A degraded ecosystem is replaced with a different but productive ecosystem type, one that might even include some nonnative species. For example, a degraded forest might be replaced with a productive pasture.a. passive restoration b. remediation c. partial restoration d. rehabilitation e. complete restoration

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

d. rehabilitation

Explanation:

Technology-associated rehabilitation is an ecological practice that allows a degraded area to be restored, rehabilitating all its degraded habitats. However, this restoration is not done naturally, but is caused by human intervention, which can cultivate the entire plant population in the area, even adding non-native species, which are selected to leave the productive area, but ecologically harmonious.


Related Questions

describe the cell membrane, cell wall, nucleus, and cytoplasm. which of these structures are you likely to find in a prokaryotic cell? eukaryotic cell? plant cell? animal cell?

12 points! please answer asap!

Answers

Answer:

you can see below

Explanation:

Basic Definitions:

Cell Membrane = the semi-permeable structure that surrounds the cell and keeps all of the cells organelles from exploding everywhere.

Cell Wall = the rigid 'armor' of the cell that surrounds it after the membrane. Usually made up of cellulose and ONLY found in plant cells.

Nucleus = A really dense organelle of the cell usually surrounded by two membranes. They contain and protect your genetic material. Basically everything that makes you, you.

Cytoplasm = The watery, salty, and protein filled 'soup' that fills the cell. All organelles float happily in this.

Now Specific Locations:

Eukaryotic cells

have plasma membranes

please mark me brainliest or mark me thanks at leat

only have cell walls if the cells are plants.

They do have a nucleus.

They have cytoplasm

Prokaryotic cells

have plasma membranes

cell walls are usually chemically complexed.

don't have a nucleus

have cytoplasm

Animal cells

only have the plasma membranes.

No cell wall

have a nucleus

have cytoplasm

Plant cells

have both the cell wall

and have a plasma membrane

have a nucleus

have cytoplasm

what is the function of bile​

Answers

Answer:

Bile breaks down fats into fatty acid during digestion.

Answer:

Bile helps with digestion. It breaks down fat into fatty acids. Which can be taken into rhe body by the digestive tract. Bile contains:mostly cholesterol

predators are... a. primary producers b. primary consumers c. secondary consumers

Answers

Answer:

Primary consumers

They eat the majority of prey

All claims in science should be supported by

Answers

Evidence

Hope this helps. Have a great day! :)

Describe the unique anatomical features of cardiac muscle. What role does the unique structure of cardiac muscle play in its function

Answers

Answer:

The cardiac muscle is made up of branched muscle cells, which have 1 or 2 nuclei and which the contact area between the heart fibers gives rise to specialized regions at the level of the plasma membrane called intercalary discs. The intercalary discs unite the cardiac muscle cells with each other, which provides greater adhesion to the tissue and intervenes in the rapid communication between cells. This allows its simultaneous contraction and the production of the beat.

Explanation:

The intercalary discs are the union systems that associate the cardiac muscle cells to form the myocardial fibers, the cardiac muscle is the muscle tissue of mixed components, which is located exclusively in the walls of the heart. For this reason, it has the function of generating the necessary contractions for the blood to reach all parts of the body.The intercalary discs are a special type of intercellular junction, a gap that guarantees electrical communication between these cells; and on the other hand, it provides places of adhesion and anchorage of one cell with another. The intercalary discs provide the structural foundation that allows the heart to behave as a functional syncytium.

Which of the following is the best definition of anaerobic respiration?

Answers

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

Anaerobic respiration is a process of cellular respiration. In this type of cellular process of respiration, oxygen is not needed to break down complex food substances such as glucose. Energy is generated in the process which is used for other cell functions.

Therefore, the answer is C.

is it possible that after the first meeting of male and female through sexual inter course
the female become pregnant after the sex??​

Answers

Answer:

Yes, it is possible because, if the sperm from the male goes into the egg of the female it can cause the female to get pregnant by that male. And its very rare for the female not to get pregnant after having inter course with the male. That's only if they had unprotected sex.

I hope this helps you!

XoXo Mashayla

Explanation:

explain water cycle with the help of diagram​

Answers

Explanation:

The water cycle is defined as a natural process of constantly recycling the water in the atmosphere. It is also known as the hydrological cycle or the hydrologic cycle. During the process of the water cycle between the earth and the atmosphere, water changes into three states of matter – solid, liquid and gas.

hope it helps.stay safe healthy and happy...

Whic type of graph would you use if you wanted to see if one variable had an affect on another variable?

Answers

A scatter plot or scattergram chart will show the relationship between two different variables or it can reveal the distribution trends. It should be used when there are many different data points, and you want to highlight similarities in the data set.

Answer:

line

Explanation:

A line graph is used to see if there is a relationship between variables.

The coding RNA in a cell at particular time is comprised of
A. total mature mRNA
B.whole RNA
C. hnRNA
D.4% of total coding RNA

Answers

B whole RNA that is the correct answer

The extinction vortex represents the idea that even if an organism is extant, it may have a gene pool that will not support its long-term survival.A. TrueB. False

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

Extinction vortex is a model used by scientists to understand extinction dynamics within a community. This model allows scientists to assess and understand how a population can become highly vulnerable to elements of its habitat, becoming increasingly apt for extinction. According to this model, any organism is capable of extinction, as all are susceptible to having a gene pool that will not allow its survival, regardless of the environment.

what's the target cells of melatonin?​

Answers

Explanation:

The suprachiasmatic nucleus appears as a target of melatonin in mammals.The pineal hormone may thus be involved in a feedback loop of the mammalian photoneuroendocrine system.

A mutation is identified in a tumor sequencing study. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most strongly suggest that the mutation is a passenger mutation?
a. The same gene is mutated in many other individuals with the same kind of cancer.
b. The mutation impacts the function of a known tumor suppressor gene.
c. The mutation is a silent point mutation in a protein-coding sequence.
d. The gene carrying the mutation is known to participate in the cell cycle.

Answers

Answer:

The mutation is a silent point mutation in a protein-coding sequence.

Explanation:

A mutation is a change or alteration in DNI sequences that introduce new variants. Many of these are eliminated, but some of them might succeed and be incorporated into each individual. Mutations can be damaging or beneficial.

There are two types of mutations in cancerous cells:

· Driver mutations, which refer to genetic changes that provide malign cells an adaptative advantage. These mutations drive the cells to tumoral evolution.

· Passenger mutations, also known as neutral mutations, refer to those that do not provide any advantage nor disadvantage to the cancerous cell. These mutations can be between DNI segments where the driver mutations are. Some of these passenger mutations might become driver mutations with time.    

Por qué algunas enfermedades se padecen solo una vez?

Answers

Answer:

por que a mi saber, cuando te infectas con una enfermedad viral al contagiarte y después sanar tu cuerpo crea anticuerpos que estos asu vez hacen que seas inmune a ese virus y otras veces las enfermedades son erradicadas con la vacunación.

why your 21st century sophisticated, how do you explain the role of the plant in the change of the air in the jar​

Answers

Answer: The gas of Fire constrains the atoms that make up oxygen in the air. Plants release oxygen, and take in carbon dioxide.

Why did Mendel use pea plants in his experiments?

Answers

Answer:

For Gregor Mendel, pea plants were fundamental in allowing him to understand the means by which traits are inherited between parent and offspring. He chose pea plants because they were easy to grow, could be bred rapidly, and had several observable characteristics, like petal color and pea color.

Explanation:

#carryonlearning

A muscle that is stimulated so frequently that the relaxation phase is eliminated is said to exhibit _______. Question 13 options: tetanus recruitment treppe wave summation

Answers

Answer:

tetanus

Explanation:

Tetanus causes a strong tonic contraction in skeletal muscles. This triggers a series of intermittent, progressive, and extremely painful muscle spasms. Tetanus is presented by patients who have stimulated a muscle too often, without allowing a moment of rest.

Enter the sequence of the DNA coding strand with a 5-3 polarity. DO NOT WRITE 5 OR 3 OR 5' OR 3' IN THE BOX!

Answers

Complete question:

Use the sequence below to answer the following questions  

3’-ACGGATCCTCCCTAGTGCGTAATACG-5’  

5’-TGCCTAGGAGGGATCACGCATTATGC-3’  

1. Enter the sequence of the coding strand with a 5’-3’ polarity

Answer:

coding strand → 5´- GCATAATGCGTGATCCCTAGGCA -3´

Explanation:

When referring to the coding strand, we are talking about the sequence that turns to be the same as the mRNA that results from the transcription of the same DNI segment -switching bases T for U-.  

The coding strand receives that name because it is the sequence that codes for each amino acid composing the proteins.

When the DNI molecule separates into two strands to form the transcription bubble, we can identify two separate segments: coding strand and template strand.  

The coding strand goes in direction 5´ to 3´, while the complementary strand -template strand- grows in direction 3´ to 5´.  

Whenever we have a DNI molecule and we need to determine which strand is the coding one, we just need to look for the presence/absence of start or stop codons.

So, in the exposed example we have two strands, but we do not know yet which one is the coding one.

Conventionally, the first strand is always the coding one. However, let us analyze it by using the presence/absence of codons.

First-strand:

3’-ACGGATCCTCCCTAGTGCGTAATACG-5’

let us write it is 5´to 3´direction

5´- GCATAATGCGTGATCCCTAGGCA -3´

now let us identify the start and stop codons in 5´⇒3´direction.

Start codon ⇒ ATGStop codon ⇒ TAA, TAG, TGA

5´- GCATAATGCGTGATCCCTAGGCA -3´ ⇒ 1 start codon at the beginning

5´- GCATAATGCGTGATCCCTAGGCA -3´ ⇒ 3 Stop codons

Second strand: We will do exactly the same procedure

5’-TGCCTAGGAGGGATCACGCATTATGC-3’⇒ 1 start codon near the end

5’-TGCCTAGGAGGGATCACGCATTATGC-3’⇒ 1 stop codon at the beginning

What we did here was to identify in both provided strands, where the start and stop codons are placed. We can see that in the first strand we have the start codon near the beginning, while in the second strand we have it near the end of the sequence. From this information, we can assume that the first strand is the coding one. However, you need to know that some coding sequences do not have start and stop sequences, because they might correspond to a sequence in the middle of a gene.

So, the sequence of the DNA coding strand with a 5-3 polarity is

5´- GCATAATGCGTGATCCCTAGGCA -3´

HELP ASAP!!!! 50 points!!
In this task, you’ll record the direction of a compass as it’s placed at different points around a magnet. The investigation will try to answer the question, Do two magnets create magnetic force fields that allow them to interact without touching?
Part D :
How might someone dispute the results of this investigation? How might you counter the argument?

Answers

Answer:

It could be argued that there is a separate force acting upon the investigation. Or that the room is invalidating the results for some reason. Or that an error was made in measurement.

There are a thousand and one ways to try to dispute an investigation like this. However, for every argument that can oppose it, a counterargument can easily be made.

For instance, controlling the variables invalidates about 90% of any possible claims to the contrary. The majority of arguments would stem from the fact that it is nearly impossible to completely prove something in fear of external factors. The solution? Control the external factors.

So, in conclusion, a person could dispute the results of the investigation by claiming that something invisible like magnetics could not possibly be proven to exist, because there are all sorts of things that could be influencing the investigation. The way to counter the argument would be to prove yourself that the environment is controlled, and that nothing could be influencing the investigation.

Answer:

guy ontop is correct

Explanation:

Which of the following events contributes to the termination of a signal generated by the binding of a ligand to a receptor tyrosine kinase? Only one answer is correct
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
2. Kinases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
3. Kinases phosphorylate key residues.
4. The receptor tyrosine kinase dimerizes.
5. GTPase removes a phosphoryl group from GTP.
6. Phosphatases phosphorylate key residues.

Answers

Answer:

1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.

Explanation:

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) are high-affinity transmembrane protein receptors that bind to a wide variety of ligands (e.g., growth factors, cytokines, hormones). These receptors (RTKs) have a transmembrane domain and therefore these proteins act as membrane receptors, as well as exhibit catalytic activity. The intracellular C terminal region of RTKs contains catalytic domains responsible for both autophosphorylation and tyrosine phosphorylation of their protein substrates. Moreover, Protein Tyrosine Phosphatase (PTPs) are critical enzymes that remove phosphate groups from tyrosine residues in different substrates (including RTKs), thereby regulating key signaling pathways such as cell proliferation, cell differentiation, and cell-cell adhesion.

The Gram stain provides a lot of clinically useful information but it won’t give you all the information you need for identification and treatment. About which of these do you NOT learn anything from the Gram stain?

Answers

Answer: d) The ability of the bacteria to process nutrients.

Explanation:

Incomplete question.

Options,

a) Structure of the cell wall b) Bacterial morphology c) Susceptibility to antimicrobial drugs d) The ability of the bacteria to process nutrients.

Gram staining is a type of differential staining to study bacteria, and is used to see cell morphology and to differentiate between gram-positive bacteria that appear violet and gram-negative bacteria that appear pink or red.

To perform the staining, fix the samples with methanol for one minute or heat and add a dye called crystal violet and wait one minute. Then rinse with water and add lugol for one minute. Then add acetone alcohol for 5-30 seconds. At this point, gram-negative bacteria discolor while gram-positive bacteria do not. After this, a contrast staining is performed by adding safranin or basic fuchsin for one minute. This stain will turn the gram-negative bacteria pinkish-reddish.

Crystal violet is a cationic dye that penetrates all bacteria through the bacterial wall. Lugol is a compound consisting of iodine and potassium iodide and acts as a mordant. The iodine enters the bacteria and forms an insoluble complex with the crystal violet, causing the crystal violet to bind more strongly to the bacterial cell wall. The added alcohol and acetone are used for decolorization, since the iodine/violet crystal complex is soluble in the alcohol and acetone. Thus, gram-positive bacteria do not decolorize, while gram-negative bacteria do.

A contrast stain such as safranin or fuchsin is used to highlight gram-negative cells. After contrast staining, gram-negative cells are pink or red, while gram-positive cells remain purple.

The wall of gram-positive bacteria consists of about forty layers of peptidoglycan which does not allow alcohol to pass through it because it is very thick, while that of gram-negative bacteria consists of a single layer of peptidoglycan. These differences cause gram-positive bacteria to retain the violet color and gram-negative bacteria to discolor.

So, with this type of staining we can certainly see the structure of the cell wall, because those that retain the violet dye even after treatment with a decolorant are gram-positive (many layers of peptodoglycan) and those that easily lose the first dye and take up the second are gram-negative (single layer). It also gives us an idea of the shape and morphology, which when stained will be visible under the microscope.

It also informs us about susceptibility to antibiotics, since some act only on gram-positive bacteria and others only on gram-negative bacteria. For example, gram-positive bacteria are sensitive to beta lactamase/penicillinase and gram-negative bacteria are susceptible to broad-spectrum penicillins such as piperacillin. However, this type of staining will not tell us about the bacteria's ability to process nutrients, because that is not a process related to the structure of the cell wall.

Provide details about Meiosis.

Answers

Explanation:

a type of cell division that results in four daughters cells each with half the numbers of chromosomes of the parent cell , as in the production of gametes and plant spores

Unlike other plants, trees are plants living for several years thus they are

A. Annual

B.shade

C.perennial

D. Fence

Answers

c. perennial

hope this helps!


130 and 14C are isotopes of 12C, which has 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 6 neutrons. What is the arrangement of subatomic particles in 14c?
A. 6 electrons, 7 protons, and 6 neutrons.

Answers

The correct answer is C. 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 8 neutrons.

Explanation

An isotope is a type of atom that is characterized by having a nucleus with a different number of neutrons. Additionally, isotope atoms are those that have the same number of protons in the nucleus (in the case of carbon 6 protons), but different mass numbers. In the case of the isotope of carbon, it has 8 neutrons (2 more neutrons than the regular carbon) and 6 protons in the nucleus, that is, that its mass is 14 (6 protons + 8 neutrons equals 14). According to the above, the correct answer is C.

A true reversion occurs when the wild-type DNA sequence is restored to encode its original message by a second mutation at the same site or within the same codon. Which of the following isoleucine codon(s) could be mutated once to form a methionine codon, and then mutated at a second site to restore an isoleucine codon?
A. AUC.
B. AUU.
C. AUA.
D. None of these codons.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option d- none of these.

Explanation:

The genetic code for methionne is AUG and genetic code for isoleucine are AUC, AUA, AUU. As we can see that there are first two codons are similar for both methionine and isoleucine.

So mutation at to any other site other than third psostion not possible that can convert isoleucine to methionine and this same mutation site is the only mutation position mutation can revere back methionine to isoleucine.

Thus, none of the given can restore an isoleucine codon.

Fill in the blanks: Antibodies are produced by _______________________________________ and bind to specific ________________________________ on erythrocytes, causing ________________________________, or clumping of erythrocytes.

Answers

Answer:

Antibodies are produced by _white cells__ and bind to specific _antigens_ on erythrocytes, causing __agglutination__, or clumping of erythrocytes.

Explanation:  

Macrophages are one of the different types of cells that intervene in the organism's defense system against strange substances and pathogen agents. These cells are the principal actors in the immune response.

Macrophages have several functions. They are the principal phagocytes of tissues, capable of recognizing different strange molecules that penetrate the organism, such as bacterias, parasites and, viruses. Macrophages phagocyte these substances and eliminate them, a process known as phagocytosis. When macrophages are activated, they release cytokines that favor inflammation response, which is used to neutralize the pathogen agent. When macrophages phagocyte strange substances, they show the antigens in their surfaces to be recognized by lymphocytes.

Antigens are defined as the strange substances that enter the organism and trigger a series of cellular events that produce defense mechanisms. Antibodies recognize antigens as invaders.  

In the organism, there are leucocytes or lymphocytes (white cells) in charge of immune defense. These are B cells, which produce antibodies, and T cells that can destroy infected cells from the body. They all circulate in the blood.

Antibodies are globular proteins produced by lymphocytes in response to the presence of strange molecules. Each type of antibody recognizes and combines with a particular antigen, immobilizing it. After that, the antigen is destroyed by other components of the immune system.

The phylogenetic tree above represents the three domains of organisms on our planet. According to this tree, organisms in domain Eukarya are closer related to organisms in domain Archaea. Organisms in kingdom Eukarya can be distinguished from organisms in kingdom Archaea by which of the following distinctions?

Group of answer choices

The presence of ribosomes for protein synthesis.

The use of a cell wall for protection and support

The presence of a nucleus in their cells

The storage of genetic material in DNA molecules.

Answers

Answer:

The storage of genetic material in DNA molecules.

Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions?
Core integration
Postural development
Dynamic balance
Neuromuscular strength

Answers

Answer:

Postural development

Explanation:

The agonist muscles are sets of muscles responsible for causing joint motion, whereas antagonist muscles are muscles that directly opposite agonist muscles (i.e., antagonist muscles generate an opposing joint torque to the agonist muscles). In a given movement, agonist muscles exhibit concentric contractions while antagonist muscles show eccentric contractions in order to stabilize the joint. Postural development is achieved by concerted adjustments of dorsal muscles and ventral muscles. The dorsal muscles are activated when the body sways forward and the muscle fascicles shorten. During backward sway, these muscles lengthen, while ventral muscles are primarily activated.

Dynamic balance is the condition that requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions.

The agonist-antagonist muscle contraction is the movement where one muscle contracts while the other muscle is relaxing or lengthening. The muscle contracts are agonist whereas the muscle that relaxes is the antagonist here.

Core integration: In such conditions, the constant movement of muscle contraction and relaxation does not require. It is a specific movement and increased stability of the movements.Postural development: continuous development and growth of postural muscles comprising the nervous systemDynamic balance: It would be the ability to balance in motion or changing positions. In this case, muscles require constant both agonist and antagonist contractionsNeuromuscular strength: motor commands according to the central nervous system to the ability to move in the nervous system, hence it does not require constant muscle movements.

Thus, the correct answer is - Dynamic balance.

Learn more about dynamic balance:

https://brainly.com/question/10275827

what must be true about two objects if heat is flowing between them​

Answers

Answer:

The objects must be the same temperature.

Explanation:

if heat is flowing between two objects, so both ​the objects must have the same temperature because the heat in object 1 passes to the object 2 due to the conduction property present in these objects. The heat flows from one body to another body until both have the same amount of heat energy as well as temperature so that's why we can say that both objects must be the same temperature.

Some pink flamingos are not flying birds. Therefore, it is false that all pink flamingos are flying birds.

a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Answer:

its false.

hope it helps

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Other Questions
In the figure, polygon ABCD is dilated by a factor of 2 to produce ABCD with the origin as the center of dilation.Point A is at , and point D is at . Read the excerpts from " The Royal House of Thebes " and " The Story of a Warrior Queen ."Ismene weeping came from the palace to stand with her sister. "I helped do it," she said. But Antigone would not have that. "She had no share in it," she told Creon. And she bade her sister say no more. "Your choice was to live," she said, "mine to die.""The Royal House of Thebes"When the Roman soldiers burst in upon them, they found the great queen dead, with her daughters in her arms.She had poisoned both herself and them, rather than that they should fall again into the hands of the Romans."The Story of a Warrior Queen"Which archetype do the two passages have in common?the warriorthe sagethe villainthe tragic heroine What is the inverse of function f? f(x)=3-x/7 How these changes help you develop and progress as a person or student? How can I balance chemical equations by providing the correct coefficients? For example: [?]Pb(NO3)2 + [?]NaCrO4 = [?]PbCrO4 + [?]NaNO3 Which of the following is an executive check on the powers of the judicial branch of government?1) enforces term limits for Supreme Court justices2) presides over Senate during hearing to impeach the president3) casts tie-breaking vote if the Supreme Court cannot reach a verdict4) nominates Supreme Court justices and federal judges Which of the following types of stars started out on the main sequence with the largest initial mass? a, b, c, or d? At the end of 2017, companies from one country collectively owned $22 billion in assets in its neighboring country. The $2 billion represents the ________ of FDI. A. stock B. flow C. outflow D. trend E. exchange difference between clarias gariepinus and hetrobranchus bidorsalis? find the missing side of each triangle. i need help!!! Loco Pony Adventures rents clowns and ponies for childrens birthday parties. If the annual total cost of furnishing entertainment is given by TC = 0.5 Q 2 + 25 Q + 1,000, the average variable cost of catering to 30 birthday parties is: Which issue are teen parents more likely to experience than adult parents- Low paying Jobs- Loss of friendships- Constant responsibility- Limited childcare availabilityHurry the first 4 questions x -23n +132 pls help Two projectiles A and B are fired simultaneously from a level, horizontal surface. The projectiles are initially 62.2 m apart. Projectile A isfired with a speed of 19.5 m/s at a launch angle 30 of while projectile B is fired with a speed of 19.5 m/s at a launch angle of 60. How longit takes one projectile to be directly above the other? The table shows the charge on three unknown subatomic particles.X positiveY no chargeZ negativeWhich particle is most likely present in the space outside of the nucleus of the atom? XYZ Company manufactures a unique device that is used by internet users to boost Wi-fi signals. The following data relates to the first month of operation:Beginning inventory 0 unitsUnits produced 40,000 unitsUnits sold 35,000 unitsSelling price $120 per unitMarketing and administrative expensesVariable marketing and administrative expenses per unit $4Fixed marketing and administrative expenses per month $1,120,000Manufacturing costs Direct materials cost per unit $30 Direct labor cost per unit $14 Variable manufacturing overhead cost per unit $4 Fixed manufacturing overhead cost per month $1,280,000 Using the information given, above: a. Calculate unit product cost under the variable costing method and the absorption costing method. b. Prepare an Income Statement under the variable costing method, as well as the absorption costing method. c. Prepare a schedule to reconcile the net operating income under the variable and absorption costing methods At December 31, 2020, Suffolk Corporation had an estimated warranty liability of $105,000 for accounting purposes and $0 for tax purposes. (The warranty costs are not deductible until paid.) The effective tax rate is 20%. Compute the amount Suffolk should report as a deferred tax asset at December 31, 2020. A body weighing 50 N is placed on a wooden table. How much force is required to set it into motion? Coefficient of friction between the table and the body is 0.3. What is the value of x?