or under a bed with the vast majority of their body standing out!

Egocentrism is an outrageous type of self-centeredness. Therapists portray it as a condition of being not able to see things according to anybody's point of view with the exception of your own. While egocentrism is viewed as ordinary in exceptionally small kids, it very well may be a genuine issue in completely developed grown-ups who think the world rotates around them.

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When you are student applying for jobs and the company asks you to make a statement contrary to the rules and regulations of a at home help agency what could you say?

Answers

When applying for jobs, it is important to remember that honesty and integrity are crucial. If a company asks you to make a statement contrary to the rules and regulations of an at home help agency, it is best to politely decline and explain why.

In view of the aforementioned situation,  you could say something like, "I am sorry, but I am not comfortable making a statement that goes against the rules and regulations of the at home help agency. I believe in being honest and following the guidelines set forth by the agency."

This shows that you have integrity and are not willing to compromise your values for a job. It is important to stand by your beliefs and not be swayed by the potential of a job offer.

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What is the ICD-10 code for urinary incontinence without sensory awareness?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for urinary incontinence without sensory awareness is R32. This code is used to indicate that the patient is experiencing involuntary leakage of urine, but without the sensation of needing to urinate.

This type of urinary incontinence is also referred to as "reflex incontinence" and is commonly associated with neurological conditions such as spinal cord injuries or multiple sclerosis. The R32 code falls under the category of Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory Findings, Not Elsewhere Classified. It is important to accurately document and code for urinary incontinence without sensory awareness to ensure appropriate diagnosis, treatment, and billing of medical services provided to the patient.

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What is the ICD-10 code for bloody stool?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for bloody stool is K62.5. This code falls under the category of "Diseases of the digestive system".

The medical condition "Hemorrhage of sphincter ani and rectum" is denoted by the ICD-10 code K62.5. It is a specific code used to classify diagnoses and symptoms related to haemorrhages. In the ICD-10 classification system, this code is part of the "Diseases of the Digestive System" chapter (K00-K95).

The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) is a medical classification system used for coding diagnoses and procedures. The code for bloody stool is K92.2, which falls under the category of "Diseases of the digestive system" in the ICD-10.

A variety of factors can cause sphincter ani and rectum haemorrhage, including constipation, trauma, infections, tumours, inflammatory bowel disease, or vascular disorders. Rectal bleeding, pain, discomfort, or a sense of incomplete bowel evacuation are all possible symptoms.

A physical examination, medical history, and diagnostic tests such as colonoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, or barium enema are typically used to make the diagnosis of anus and rectum haemorrhage.

The treatment for anus and rectum haemorrhage is determined by the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Medication, lifestyle changes, dietary changes, surgery, and other interventions may be used as treatment options.

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What trauma level is Fort Belvoir Community Hospital?

Answers

Fort Belvoir Community Hospital is a Level III trauma centre.

This means that it is capable of providing emergency care for patients with moderate to severe injuries or illnesses. Level III trauma centres are typically equipped with specialized resources such as intensive care units, operating rooms, and diagnostic imaging equipment.

They also have trained staff members who are able to provide advanced medical care to patients. While Level III trauma centres are not as comprehensive as Level I or Level II centres, they still provide an important level of care for patients who need immediate medical attention.

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What is the ICD-10 code for neck and back pain?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for neck pain is M54.2, and the ICD-10 code for back pain is M54.5.

However, it's important to note that these codes only provide a general category for the pain, and more specific codes may be needed to accurately describe the condition. Additionally, these codes should only be used by qualified healthcare professionals for medical coding and billing purposes. If you are experiencing neck or back pain, it's important to seek medical advice from a healthcare provider.

Mild neck pain can often be treated with rest, ice or heat therapy, and over-the-counter pain medications. Physical therapy or chiropractic care may also be recommended to help alleviate neck pain. In more severe cases, prescription pain medication, injections, or surgery may be necessary.

It's important to seek medical attention if neck pain is severe, lasts for an extended period, or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, weakness, or difficulty breathing.

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Are cable face pulls for shoulders?

Answers

Yes, cable face pulls can be a great exercise for targeting the shoulders, particularly the posterior (rear) deltoids.

Cable face pulls are performed by attaching a rope or handle to a cable machine at about head height and pulling the rope or handle towards your face while keeping your elbows high and wide.

The movement primarily targets the rear deltoids, which are responsible for shoulder extension and external rotation. Additionally, cable face pulls can also help strengthen the rotator cuff muscles, which can help improve shoulder stability and reduce the risk of injury.

However, it's important to note that while cable face pulls can be a useful exercise for shoulder development, they should be incorporated into a well-rounded workout program that includes exercises targeting other muscle groups as well.

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What causes an intra articular fracture?

Answers

A intraarticular fracture of a ulnar (volar) section of the distal radius, typically brought on by the lunate pressing directly against the lunate fossa.

An intra articular fracture is what?

A fracture that pierces the surface of a joint is called an intraarticular fracture. These fractures also result in some cartilage loss. Because numerous bones are involved, fractures of joints are more difficult to treat or heal than simple fractures.

Can a fracture within an articular joint heal without surgery?

The majority of intra-articular DRF cases necessitate surgical intervention since these fragments frequently had displacements of >2 mm and were frequently accompanied by several fragments on the articular surface.

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What is Meyer's loop in the brain?

Answers

Meyer's loop, also known as the optic radiation, is a bundle of nerve fibers in the brain that carries visual information from the retina to the occipital lobe, the part of the brain is responsible for the refining of visual information.

Specifically, Meyer's loop refers to the portion of the optic radiation that extends from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) in the thalamus to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. The LGN receives information from the retina and processes it before sending it on to the primary visual cortex via Meyer's loop.

Damage to Meyer's loop can result in visual field deficits, which can manifest as a loss of vision in the upper or lower quadrant of the visual field depending on the location of the damage. This can occur as a result of various conditions such as tumors, strokes, or head injuries, among others.

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protein should account for 15% of the calories you eat each day.truefalse

Answers

False. You should consume 15% of your daily calories from protein.

Percentage ranges are provided for each macronutrient in the Dietary Guidelines of Americans by the USDA. The group advises people to get 10% to 35% of their daily protein intake, 45% to 65% from carbohydrate, and 20% to 35% from fat. 2 Additionally, they advise taking less saturated fat then 10% of total calories. The average American consumes 15% half their calories through protein, and well within the suggested daily allowance. However, some evidence indicates that eating more protein may help you keep a healthy body weight or maintain the strength of your muscles as you age. The U.S. Department on Agriculture (USDA) estimates that protein contains 4 calories per gramme. A typical healthy diet should consist of 20–30% of your daily calories coming from protein.

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If the semi-perimeter of a circle is 36 cm, then what is the area of that semicircle?

Answers

The area of the semicircle is approximately 207.02 square centimeters.

The semi-perimeter of a circle is half the circumference of the circle, which is equal to half of 2πr, where r is the radius of the circle. Therefore, if the semi-perimeter of a circle is 36 cm, then the circumference of the circle is 2*36=72 cm.

The formula for the area of a semicircle is (πr^2)/2, where r is the radius of the circle. Since we have the circumference of the circle, we can use the formula for the circumference to find the radius:

C = 2πr

72 cm = 2πr

r = 72 cm / (2π) ≈ 11.46 cm

Now that we know the radius of the circle, we can find the area of the semicircle:

A = (πr^2)/2

A = (π*(11.46 cm)^2)/2

A ≈ 207.02 cm^2

Therefore, the area of the semicircle is approximately 207.02 square centimeters.

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In addition to the health functions of general tea, such as refreshing and benefiting thinking, eliminating fatigue, promoting body fluid and diuresis, antipyretic and heatstroke prevention, sterilization and anti-inflammation, detoxification and disease prevention, digestion and greasy, weight loss and bodybuilding, it also has cancer prevention What is the justification for step 1 in the solution process?8x + 15 = 11x + 2Step 1: 8x = 11x13 A _______ is any event combining two or more simple events. What are 3 examples of continental-continental convergent boundaries? I will mark brainliest.Who created the music in Netflixs Wednesday? Three men agreed to rob a restaurant in a nearby town and bought pistols, ski masks, and gloves for that purpose. Prior to entering the restaurant, the man who was to be the lookout had a change of heart and wanted to call off the robbery. The other two men refused so the lookout threw down his gun and went to the nearby bus station to catch a bus back to his home. The remaining two men went into the restaurant and robbed it and it patrons. A patrol car happened by as they were leaving, and one of the men seized one of the customers as as hostage. In the exchange of gunfire with the police, a police officer and the hostage were killed. Both men escaped initially, but one of them was later captured and charged with robbery and murder. However, because of illegal police conduct in connection with his arrest and subsequent confession, all evidence connecting him with the charged crimes was suppressed and the charges dismissed.If the lookout is also arrested and charged with rude,r which of the following is his strongest defense?He had withdrawn from the plan before the two others began the robbery that led to the killings. The lookout will not be guilty of murder if he withdrew from the plan before the robbery and killings took place. At common law, each person who took part in the planning of a crime was criminally liable for the crime of conspiracy and for each offense committed in furtherance of the conspiracy. However, if one of the conspirators "withdrew" from the criminal effort before the substantive crimes occurred, he was not liable for the subsequent crimes. To successfully withdraw, the actor must notify all members of the conspiracy that he has withdrawn; this must be done in time for them to have an opportunity to abandon the planned crimes. The facts in the question clearly indicate that he had withdrawn. (A) is not as good an answer as (C) because,if the lookout had not withdrawn, he would be guilty of murder under a felony murder theory.His strongest argument is that he withdrew. (B) is wrong because it is no defense to a chargeof murder that the actor did not physically participate. The lookout would be guilty if he hadnot withdrawn, even without physical participation. (D) is wrong because, if the theory of the prosecutor's murder charge was that the lookout was a conspirator and is liable for all crimes committed in furtherance of the conspiracy, it would make no difference whether the other conspirators are being prosecuted. (All persons must be acquitted for this defense to be effective.)